₦airaland Forum

101. A good approach to answering examination questions is to begin with.................. A:
Reading the questions B: Reading the instructions C: Locating the difficult questions

102. A data collection method in which the researcher samples the opinions of
knowledgeable persons on issues under consideration is called. A: Data analysis B: Observation
C: Interview

103. Technical writing is the same as other kinds of writing. A: True B: False

104. Technical writing involves putting down your thoughts and opinions on scientific topics.
A: True B: False

105. Technical writing requires the use of ...... language. A: poetic B: factual C: dramatic

106. Which of these do not deal with precise information? A: Engineer B: Scientist C: Fiction
writer

107. How is good technical writing achieved? A: Naturally B: By practice C: Listening

108. Which of the following is not an example of technical writing? A: Medical articles B:
Field reports C : Sports and games magazines

109. Which of these is not a basis of a technical report? A: Facts B: Tests C: Personal
prejudices

110. The largest section in a technical report as listed in the following options is..... A:
Recommendation B: Conclusion C: Discussion

111. Reports that provide data and findings are...... A: Informational reports B: Progress
reports C: Experimental reports

112. What is the key difference between technical language and everyday language? A:
Technical language is more opinionated B: Technical language is more abstract C: Technical
language is more exact

113. Which of these is not an important characteristic of a technical report? A: Compatibility
B: Conciseness C: Clarity

114. When writing a technical report, the following should be considereoption. A: Topic B:
Purpose C: All of the above

115. What are the two main research methodologies? A: Questions and answers B:
Documentations and citations C: Qualitative and quantitative

116. Which of the following is true of qualitative research? A: It is concerned with
understanding an event or phenomenon B: It is used mainly in social sciences C: All of the above

117. Your research questions are really good when. A: they guide your literature review B:
they force you to narrow the scope of your research C: All of the above

118. What type of communication is talking? A: Verbal B: Non-verbal C: Written

119. Which of the following reaches a greater number of people? A: Writing B: Listening C:
Talking

120. What is communication? A: It is a method of talking to people B: It is speaking to other
people C: It is exchanging information with others

121. When communication is conducted face-to-face, that means. A: You chat up someone
on What Sapp B: You talk on Facebook to people C: You are communicating with person next to
you

122. An important part of communicating is..... A: Always knowing what to say next B: talking
as much as possible C: Listening to others
123. Which of the following is a communication channel? A: Informal B: Unofficial C: All of
the above

124. Why is eye contact an important factor in communication? A: It keeps you focused on
the topic B: It confirms that you are actively listening C: All of these

125. You know that effective communication has taken place when there is….. A: encoding
B: feedback C: effective listening

126. A report is an account of something .......................or investigated. A: Borrowed B:
Observed C: Realized

127. A report is written to................... A: give an account of a future action B: offer solutions
to a problem C: settle a conflict

128. There are ....................types of reports. A: three B: six C: two

129. Which type of writing gives ann account of what is based on imagination and emotions?
A: formal writing B: non-technical writing C: expository writing

130. Technical report is a type of report based on ................ A: account of information from
imagination B: account of facts based on emotions C: reliable facts based on experience

131. An effective report should be based on. A: hearsay B: personal opinions C: research

132. A research that seeks precise measurements and analysis of oncepts to answer
questions is known as................. A: qualitative research B: subjective research C: quantitative
research

133. Empirical research is the same as. A: normative research B: quantitative researc h C:
subjective research

134. A research that is based on information that can be collected and verifiedis known as.
A: empirical research B: experimental research C: observation research

135. To establish a link between the subject taught and the libraryresources available is one
of the objectives of....... A: charging system B: resoueces sharing C: user education

136. One characteristics of technical report writing is that it is. A: subjective B: reliable C:
informative

137. Expository writing is used to. A: tell a story or tale B: provide information C: argue on a
subject matter

138. An orderly arrangement of information for easy reading and comprehension is called. A:
exemplification and explanation B: definition and description C: topical arrangement

139. Data collection method carried out by sampling opinions of people is known as. A:
library source B: observation C: interview

140. To keep record of all reading materials in the library and assisst the user in the choice of
a book are some functions of. A: library classification scheme B: library catalogue C:
bibliographies

141. Definition is crucial in reserach because it makes. A: information symbolic B: items to
stand out clearly C: writing easy

142. Communication means sharing information between............ A: man and other species
B: receiver and the decorde r C: sender and decorder

143. The three main types of library catalogue are. A: author/title, subject and classifies
catalogue B: sheaf, subject and card catalogue C: computer, sheaf and book catalogue

144. channel and medium in communication are synonymous. A: correct statement B:
incorrect statement C: partially correct

145. Oral communication means. A: communication by means of writing B: Communication
by words of mouth C: communication by the use of the hands

146. Communication through non-use of words is called. A: written communication B: oral
communication C: non-verbal communication

147. inability to use the verbal communication effectively results in. A: physical noise B:
psychological noise C : linguistics noise

148. For effective communication to take place, one of the following must be considered. A:
be rigid B: be clear about what is intended C: be expressive

149. A strategy in which similarities and differences between two things are examined is
known as............ A: classification B: comparision/ contrast C: summary

150. .................is an intellectual work designed to check for specific information meant to
be read and has an array of disjointed enteries generally arranged in alphebetical order. A:
textbook B: reference book C: journals

51. The term Periodicals, Serials, Journals are used interchangeably to refer to the group of library
materials which appear in series at regular intervals such as. A: Weekly B: Monthly C: Quarterly

52. Federal University of Technology Minna Library was established in t he year …. A: 1983 B: 1984
C: 1986

53. The following are functions of the University Library except. A: To acquire information materials
B: To organize and arrange information resources C: To entertain dancers

54. Under library of congress classification scheme T represents ……. A: Fine Art B: Geography C:
Technology [/b]

55. The type of information resources available in FUT Minna library are …. A: Local materials B:
Historical resources C: Prints and non-prints

56. The followings are reference sources except. A: Dictionary B: Directory C: Newspapers

57. The software used by Federal University of Technology to dictate plagiarism in student
assignments, projects, thesis and dissertations is called. A: Citation B: Summarizing C: Turn-it-in

58. The acronym OPAC stands for. A: On-line of Public Administration Congress B: On-line Public
Access Catalog C: On-line Peoples Access to Catalogue59. Communication as a process is not one of these. A: Dynamic B: Cyclical C: Recursive

60. Writing is all but one of these . A: Vocalization B: Communication in print C: Language in print

61. All, EXCEPT ONE of these strategies, are employed to present materials in expository writing. A:
Definition B: Classification C: Suspense

62. One of these does not belong to formal reports. A: Field trips B: Minutes of meeting C: Progress
reports

63. Pick out the odd item from these options. A: List B: Explain C: Discuss

64. Both man and beast can verbalize. A: True B: False

65. Two examples of written communication are books and letters. A: True B: False

66. The response of the receiver sent to the source is called feedback. A: True B: False

67. Writing is an offshoot of non-verbal communication. A: True B: False

68. Pick the odd item from among these options. A: textbooks B: class lectures C: recharge cards

69. Tick the item that does not belong to this group of options. A: interviews B: games C: library

70. Tick the odd item from these option items. A: topic B: review of examination questions C:
hypothesis

71. Empirical research and normative research are research methodologies. A: True B: False

72. A clearly structured document that presents informative account as clearly and succinctly as
possible is called a report. A: True B: False

73. There are broadly ..............types of reports. A: Three B: One C: Two

74. One of the purposes of writing technical report is to.......... A: Entertain B: Amuse C: Inform

75. The language skill from which writing is derived is......... A: Speaking B: Voicing C:
Communication

76. The vocabulary of technical report tends to be.......................................................... A: Loose B:
Common C: Specialised

77. Laboratory report writing is a communication form used in. A: Humanity B: Science and
technology C: Arts

78. One of the following attributes are necessary for a good report writing. A: Proper research B:
Personal opinion C: Loose expression

79. Empirical research is preferred in Science and Technology because it............. A: Cannot be
verified B: Can be verified C: Is easily used

80. In making use of observation, the researcher must be .............. A: Frank B: Subjective C:
Objective

81. Experimental research usually has.........................group. A: Play B: Control C: Investigative

82. Case study research is a(n) ...................study of a particular situation. A: Survey B: Short C: Indepth

83. A concise summary of a research report is called. A: A paraphrase B: A sample C: An abstract

84. The hypothesis usually grows out of................... A: Observation B: Guess work C: Meditation

85. A research method that provides information on what actually happened is calleoption:
................... A: Questionnaire B: Case study C: Observation

86. The purpose of technical report writing is to. A: Explain a topic to other people B: Hide
information from readers C: Explain a variety of topics to other people

87. A research report is used in scientific study to. A: Present the minutes of a meeting B: Present
the results of a study C: Present the outcome of a debate88. The most important of all sections in writing the report of an experiment is. A: Procedure of
study B: Discussion of results C: Conclusion

89. Communication is the key word around which life. A: Resolves B: Stays C: Begins

90. Communication is................to all human activities. A: Dangerous B: Everything C: Crucial

91. Stimulus is what .................the communication exchange. A: Permits B: Delays C: Triggers

92. The pathway through which the message travels between the sender and the receiver is the. A:
Source B: Channel C: Medium

93. The situation where a message is not well received and well understood is calleoption: ..............
A: Negative feedback B: Incomplete communication C: Undecided feedback

94. Basically, there are ......................major types of communication. A: Five B: Three C: Two

95. Verbal communication can be................. A: Oral or written B: Oral only C: Oral and written

96. Writing is ......................of oral communication. A: Opposite B: An off shot C: A basic

97. Communication without the use of words is known. A: Negative message B: Body language C:
Verbal message
Choose the option that expresses the proper examination habit. A: Simple and direct English
expression is preferred in writing examinations successfully B: Language that should make the
examiner think twice should be adopted in writing examination papers C: Language of your
discipline should be adopted in writing GST examinations

98. The encoder's inability to use the language of communication appropriately is referred to
as................ A: Interference B: Negative feedback C: Linguistic Noise

99. One of the causes of failure in examinations is................... A: Failure to understand areas where
questions are set B: Not partaking in group reading C: Inability to familiarize with how to
attend to questions

100. In order to attend to issues of time in answering examination questions, you should. A:
Time each question to be answered B: Put a watch beside you and watch it constantly C: Give
priority to questions that attract heavier marks

1. Choose the option that expresses the proper examination habit. A: Simple and direct English
expression is preferred in writing examinations successfully B: Language that should make the
examiner think twice should be adopted in writing examination papers C: Language of your
discipline should be adopted in writing GST examinations

2. One of these is NOT a component of technical reporting. A: Abstract B: Imagination and
creativity C: Literature Review

3. Data collection methods include all BUT ONE of the following. A: Interviews B: Library C: Orally

4. Identify the ODD option from the options. A: Questionnaire B: Discussion C: Illustration

5. Every good Abstract in a research study comprises. A: Outlines context, background and review
of literature B: Name of author, title of research project and summary C: Purpose of research,
research methods, findings and recommendations

6. A very salient fact in answering examination questions successfully is. A: Reading the questions
thoroughly [/b] B: Concentrating on the questions C: Understanding the actions demanded by the
questions.

7. One of these statements DOES NOT define a journal. A: They are publications made at regular
intervals B: They contain most current discoveries C: They reveal inadequacies in academic
pursuit

8. One of these factors can make a student fail an examination after being prepared for it. A:
Inappropriate time allocations to questions B: Class lecture attendance irregularity C:
Inconclusive field trips

9. The main purpose of excursion in school is. A: To explore the outside environment B: To
experience and practice all that has been learnt in theory C: To extend all classroom lectures

10. Any student who desires success in examinations must participate in all BUT ONE of these
activities. A: Read textbooks and extract information from them B: Seek information from the
internet C: Understand definition of terminology

11. When you are asked to CLASSIFY, you are expected to. A: Arrange items into groups according
to a guideline B: Name many items in succession C: Answer fully with reasons

12. When you give both sides of an argument and then your own opinion, you are said to have . A:
Discussed B: Elaborated C: Concluded

13. In making an OUTLINE, you focus on. A: Naming many items in succession B: Showing the major
points in summary C: Making a sketchy account of something

14. One of these options is NOT a characteristic of a SIMPLE definition. A: The term defined must be
identifiable B: The definition must identify the family of the object defined C: The object defined
must not be too common comparatively

15. Which of these options is NOT TRUE of discussion questions? A: It demands independence of
thought B: It is a debate C: You present essential parts of the question topic 16. In the communication process, ONE of these options is not necessary. A: Message B: Receiver C:
Interpreter

17. When there is communication breakdown, it could be a result of. A: Tone of the discussants B:
Noise C: Health challenge

18. When a communicator uses bad grammar in expression, it is called. A: Language failure B:
Linguistic noise C: Language confusion

19. All the facts listed in the following options are essential for effective communication EXCEPT
ONE. Identify it. A: Assume the role of the communication initiator B: Be clear of what you
want to say C: Be a good listener

20. An essay ceases to be expository when it. A: Engages in imaginative details of an activity B:
Describes how to process soya milk C: Defines basic concepts of an operation

21. Students are given examinations to write in order to assess. A: How regular they are in class B:
To find out if they are obedient students C: To find out if they understand what was taught in
class

22. Which of these is NOT a source of information for answering examination questions? A:
Textbooks B: Electronic Media C: Social Media

23. The rules guiding an examination are contained in which part of the examination question
paper? A: The questions part B: The instructions part C: The introduction part

24. What is the name of reading materials that are based on specialized area of learning and are
the commonest point of reference for students? A: Journals B: Lectures C: Textbooks

25. What is the most important activity in the school system and most important source of
information? A: Studying B: Lectures C: Seminars

26. What is the name of the publication that contains results of latest researches and
developments in particular disciplines? A: Journals B: Magazines C: Handouts

27. The knowledge of how much information is required to answer an examination question has to
do with. A: Scope of the answer B: Language/Style C: Temperament of the student

28. : Questions asking you to list or itemize or mention require you to. A: Discuss extensively B:
Write all you know on a subject C: Simply name things

29. A definition in which the term defined, the family it belongs to, and the characteristics that
distinguish it from other members of the family, are clearly stated, is called. A: Simple definition
B: Complex definition C: Descriptive definition

30. The kind of question that requires you to give details of the major characteristics or aspects of
something is called. A: Description question B: Complex question C: Analysis question

31. What kind of description gives the characteristics of an object you can see and also touch? A:
Function description B: Physical description C: Mental description

32. A step by step description of an activity is called. A: Gradual description B: Process description
C: Physical description

33. A description stating what something is used for or what it does is called. A: Doing description
B: Social description C: Function description

34. A Technical report is. A: Written report based on imagination, on issues that may occur in the
future B: An account of what has been learned based on experience, observation or
investigation C: A report that seeks to entertain, create suspense or stimulate emotions

35. The research method that involves a detailed look at the behavior of a small group, one
individual or one particular population is called. A: Experiment B: Survey C: Case Study

36. In which part of your Technical Report do you give details of the sources you consulted? A:
Bibliography B: Methodology C: Literature Review

37. Which research type requires the researcher to choose a sample of respondents from a large
population and then administer a questionnaire? A: Survey B: Empirical research C: Experiment

38. In which part of the research report do you give details of the steps and processes you went
through, including instruments used? A: Charts, Tables and Graphs B: Hypothesis C:
Methodology

39. The detailed bibliography description of a document is called …. A: Cataloguing B:
Classification C: Preservation

40. Damage or mutilated books are usually repaired in the …… unit. A: Developmen t B: Bindery
C: Reprographic

41. DDC scheme was developed in the year------------- A: 1876 B: 1786 C: 1896
42. LC scheme has ------- active classes. A: 20 B: 21 C: 26

43. The highest management unit responsible for the coordination of the general activities of the
library is ……... unit. A: Collection development B: Reserve C: Administrative

44. Serials information sources are … A: Text books B: Encyclopedias C: Journals

45. …….. is gained from strategic use of information to achieve targeted objective. A: Knowledge B:
Reading C: Population

46. Part of the presentation to your reader which is done in the form of citation, is known as -------
A: References B: Inferences C: Deterrence

47. ------- denotes failure to acknowledge a source of substantial information or popular phrase
which the writer has “borrowed� from another person or group of persons. A:
Obscurantism B: Plagiarism C: Appropriation

48. --------- Denotes a full list of all books and related materials consulted in the course of research.
A: Bibliography B: Discography C: Lexicography

49. Two major tools used in the organization of knowledge in a library are …… A: Reference and
bibliography B: Catalogue and classification C: Reserve and circulation

50. Dewey Decimal Classification (DDC) was published by ……... A: Raganathan in 1884 B: Melvil
Dewey in 1876 C: L. O. Aina in 1941

161. The following are methods of data collection
except
A. interview B. observation
C. Graph D. questionnaire

162. The third moment about the origin 4 for the set
of numbers 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 is
A. 3 B. 4.3
C. -7 D. 7

163. Which of these is not true?
A. Skewness is the degree of asymmetry of a
distribution.
B. For skewed distributions, the mean tends to
lie on the same side of the mode as the longer
tail.
C. Kurtosis is the degree of peakedness of a
distribution.
D. If the frequency curve of a distribution has a
longer tail to the right, then the distribution
negatively skewed.

164. Find the mean deviation of the set of numbers 4,
5, 9.
A. 6 B. 5 C. 2 D. 0

165. Find the geometric mean of the following set of
data. 3, 3, 1, 9
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

166. What is the mean deviation of 3, 5, 8, 11, 12 and
21?
A. 4.7 B. 60
C. 3.7 D. 10

167. When the population of interest is partitioned
into sets of homogenous sub-population, the
method of sampling techniques used is called
A. Simple random sampling
B. Cluster sampling
C. Stratified random sampling
D. Double sampling

168. Out of 100 numbers, 20 were 4's, 40 were 5's,
30 were 6's, and the remainder were 7's. Find
the arithmetic mean of the numbers.
A. 5.3 B. 53.3
C. 0.53 D. 533

169. The arithmetic mean of the numbers 5, 3, 6, 5, 4,
5, 2, 8, 6, 5, 4, 8, 3, 4, 5, 4, 8, 2, 5, 4 is
A. 4.8 B. 67
C. 6.7 D. 6.8

170. The third moment about the mean for the set of
numbers 5, 7, 4 ,6, 3, 8, 9 is
A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 3 E. 4
171. The degree of peakedness of a distribution is
referred to as
A. moment B. histogram
C. skewness D. kurtosis

172. If Musa scored 75 in STA117 instead of 57, his
average mark in four courses would have been
60. What was is total
A. 222 B. 223
C. 224 D. 225

173. If the mean of numbers 0, x+2, 3x+6 and 4x+8
is 4, find their mean deviation
A. 2 B. 0
C. 3 D. 4

174. Observations that cannot be measured on a
natural numerical scale but can be classified
into groups of categories are known as?
A. Qualitative data
B. Quantitative data
C. Data
D. Raw data

175. The difference between a population and a
sample is that
A. Sample is a subset of a population
B. Sample is less tedious and unexpensive as
population
C. Sample can be studied in a survey
D. Population required trained personnel for
enumeration

176. The sectorial allocations to various ministries in
a state budget are as follows agriculture-
#25,000,000.00, education-#20,000,000.00
women affairs-#35,000,000.00 commerce and
industries-#20,000,000.00. In a pie chart to
represent this information, the corresponding
angle to agriculture is
A. 45 B. 60
C. 90 D. 180

177. A skewed distribution has the following
characteristics except
A. It has mean, mode and median at the same
spot in the distribution
B. It has skew coefficient not equals to zero
C. It can be analyses using an appropriate non
parametric test
D. It does not meet the normalities assumption

178. The range of the set of numbers 2, 3, 3, 5, 5, 5, 8,
10, 12 is
A. 100 B. 10
C. 1 D. 53

179. 4, 16, 30, 20, 10, 14 and 26 are represented on a
pie chart. Find the sum of the angles of the
sectors representing all numbers equal to or
greater than 1
A. 276 B. 360
C. 48 D. 299

180. The geometric mean of the set 1, 2, 3, 4 and 0 is
A. 2.21 B. 1.89
C. 3.14 D. 0

181. Quantitative data is divided in to
A. large and small
B. grouped and ungrouped
C. interval and ratio
D. nominal and ordinal

182. Qualitative data is divided in to
A. large and small
B. grouped and ungrouped
C. interval and ratio
D. nominal and ordinal183. The measurement of temperature is grouped
under
A. interval B. ratio
C. nominal D. ordinal

184. The army ranks can be classified as
A. interval B. ratio
C. nominal D. ordinal

185. The death rate is a ______ data.
A. interval B. ratio
C. nominal D. ordinal

186. The rate of accident is classified as
A. interval B. ratio
C. nominal D. ordinal

187. The I phone series is a good example of _____
data.
A. interval B. ratio
C. nominal D. ordinal

188. Types of fish is an example of
A. interval B. ratio
C. nominal D. ordinal

189. The candidates JAMB score is a _____ data.
A. interval B. ratio
C. nominal D. ordinal

190. A _____ is the set of all units or objects in a
defined area of interest.
A. survey B. population
C. census D. sample

191. A portion of population is called
A. survey B. population
C. census D. sample

192. One these is not an advantage of Sampling
A. time saving B. cost minimization
C. precision D. bulky

193. Which of the following is not a source of data?
A. direct observation B sample
survey
C. designed experiment D. none of the
above

194. A method of data collection where an analyst
goes to the field an investigate is known as
A. direct observation B sample
survey
C. designed experiment D. published source

195. Data collected from a published source is also
known as _____.
A. primary data B. secondary data.
C. qualitative data D. quantitative data

196. The difference between the minimum and
maximum value of a data is known as the
A. mean B. median
C. mode D. range

197. A _____ contains the basic details of all members
of the population from which sample are to be
drawn
A. sampling data B. sample frame
C. sampling design D. sampling method

198. _____ is not an example of sampling design
A. Simple random B. Stratified
C. Multi stage D. Variable

199. ____ sampling allows every member to have
equal chance of picking
A. Simple random B. Stratified
C. Multi stage D. Systematic

200. In systematic sampling if x = 9 and k = 5, the
next three members are
A. 5, 14, 23 B. 9, 14, 19
C. 14, 19, 24 D. 14, 23, 32
Use the information below to answer the next
three (3) questions.
A sample size of 50 is to be selected from a
population of 1000 using systematic sampling

201. What is the range of the first member?
A. 0 - 20 B. 0 -19
C. 1 – 19 D. 1 – 20

202. What is the value of the common difference k?
A. 10 B. 19
C. 20 D. 21

203. What is the first three members if the first
member is 17
A. 17, 37, 57 B. 17, 34, 51
C. 17, 36, 56 D. 37, 57, 77
Use the information below to answer the next
three (3) questions.
In a population of 3000, a sample size of 70 is to
be selected using systematic sampling
204. Which of the following can be picked as the first
member?
A. 42 B. 43 C. 69 D. 70
205. What is the range of the first member?
A. 0 – 42 B. 1 – 42
C. 0 – 43 D. 1 – 43
206. If the first member is 23, what is the next three
numbers
A. 23, 93, 163 B. 92, 162, 232
C. 93, 163, 233 D. 23, 93, 1631 2 3
A 2,000 1,200 800
B 25,000 20,000 15,000
Use the table above to answer the next 10
questions.
Using stratified method of sampling, the
members in a population (i.e. A and B) were
grouped in to three (3) strata. The sample size
for A and B are 60 and 120 respectively.
207. What is the population size of group A?
A. 2000 B. 3200
C. 4000 D. 5000
208. How many samples will be taken from stratum 1
in group A
A. 6 B. 12 C. 18 D. 30
209. How many samples will be taken from stratum 3
in group A
A. 6 B. 12 C. 18 D. 30
210. What is the population size of group B?
A. 40,000 B. 50,000
C. 55,000 D. 60,000
211. How many samples will be taken from stratum 2
in group B
A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 60
212. How many samples will be taken from stratum 3
in group B
A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 60
213. A sampling method that involves dividing into
stages is called _____ sampling.
A. Simple random B. Stratified
C. Multi stage D. Systematic

141. Statistical data obtained from hospital records
are called
A. qualitative data
B. primary data
C. quantitative data.
D. secondary data

142. A random sample of seven observations was
taken from a population of 100 observations.
The results were as follows: 14, 19, 15, 18, 10,
13, and 16. Calculate the variance of the
observations
A. 7 B. 8
C. 9 D. 10

143. Which of the following measures can we use to
obtain the strength of the relationship between
two or more variables when our data are on
interval scale?
A. coefficient of determination
B. Regression
C. Spearman’s coefficient of rank correlation
D. Pearson’s product moment correlation
coefficient.

144. If 5, 8, 6 and 2 occur with frequencies 3, 2, 4 and
1 respectively, Find the product of the modal
and the median numbers
A. 42 B. 37
C. 44 D. 47

145. The range of the set of numbers 2, 3, 3, 5, 5, 5, 8,
10, 12 is
A. 53 B. 1
C. 10 D. 100

146. In statistical analysis of data involving two or
more variables, the degree of relationship
between the variables can be measured by
A. coefficient of variation
B. regression equation
C. correlation coefficient
D. absolute measure of spread

147. Statistical data obtained from hospital records
are calledA. quantitative data.
B. qualitative data
C. secondary data
D. primary data

148. In a class of 150 students, the sector in a pie
chart representing the students offering STA117
has angle 12 degree. How many students are
offering STA117?
A. 4 B. 5
C. 5.5 D. 6.5

149. The first moment about the origin 4 for the set
of numbers 2, 3, 7, 8, 10 is
A. 12 B. 3
C. 2 D. 13

150. The mean of the numbers 1.2, 1.0, 0.9, 1.4, 0.8,
0.8, 1.2 and 1.1 is
A. 1.05 B. 1.02
C. 1.0 D. 0.8

151. The difference between a nominal and a ratio
scale of measurement is that a ratio scale of
measurement has
A. unit of measurement
B. decimal point
C. whole number
D. origin

152. The first moment about the origin for the set of
numbers 2, 3, 7, 8, 10 is
A. 6 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5

153. Observations that cannot be measured on a
natural numerical scale but can be classified
into groups of categories are known as?
A. Raw data
B. Data
C. Quantitative Data
D. Qualitative Data

154. Which of these is not a characteristic of a
histogram?
A. The areas of the rectangles are proportional to
the class mark
B. All the rectangles have their centers on the
class mark
C. All the rectangles having their bases on the
horizontal axis
D. The areas of the rectangles are proportional to
the class frequencies

155. The mean of the set of numbers 12, 6, 7, 3, 15,
10, 18, 5 is
A. 4.87 B. 48.7
C. 9.50 D. 23.716

156. Quartile is a measure of
A. Scale B. Partition
C. Dispersion D. Central tendency

157. Which of the following measures can we use to
obtain the strength of the relationship between
two or more variables when our data are on
interval scale?
A. Spearman’s coefficient of rank correlation
B. Regression
C. coefficient of determination
D. Pearson’s product moment correlation
coefficient

158. The Geometric mean of the numbers 3, 5, 6, 6 is
A. 6.43 B. 4.82
C. 5.41 D. 0.643

159. A students final marks in MAT111, PHY113,
GST110 and STA117 are respectively 82, 86, 90
and 70. If the respective credits received for
these course are 3, 5, 3 and 1. Determine an
approximate mean mark
A. 84.3 B. 85.4
B. 84.7 D. 84

160. In studying a population the characteristics of
interest is referred to as
A. Respondent B. Variable
C. Property D. Response

101. Dot plot, Stem and leaf and Histogram can all be
used to describe only
A. Qualitative data
B. Secondary data
C. Quantitative data
D. Primary data

102. A student received the following grades on the
10 quizzes he took during a semester 6, 7, 6, 8,
5, 7, 6, 9, 10 and 6. Which of these statements is
true of median from this distribution?
A. 5.5 B. 5.5th item
C. 6 or 7 D. 6.5th item

103. Given that for a distribution of wages data
mean = $79.76,
median = $79.06,
mode = $77.50,
standard deviation = $15.60.
Find the Pearson’s second coefficient of
skewness
A. 0.14 B. 145
C. 1.44 D. 14.48

104. A tabular arrangement of data by classes
together with the corresponding class
frequencies is called
A. Frequency table
B. Frequency distribution
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

105. The mean of four numbers is 5 and the mean
deviation is 3. Find the fourth number if the
mean deviation of the first three number is 2
A. 11 B. 6 C. 10 D. 27

106. The second moment about 1 for the set of
numbers 2, 3, 7, 8, 10 is
A. 45.21 B. 36.6
C. 4.52 D. 34.20

107. A population is defined statically as a set of
A. Things B. Units items
C. Animals D. Human being

108. Raw data are collected data which have ______
numerically
A. been graphed
B. not been organized
C. been organized
D. been presented

109. The advantages of secondary data include the
following except
A. They are less expensive.
B. The data allow for timely results.
C. The data usually involve loss of details.
D. The information is quickly gathered.

110. Suppose you are given a data set that classifies
each sample unit into one of four categories A, B,
C, D. If you decide to code the data as A = 1, B =
2, C = 3, D = 4. The data consisting of A, B, C,
and D are described as
A. Qualitative B. Numerical
C. Quantitative D. Primary

111. The mean of twelve positive numbers is 3. When
another number is added, the mean becomes 5.
Find the thirteenth number
A. 29 B. 28 C. 27
D. 26 E. 25

Should be 24 na

112. Calculate the harmonic mean of the following
numbers. 100, 47, 96, 80, 3, 1, 10, 2
A. 1.0984 B. 2.0987
C. 3.3456 D. 4.0251

113. The series of 16 students in STA117 for
2009/2010 academic session are: 65, 65, 55, 60,
60, 65, 60, 70, 75, 70, 65, 70, 60, 65, 65, 70. What
is the sum of the median and modal scores
A. 130 B. 140
C. 150 D. 160

114. One of the following is a class or major class of
data
A. Quantitative data
B. ObservationC. Interval
D. Experimental data

115. The second moment about origin for the set of
numbers 3, 2, 4, 1, 5 is
A. 55 B. 11
C. 4 D. 18

116. A student receives marks of 85, 76, 93, 82 and
96 in five subjects. Obtain the modal mark
A. 76 C. 432
C. it does not exist D. 86.4

117. Find the harmonic mean and the geometric
mean of 2, 4 and 8
A. 4 and 3.43 B. 34.3 and 3
C. 3 and 34.3 D. 3.43 and 4

118. Given the following class intervals:
50.00 - 59.99, 60.00 - 69.99, 70.00 - 79.99, 80.00
- 89.99. The class mark of the third class is
A. 77.50 B. 79.68
C. 74.995 D. 65.78

119. Evaluate the median of the set of data below 18,
10, 15, 13, 17, 15, 12, 15, 18, 16, 11
A. 13 B.14
C. 15 D. 16

120. Data collected through telephone enquiry,
survey and interview are known as
A. primary data
B. qualitative data
C. secondary data
D. quantitative data

121. Experimental data is always a
A. Qualitative data
B. Primary data
C. Quantitative data
D. Secondary data

122. Suppose that we have data on the incomes of
1000 Nigerian families. This body of data can be
summarized by finding the average family
income and the spread of these family incomes
above and below the average. The data also can
be described by constructing a table, chart, or
graph of the number or proportion of families in
each income class. What aspect of statistics is
this?
A. Inferential statistics
B. Elementary statistics
C. Introductory statistics
D. Descriptive statistics

123. Which of the following is true for a unimodal
frequency curve?
A. mean — mode = 3(mean — median)
B. mean + median = mode
C. mode mean = 3median
D. mean — mode = mean

124. Find the geometric mean of 5, 10, 15.
A. 9.09 B. 9.20
C. 2.97 D. 2.90

125. Marks scored by some student in arithmetic test
are 5, 3, 6, 9, 4, 7, 8, 6, 2, 7, 8, 4, 5, 2, 1, 0, 6, 9, 0,
8. The arithmetic mean of the marks is
A. 6 B. 5 C. 8 D. 9

126. Both circles and rectangles can be used to plot a
histogram
A. True B. False no na..

127. The harmonic mean of the numbers 3, 2, 5, 6 is
A. 2.90 B. 3.33
C. 6.9 D. 3.8

128. A random sample of seven observations was
taken from a population of 100 observations.
The results were as follows: 14, 19, 15, 18, 10,
13 and 16. Calculate the standard deviation of
the observations
A. 3.06 B. 3.90
C. 2.83 D. 2.54

129. The unknown intercept parameter in a linear
regression model determines
A. the value of the dependent variable when the
effect of the independent variable is zero
B. the value of the independent variable when
the effect of the dependent variable is zero.
C. the relationship between the dependent
variable and the error term.
D. the relationship between the independent
variable and the error term

130. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. The width of the bar rectangle could be of any
convenient size
B. All the bars must have the same width and
they should overlap
C. A bar chart is a series of rectangles whose
heights are drawn proportionally to the values
that are being represented or assessed
D. The heights of the bars should be drawn to
scale to show the relative measurements

131. The use of published data as reference for your
survey work is an example
A. Tertiary data
B. Primary data
C. Secondary data D. Universal data

132. The difference between a census and a survey is
that
A. Census require enumerating every unit of the
population
B. Survey is used when an information is
required about a population
C. Census require identifying the population of
interest
D. Survey required trained personnel

133. Find the second moment of the set 2, 3, 7, 8, 10.
A. 6.9 B. 10.3
C. 45.2 D. 3.4

134. Given the regression line of y = 6 + 5x. obtain
the estimate of y if x = 2
A. 16 B. 17
C. 18 D. 19

135. The standard deviation of the numbers 3, 6, 2, 1,
7, 5 is
A. 12 B. 2.16
C. 3.87 D. 5

136. The Pearson’s first coefficient of skewness is
given by
A. skewness = mean − mode
standard deviation
B. skewness = 3(mean − mode)
standard deviation
C. skewness = mean − median
standard deviation
D. skewness = 3( mean − median)
standard deviation

137. The Pearson’s second coefficient of skewness is
given by
A. skewness = mean − mode
standard deviation
B. skewness = 3(mean − mode)
standard deviation
C. skewness = mean − median
standard deviation
D. skewness = 3( mean − median)
standard deviation

138. The third moment about the mean for the set of
numbers 5, 7, 4, 6, 3, 8, 9 is
A. 0.4 B. 0
C. 25 D. 4

139. All of the following are branches of statistics
except one which is a sub branch
A. Biostatistics
B. Biometrics
C. Economitrics
D. Quality control

140. Suppose that we have data on the incomes of
1000 Nigerian families. If these 1000 families
are representative of all Nigerian families, we
can then estimate and test hypotheses about the
average family income in Nigerian as a whole.
Since this conclusion are subject to error, we
also would have to indicate the probability of
error. What aspect of statistics is this?
A. Elementary statistics
B. Introductory statistics
C. Inferential statistics
D. Descriptive statistic

81. A food frequency questionaire is a questionaire
to assess the type ofA. Diet B. Toxins
C. Vitamins D. All of the above

82. The geometric mean of the numbers 2, 6, 9, 12
A. 18 B. 6
C. 5.67 D. 2.25

83. What is Statistics?
A. The collection, presentation, analysis, and
utilization of numerical data to make inferences
and reach decisions in the face of uncertainty in
economics, business, and other social and
physical Sciences
B. The body of procedures and techniques used
to collect, present, and analyze data on which to
base decisions in the face of uncertainty or
incomplete information
C. A branch of Mathematics that deals with the
analysis and interpretation of numerical data in
terms of samples and populations
D. All of the above

84. The greater the number of intervals the more
_____ is retrieved. Supply the missing word in the
above sentence.
A. Information B. Class width
C. Class size D. Frequency

85. The second moment about zero for the set of numbers 4, 7, 5, 9, 8, 3, 6 is
A. 40
B. 28.50
C. 40.00 D. 20.16

86. A set of numbers consists of six 6’s, seven 7’s,
eight 8’s, nine 9’s and ten 10’s. What is the
arithmetic mean of the numbers?
A. 6.77 B. 7.67
C. 8.25 B. 9.25

87. The second moment about the mean for the set
of numbers 2, 5, 8, 11, 14, 17 is
A. 26.25 B. 0
C. 11.9 D. 31.5

88. 7 pupils of average age 12years leave a class of
25 pupils of average age 14years. if 6 new pupils
of average age 11 years join the class, what is
the average age of pupils now in the class?
A. 13years 10months B. 12years
C. 12years 10months D. 13years

dunno, I got 13years 7 months

89. In correlation analysis, a correlation coefficient
(r = 1) is an indication of which type of
relationship?
A. Zero correlation
B. Curve
C. Nonlinear correlation
D. *Positive perfect correlation

90. Which of the following is not a method of data
gathering
A. Experimentation
B. Paper and pencil
C. Interview
D. Observation

91. Given the following class intervals:
50.00 - 59.99, 60.00 - 69.99, 70.00 - 79.99, 80.00
- 89.99.
The class mark of the second class is
A. 79.95 B. 75.5
C. 77.10 D. 64.995

92. Types of Price index include the following
except
A. Gross Domestic Product Deflator
B. Consumer Price Index
C. Producer Price Index
D. Demand Price Index

93. The degree of asymmetry or departure from
symmetry of a distribution is referred to as
A. kurtosis B. skewness
C. standard error D. mean deviation

94. Representation of data in which every observed
value is paired with its relative frequency is
called
A. frequency distribution table
B. cummulative frequency distribution table
C. relative frequency distribution table
D. cummulative distribution table

95. Which of the following statements is not
correct?
A. A frequency polygon is a line graph of class
mark obtained by connecting the class
frequencies
B. A line graph is needed for a frequency polygon
C. A frequency polygon is a line graph of class
frequencies obtained by connecting the midpoints of the tops of the rectangles forming a
histogram
D. A straight line is needed for a frequency
polygon

96. In a class of 120 students, 18 of them scored an
"A" grade. If the section representing the "A"
grade students on a pie chart has angle Z at the
centre of the circle, what is Z?
A. 15 B. 54
C. 50 D. 27

97. Given that for a distribution of wages datamean = $79.76,
median = $79.06,
mode = $77.50,
standard deviation = $15.60.
Find the Pearson’s first coefficient of skewness
A. 145 B. 14.48
C. 0.14 D. 1.44

98. The largest of a set of 50 measurements is
8.34kg. If the range is 0.46kg, find the smallest
measurement.
A. 78kg B. 7.88kg
C. 8.5kg D. 82kg

99. The second moment about the mean of the set of
numbers 2, 3, 7, 8, 10 is
A. 92.10 B. 9.25
C. 11.50 D. 19.21

100. Find the sum of the range and the mode of the
set of numbers 10, 5, 10, 9, 8, 7, 7, 10, 8, 4,
6, 9, 10, 9, 10, 9, 7, 10, 6, 5.
A. 16 B.14
C. 12 D. 10

61. The set of numbers 5, 5, 7, 9, 11, 12, 15, and 18
has median
A. 9 B. 10
C. 10.5 D. 11
Ans: B. 10

62. The set 2, 2, 5, 7, 9, 9, 9, 10, 10, 11, 12, and 18
has mode
A. 7 B. 9
C. 9.5 D. 10
Ans: B. 9

63. What is the mode of set 3, 5, 8, 10, 12, 15, and 16
A. 10 B. 12
C. 8 D. no mode
Ans: D. no mode


64. What is the mode of set 2, 3, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 7, 7, 7,
and 9.
A. 4 B. 7 C. 4 or 7
D. 4 and 7 E. none of the above
Ans: 4 and 7


65. The geometric mean of the numbers 2, 4, and 8
is
A. 2 B. 4
C. 6 D. 8
Ans: 3rt(2/4/ B


66. The harmonic mean of the numbers 2, 4, and 8
A. 2.43 B. 3.43
C. 4.43 D. 4.43
Ans: 3/(1/2 + 1/4 + 1/ B. 3.4288

67. Find the geometric mean of the numbers 3, 5, 6,
6, 7, 10, and 12.
A. 6 B. 6.43
C. 7 D. 7.7
Ans: B. 6.4283

68. Find the arithmetic mean of the numbers 3, 5, 6,
6, 7, 10, and 12.
A. 6 B. 6.43
C. 7 D. 7.7
Ans: C. 7

69. Find the mean deviation of the set 2, 3, 6, 8, 11
A. 4 B. 5
C. 6 D. 7

70. Find the harmonic mean H of the numbers 3, 5,
6, 6, 7, 10, and 12
A. 5.85 B. 5.86 C. 5.87
D. 5.88 E. 5.89
Ans: C. 5.87

71. The second moment about the mean is
A. mean deviation
B. geometric mean
C. variance
D. standard deviation
Ans: Variance

72. For unimodal frequency curves, which are
symmetrical, the empirical relation between
mean, median and mode is
A. mean — mode = 3(mean — median)
B. mean + median = mode
C. mode mean = 3median
D. mean — mode = mean
Ans: Option A

73. Given the following number, evaluate the
average mean of the distribution.
51, 50, 47, 50, 48, 41, 59, 68, 45, 37
A. 49.6 B. 49.8
C. 49.9 D. 50.1
Ans: A. 49.6

74. A student receives marks of 85, 76, 93, 82 and
96 in five subjects. Obtain the median mark
A. 96 B. *85
C. 76 D. it does not exist
Ans: B. 85

75. The variance of the numbers 4, 7, 5, 9, 8, 3, 6 is
A. 9 B. 6
C. 7 D. 4
Ans: D. 4

76. Which of the following is not true?
A. A continuous variable assumes any value
within an interval
B. A discrete variable is a variable that assumes
only counting set of values.
C. Two sources of statistical data are quantitative
and qualitative data
D. Data are raw materials of research
Ans: Option C

77. The variance of the set of numbers 3, 5, 2, 6, 5, 9,
5, 2, 8, 6 is
A. 5.1 B. 51
C. 5.43 D. 9

78. The harmonic mean of the numbers 3, 5, 6, 6, 7,
10, 12 is
A. 58.7 B. 87
C. 587 D. *5.87
Ans: D. Obviously


79. One of the differences between a population and
a sample is that
A. a population is a subset of the units of a
sample
B. a sample is a subset of the units of a
population
C. a sample is a set of units
D. a population is a set of units
Ans: Option B

80. One of the following graphical methods does not
require at least an axis to plot
A. Bar graph B. Stem and leaf
C. Histogram D. Dot spot
Ans: B. Stem and leaf

41. A distribution having a relatively low peak is
known as
A. leptokurtic B. platykurtic
C. mesokurtic D. kurtic
Ans: Platykurtic

42. Data can be represented in the following forms
except
A. raw form B. tabular form
C. graphical form D. statistical form
Ans: Statistical

43. The following are advantages of secondary data
except
A. the data allow for timely result
B. the data constitute the exact and more
detailed information being sought
C. the information is quickly gathered
D. the data are less expensive to collect
Ans: Option B

44. A skewed frequency curve with its longer tail
occurring to the right is said to have
A. zero skewness
B. negative skewness
C. moderate skewness
D. positive skewness
Ans: Postive skewness

45. A bimodal frequency curve has
A. one and a half maxima
B. two maxima
C. half maxima
D. four maxima
Ans: Two maxima

46. The degree of peakedness of a distribution is
referred to as
A. histogram B. skewness
C. moment D. kurtosis
Ans: D. kurtosis

47. Data collected through enquiry, survey and
interview are known as
A. primary data
B. secondary data
C. quantitative
D. qualitative data
Ans: Primary data

48. The degree of asymmetry or departure from
symmetry of a distribution is referred to as
A. mean deviation B. kurtosis
C. standard error D. skewness
Ans: Skewness

49. A line graph of class frequencies plotted against
corresponding class marks is referred to as
A. frequency histogram
B. frequency polygon
C. frequency interval
D. frequency curve
Ans: B. frequency polygon

50. One of these describes the subject of statistics
more adequately than others is
A. it is a science of subject
B. it is a numerical science subject
C. it is a mathematical subject
D. it is a natural science subject
Ans: Option B

51. The mean of a set of data is 25 and the variance
is 25.34. obtain the coefficient of variation
A. 2.01 B. 20.1
C. 2.01% D. 20.1%
Ans: D. 20.1%
CV = SD/mean * 100 = sqrt(25.34)/25 * 100

52. Determine the range of these numbers 17, 45,
38, 27, 6, 48, 11, 57, 34, and 22
A. 33 B. 34
C. 51 D. 40
Ranging = Highest value - lowest = 57 -17
Ans: 40

53. _____ is the difference between the largest and
smallest number of a group of numbers is
A. mode B. range
C. mean D. mode
Ans: Range Obviously

54. Which of the following is not a measure of
central of tendency
A. mode B. range
C. mean D. mode
Ans: Range

55. Which of the following is not a measure of
central of tendency
A. harmonic mean
B. geometric mean
C. mode
D. variance
Ans: Variance is a measure of dispersion

56. Determine the range of the numbers: 12, 56, 42,
21, 5, 18, 10, 3, 61, 34, 65, and 24
A. 56 B. 58
C. 60 D. 62
Ans: D. 62

57. The arithmetic mean of the numbers 8, 3, 5, 12,
and 10 is
A. 7.5 B. 7.6
C. 7.7 D. 7.8
Ans: 7.6
8+3+5+12+10/5

58. If 5, 8, 6, and 2 occur with frequencies 3, 2, 4,
and 1, respectively, the arithmetic mean is
A. 5.5 B. 5.6
C. 5.7 D. 5.8
Ans: 5.7

59. The algebraic sum of the deviations of a set of
numbers from their arithmetic mean is
A. zero B. unity C. infinite D. ten
Ans: Zero

60. The set of numbers 3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 8, 8, 8, and 10
has median
A. 4 B. 5
C. 5.5 D. 6
Ans: 6

Some things to note

---

Data/Data set – Set of values collected or obtained when gathering information on some
issue of interest.

Statistics – Collection of methods for planning experiments, obtaining data, and then
organizing, summarizing, presenting, analyzing, interpreting the data and drawing
conclusions from it.
Statistics in the above sense refers to the methodology used in drawing meaningful
information from a data set. This use of the term should not be confused with statistics
(referring to a set of numerical values) or statistics (referring to measures of description
obtained from a data set).

Ratio scale – Level of measurement where differences and ratios are meaningful and there
is a natural zero. This is the “highest” level of measurement in terms of possible operations
that can be performed on the data.

Parameter – Characteristic or measure of description obtained from a population while Statistic is obtained from a sample

Sampling frame (synonyms: "sample frame", "survey frame" – This is the actual set of units
from which a sample is drawn

Simple random sampling – Sampling in which each sample of a given size that can be drawn
will have the same chance of being drawn. Most of the theory in statistical inference is
based on random sampling being used.

Systematic sampling – Sampling in which data is obtained by selecting every kth object,
where k is approximately
N/n.

Convenience Sampling – Sampling in which data that is readily available is used e.g. surveys
done on the internet. These include quota sampling.
Quota sampling – Quota sampling is performed in 4 stages.
a) Stage 1: Decide which characteristics of the elements/individuals in the population
to be sampled are of importance.
b) Stage 2: Decide on the categories to be sampled from. These categories are
determined by cross-classification according to the characteristics chosen at stage 1.
c) Stage 3: Decide on the overall number (quota) and numbers (sub-quotas) to be
sampled from each of the categories specified in step 2.
d) Stage 4: Collect the information required until all the numbers (quotas) are
obtained.

Example
A company is marketing a new product and needs to know how potential customers might
react to the product.
Stage 1: It is decided that age (the 3 groups under 20, 20-40, over 40) and gender
(male, female) are the characteristics that will determine the sample.
Stage 2: The 6 categories to be sampled from are (male under 20), (male 20-40),
(male over 40), (female under 20), (female 20-40) and (female over 40).
Stage 3: The numbers (sub-quotas) to be sampled are (male under 20) - 40,
(male 20-40) - 60, (male over 40) - 25, (female under 20) - 35, (female 20-40) - 65
and (female over 40) -30. The total quota is the total of all the sub-quotas i.e. 255.
Stage 4: Visit a place where individuals to be interviewed are readily available e.g. a
large shopping center and interview people until all the quotas are filled.
Quota sampling is a cheap and convenient way of obtaining a sample in a short space of
time. However, this method of sampling is not based on the laws of chance and cannot
guarantee a sample that is representative of the population from which it is drawn.
When obtaining a quota sample, interviewers often choose who they like (within criteria
specifications) and may therefore select those who are easiest to interview. Therefore
sampling bias can result. It is also impossible to estimate the accuracy of quota sampling
(because sampling is not random)

21. Which of the following is an example of ordinal
data
A. rank in army B. types of fish
C. home town D. dress colour
Ans: A. Rank in army

22. The set of all unit or object in a defined area of
interest is
A. population B. sample
C. census D. frame
Ans: population

23. The fractional part of the unit of the population
of area of interest is
A. population B. sample
C. census D. frame
Ans: Sample

24. The approach used when information is
required on every member of the population of
interest is
A. population B. sample
C. census D. micro study
Ans: Census

25. The method used when an interviewer attended
an occasion and records the event on the basis
of questioning the participants and observing
the event is
A. direct observation
B. questionnaire
C. case study
D. micro study
Ans: Direct Observation

26. The chart that comprises of a number of equally
spaced rectangles is
A. histogram B. piechart
C. simple bar chart D. polygon
Ans: Simple Bar Chart

27. ____ is a sequence of questions relevant to the
data or information being sought
A. postal B. interview
C. record D. questionnaire
Ans: Questionaire

28. Questionnaire are usually of two parts; the
classification section and section that contain
A. tables and graphs
B. conclusion
C. appendices
D. details of the respondent
Ans: D. details of the respondent

29. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
a questionnaire? Questions should
A. entails calculation
B. be in logical order
C. be short
D. be simple and easy to understand
Ans: A. Entail calculations

30. ____ contains the basic details of all members of
the population from which sample are to be
drawn
A. sample data B. sample survey
C. sample record D. sample frame
Ans: Sample Frame

31. The sampling design used when the population
is homogenous and fairly small and the
sampling frame is complete is
A. quota sampling
B. simple random
C. systematic sampling
D. stratified sampling
Ans: Systematic sampling

32. The sampling design that involves dividing the
population into a number of non-overlapping
sub-population called strata is
A. quota sampling
B. simple random
C. systematic sampling
D. stratified sampling
Ans: D. Stratified sampling

33. A stratified sample of size n = 60 is been taken
from a population of size N = 400 which
consists of 3 strata of size N1 = 200, N2 = 120
and N3 = 80. If sample is to be proportional to
size of starta, how many sample should be taken
from each strata?
A. 12, 18 and 30 B. 30, 18 and 12
C. 10, 15 and 25 D. 25, 15 and 10
Ans: Option B

34. A skewed frequency curve with its longer tail
occurring to the left is said to have
A. zero skewness
B. negative skewness
C. moderate skewness
D. positive skewness
Ans: B. Negative Skewness

35. Statistical data obtained from published source
are called
A. primary data
B. secondary data.
C. qualitative data
D. quantitative data
Ans: Secondary Data

36. Raw data are collected data which have ____
numerically
A. been organized
B. not been organized
C. been presented
D. been graphed
Ans: not been organized

37. Observation that cannot be measured on a
natural numerical scale but can be classified
into groups of categories are known as
A. data
B. raw data
C. qualitative data
D. quantitative data
Ans: Qualitative data

38. The following are methods of data collection
except
A. graph B. interview
C. survey D. questionnaire
Ans: Graph

39. A distribution having a relatively high peak is
known as
A. leptokurtic B. platykurtic
C. mesokurtic D. kurtic
Ans: A. leptokurtic

40. A distribution which is moderately peaked is
known as
A. leptokurtic B. platykurtic
C. mesokurtic D. kurtic
Ans: C. Mesokurtic

Credit: BrainStorm Group

ALL QUESTIONS CARRY MARKS

1. The degree of peakedness of a distribution is referred to as __________
a. kurtosis
b. moment
c. skewness
d. Histogram

2. For unimodal frequency curves, which are symmetrical, the empirical relation
between mean, median and mode is given as
a. mean - mode = 3(mean median)
b. mean +median = mode
c. mode mean = 3median
d. mean mode = mean median

3. What is Pearson first coefficient of skewness?
3(mean - mode) / standard deviation

4. What is Pearson second coefficient of skewness
3 ( mean - median ) / standard deviation

5. ____ refers to the numerical description of
quantitative aspect of things
A. data B. method
C. state D. number

6. ____ is a technique used to present numerical
data
A. data B. method
C. state D. number
Ans : B. method

7. ____ is the science of decision making in the face
of uncertainty
A. mathematics B. statistics
C. technology D. survey
Ans: B. statistics

8. ____ statistics is concerned with processing,
summarizing, conclusions and presentation of
data
A. descriptive B. inferential
C. inductive D. conclusive
Ans: A. descriptive

9. ____statistics utilizes sample data to make
estimates, decisions and predictions about a
population
A. descriptive B. inferential
C. inductive D. conclusive
Ans: B. Inferential

10. ____ statistics is concerned with the method of
analysis
A. inferential B. inductive
C. analytical D. B and C
Ans: Option D (Analytical and inductive)

11. Statistics is applied in all the following areas
except
A. Banking B. Economics
C. military intelligence
D. none of the above
Ans: D. None of the above

12. All but one is not a characteristic of statistical
data
A. must be in aggregate
B. must be collected systematically
C. must be comparable
D. must be cumbersome
Ans: B. Statistic must be collected systematically

13. Data obtained from records is
A. primary B. secondary
C. recorded D. qualitative
Ans: Secondary

14. ____ data are originated by an investigator
A. primary B. secondary
C. recorded D. qualitative
Ans: Primary (A)

15. Quantitative data is divided into
A. large and small
B. grouped and ungrouped
C. interval and ratio
D. nominal and ordinal
Ans: Interval and Ratio

Qualitative data is divided into
A. large and small
B. grouped and ungrouped
C. interval and ratio
D. nominal and ordinal

_____ is the set of all units or objects in a defined
are of interest
A. survey B. population
C. census D. sample

A partition of the population is called
A. survey B. population
C. census D. sample

Which of the following is not a source of data
A. direct observation
B. sample surveys
C. designed experiment
D. population

16. The area of statistics that deals with utilization
of sample data to make estimate, decision or
prediction about population is
A. inferential B. inductive
C. descriptive D. intuitive

17. The two types of data are
A. primary and secondary data
B. quantitative and qualitative data
C. ordinal and nominal
D. grouped and ungrouped
Ans:primary and secondary data

18. The two forms of data are
A. primary and secondary data
B. quantitative and qualitative data
C. ordinal and nominal
D. grouped and ungrouped
Ans:Quantitative and qualitative

19. Which of the following is an example of nominal
data
A. car models
B. rank in the army
C. health condition
D. home town

20. Which of the following is an example of nominal
data
A. model of cars B. colour of dress
C. brand of soap D. beauty grades

.

Disclaimer12:
Then whoever you are, u must either be a slowpoke or suffering from extremes poverty of the mind! We all know about year of the return, but u making it seems it's a Ghana initiative is weird ! Hardly will u watch a major league game without a certain Nigerian on either side of the team , that alone gives u sense of belongings! It's a milestone to have a young African based artists winning the prestigious grammy award! Yes Burna boy did it! Whizkid did it! We all thought it's a big deal featuring those A list musicians in America ! Until drake jump to savour afro beat ! Rick Ross is vibing it! Chris Brown dances to afro beat like king David in the bible! Recently justin Bieber and Brandy has join the bandwagon! Afrobeat is the future of African music ! And incase u don't know, Nigerians are the most educated migrant in the United States! If all u read about Nigeria is the negative aspect , then that's your own headache! U can choke on it! We have our own internal problems, the more reason we don't respond to u African countries when u throw your tantrums! We only responded to SA when they thought they had the monopoly of violence

You forgot Sia with burna boy

descarado:
You know, I have never seen people who live in la la land like Nigerian Christians especially the team born again.
You get home and put on your electricity but you forget somebody was there all day keeping everything intact so you will have electricity

Emergency happens on sunday morning and u rush to the hospital to meet pagans.
I do wish you lots look the meaning of hypocrite in the dictionary.

Actually healthcare related works are understandable because they render 'essential' services.
Ask yourself, if she didn't trade today would she had die?

Opening your shop on Sundays isn't something you should brag about let alone bring online for some cheap social media justification.

chatinent:
Honestly, it makes more sense to send people in need money than sending big prayers. The money is like a prayer answered. Think about it.


cc: lalasticlala, mynd44 seun

True

Lubbish! Na only Sunday You sabi sell market abi?

Bola146:
God forbid I cook that spaghetti again Honeywell spaghetti is the best for me

haha.. And Honeywell no dey my area now..

OBALOLA55:


ALLOW THE WATER TO BOIL FIRST, ADD SMALL GROUNDNUT OIL INSIDE THE BOILING POT, THEN POUR YOUR SPAGHETTI INSIDE.


ALLOW IT TO BOIL FOR LIKE FIVE MINUTES, WATCH OF THE STARCH, PUT YOUR INGREDIENTS INSIDE THE POT AND CONTINUE COOKING YOUR JOLLOF SPAGHETTI MEAL


NA AKAMU I FIRST PREPARE BEFORE I LEARN

Thanks...I will try this next time

I wanted to cook Bua Spaghetti but I ended up with Bua Semovita. Very Sticky.

Breaking news:

SOME LECTURERS FROM A UNIVERSITY IN NIGERIA, FACULTY OF ENGINEERING BOARDED A PLANE.
WHEN THE PLANE WAS READY TO TAKE-OFF, THE PILOT SAID......"WELCOME ON BOARD LADIES &
GENTLEMEN MAY I PLEASE INFORM YOU THAT THIS PLANE WAS MANUFACTURED BY YOUR STUDENTS IN THE UNIVERSITY AND THIS IS THE FIRST TIME OF FLYING".
IMMEDIATELY THEY HEARD THAT, EVERYONE RAN OUT OF THE PLANE EXCEPT ONE PROFESSOR IBRAHIM YUSUF WHO SAT COMFORTABLY.
PEOPLE WERE SURPRISED AND WENT TO HIS SEAT TO ASK HIM WHY HE DID NOT RUN OUT
OF THE PLANE LIKE OTHERS?
HE SMILED AND REPLIED..."THERE IS NO NEED TO RUN OUT BECAUSE IF IT IS TRUE THAT THIS PLANE WAS MADE BY OUR STUDENTS, THEN WITH WHAT WE TAUGHT THEM, AM VERY SURE THE PLANE WILL NOT EVEN MOVE".

Pls don't laugh all alone. Just to put a smile on someone's face���

copy pasta

Transcribing and Data entry.


If you engage me you can expect standard transcriptions and data entries that follow the prescribed format.

Timely submissions of all your works.

Your work will be available in all possible formats.

Proofreading for accuracy in punctuations and spellings.

I'm proud of my works because of the cheers it puts on clients faces. Your satisfaction is always my delight.
Contact me to know how well I fit your requirements.

.

VickyRotex:
That's AWESOME!!!

Congratulations dear. Keep it up!!!

Less than 11 days to end of month. MARTIN is next ooo

Damn: I'm just seeing this...Thank you so much!!!
Martin is a priority, I just need to brush up my drawing skills a bit.
I'll do a little update to the comment thread
https://www.nairaland.com/5995616/martin-forum-based-game-discussion

BankyGee:
That's a Riddle for another day

Oya na!

1. World Wide Web which includes Google, Bing, Facebook and Other Inconsequential Websites.
2. The Free High School Science Texts (Physics).
3. Tonad Essential Physics
4. New School Physics
5.

An object with energy can do work. But when that work is done energy is lost by the object and gained by the object on which work was done.

If you kick a ball. You lose energy while the ball you kicked gains energy.
loading...

Another one

Energy is the ability or capacity to do work. It is also measured in joules and it is a scalar quantity. Anything capable of doing work has energy e.g a falling fruit, a man throwing a ball.

There are various forms of energy. Some of which are;
1. Mechanical Energy
2. Electrical Energy
3. Light Energy
4. Solar Energy
5. Nuclear Energy
6. Thermal Energy
7. Sound Energy

---

We get energy from the foods we eat, especially from energy giving foods like carbohydrates. The Sun (the real sun and not that newspaper), from burning fuels and also hydro energy from dams.

---

To whom it may or may not concern.

Work is the product of force and the displacement in the direction of that force. For work to be done. The applied force has to cause a body to move, meaning the resultant displacement must not be equal to zero. Example is pushing or pulling a box.

Question 1
If you push a chair of 20m forward by applying a force of 30N. What is the work you have done on the box?
Answer
work done = force x distance
force = 30N
distance = 20m
work done = 30 x 20
work done = 600 J (Unit of work is Joule)

Question 2
What is the work done if you try to push a drum of oil of by directing a force of 60N up the slope but instead it roles down 50m?
Answer
The distance and force are in opposite direction so we'll write it as force = -60N,distance = 50m
work done = -60 x 50m
work done = -300 J (meaning the drum does work on you)

Question 3
What is the work done when a box of mass 50kg slides down a lorry from a height of 400cm?
Answer
Here the invisible force of gravity is acting on the box. Force = mass x acceleration; Force = 50kg x 10m-2 (acc. due to gravity)
Force = 500 N
Distance = 400cm
but the distance is the wrong unit, so we shall convert to the proper S.I unit i.e metres.
Distance = 400cm x 1/100
Distance = 4m

Work done = Force x Distance; 500N x 4m
Work done = 2000Nm or 2000 J