₦airaland Forum

Vaxt:
na fact I need a mature man of God in the spirit to answer the question above

the answer dy jw.org

Very sad...this indeed shows the end of this wicked world is drawing ever nearer




Wait self this kind journalism I no understand with this sketchy news. Who poison them?

Elthugnificent:
Of course it is expected of us as mere human to forgive our enemies, while the host high can do whatever he wish to his; like torturing them in hell forever and ever. A great role model I must confess.

why do u think he hasn't brought the world to an end? He is giving d wicked chance to repent so he can forgive them....his wish just as d bible said is that he want people of all sort/kind to be save. Buh with all the long time he has given them to repent and they Dont repent he has no choice than to destroy them not torment them in fire ooo..he no talk say he go torment them for fire... N chritiandom carry their own assumption come

mrvitalis:
Lol religious people are funny.. What about the disappointments he disappointed his followers

This generation will not pass before this things come to pass (he was talking to his followers about his second coming)

He even promised to come back before all of them dies... We still they wait

who told u that prophesy isn't full filled yet? It has come to pass. Jesus is back Buh Christiandom are expecting a physical come back. When he is back already ruling as king of the kingdom of God.u want more explanation? When you see any jehovah's witness in ur area welcome them in and u will be given full detailed explanation or visit our website jw.org

EagleNest:
Which court of law are you talking about...the one that has been abused repeatedly. My friend, imprisonment does not cure this kind of problem but would rather aggravate it. She needs counselling and rehabilitation rather than sentencing to prison. There are many murderers, looters, and robbers present and past who walk free today and occupy leadership positions and none has been imprisoned and we have forgotten them. Yes, condemn the act but calling for imprisonment is not necessary.

prison is also a rehabilitation home. Same rehabilitation a theif and a robber needs. Note it is not her case alon that people av been calling for justice. We av also been calling for justice against our corrupt leaders. Lemme even ask u a personal question.will u break norm and law simply cos pol leaders are corrupt and not dealt with?..... Is overlooking a crime a way of solving impunity in d court of law? All cos dy have failed to do their jobs in other matters we now decide to stop dem on passing judgement on other criminals is that d way forward? You are very right we are in a useless country with no regard for law. Buh as a good citizen are we meant to add to d problem of the country?

EagleNest:
Condemning her immoral act is OK but judging and asking for her imprisonment is like you pretending to be HOLY. Don't be a Pharisee dear, let her go and sin no more.

leave that to d judge in court to decide on whether to leave her and sin no more....Buh she has to face d court of law she and her two companions in d video

CandyDiamond:
There is no evidence to nail her,remember that if you watch ponography you are guilty as someone that acted it,all of you that have watch the porn video is also guilty and deserve a jail term

did u say no evidence? The video is enough evidence to throw her jail. That is not a porn, that is a sex leak. U can as well tell them to jail bloggers for leaking d video.. Besides u av nothing on me. Cos me calling for justices shows that I Dont support the act and that I rejected the video immediately after seeing it. So am not guilty. U will be d one guilty cos after watching d video u are refusing to allow d law take it course

LecciGucci:
Ur post is long shaa couldnt finish it.
But i jumped and read twods d end and understood we still saying d same thing wen i said THE LEAKED VIDEO IS ENUFF PUNISHEMENT FOR HER.
everybody has condemed d act.

So wat do u gain if she eventually commits suicide.
The gal was used thats all..
And nobody is a saint she deserves a second chance.

after she serves her jail term
Maybe 2years then given presidential pardon.so she can serve as a lesson to others like her. And also strengthen our law(probably only law students and criminology students will understand) . Sorry for d long epistle

Team let everyone pay for whatever crime committed

LecciGucci:
If u followed the post right frn beginning i dnt think u would say this... ciz nobody is surpporting her.

Everybody has condemned d act for d past days dat we heard d news!.
Now does that mean we keep castigating her till she commits suicide?.
The leaking of the video is enough punishment for her
Everyby makes mistakes.

this is d same castigation and humilation a thief gets in his neighbourhood when caught...was she notb meant to think bawt d consequences of her action before doing it? She got blinded cos of money and fame(that is if it were true she was pasuaded to do it) assuming she was a girl well brought up she could av easily refuse d offer and go home.. D bible says a good name is better than fine gold. In sociology of crime and delinquency I learnt something. A criminal that wants to commit a crime weighs d punishment of the crime and sees if d crime worth it and also a law of a country is made stronger if it is adhere to. I also learnt women are often forgiven easily cos people feel pity for them too much and so when dy go against d law often time than not,dy are not made to face d law. Cos d society tends to overlook it and say cause dy are weaker vessel and not as strong as man dy should be left alone(which is not meant to be so) had it been it was a man DT did it would u not av condemned him saying that he suppose to have sense not to do it? I don't pity her cos left to me with what am seeing greed led her to it....and something like this is always accompany with shame and disgrace so make she feel am. It is part of her punishment ....the person which blackmail her should also be dealt with thoroughly dasor

Kingsley1000:
the crime she commited how does it affect u personally?is her crime more heinous than that of our politicians who contributed immesely to your miserable life?.....do u have brain at all?if you do make judicious use of it

u are d tonne that is brainless...same reason our country is a joke of a country. U said d crime she committed how does it affect me personally? Must a crime affect u personally before it becomes a crime? U said cos ur pol leaders av committed bigger crimes and are left alone so automatically she should be free...bro u get sense at all? DT means thieves and robbers should be free cos politians sell more Na. Av u asked urself what av u done to hold ur pol leaders pay for their crimes other than sit here and type trash?

Kingsley1000:
her sin is akin to mastubation.....thieives and child molesters terrorizes and molests and inflicts pain on the victim while that of hers is herself decision and pleasure.....all african porn stars should also be killed since we are africans

that is not mastubation that is lesbianism(sexual activities with person of same sex) .. Which is against d law just as theft and all other vices I mentioned earlier are also against d law. So if u can condemn those ones I Dont she reason y u can't condemn DX one also

Kingsley1000:
must u talk like an im be cile? so you've not mastubated b4,u've not had sex? u ve not commited any sin b4?

what makes her sin diff from that of a thief and child molester or a cultist

LecciGucci:
U have a very good heart my dear
Dont mind that devil quoting u up and as if he himself is a saint!...
U are a good woman

since we all are not saint dem please Dont ever condemn child molesters cultist robbers also. Cos we are all sinners u hear?

Kingsley1000:
he who has not sinned should cast the first stone

really? Whenever dy post a rape offender a cultist or a child molester if u open ur mouth to condemn d person am not swearing for u oo am just saying. God go fire that ur hand used in typing..... If u see her case unworthing to be judged, then please Dont judge other cases too. In fact any robber caught should be released cos we all av sinned also. Mcheww

murmee:
My dear, you are the illiterate here. I am a deaconess and I went through a Bible college. If someone is IN the other person, what it naturally means is that both persons are ONE and the SAME. In Christendom, Jesus is GOD and there is nothing Muslims can say to change that fact.

and yes u are right...in Christendom, Jesus is God but in d bible Jesus is d son of God and first creation of God. Now u av been tutored left to u to use ur brain and restrain from deceiving ur members under u lest Gid's anger will blaze on u when d time come shalom

murmee:
My dear, you are the illiterate here. I am a deaconess and I went through a Bible college. If someone is IN the other person, what it naturally means is that both persons are ONE and the SAME. In Christendom, Jesus is GOD and there is nothing Muslims can say to change that fact.

u went to a bible college so what? U are a deaconess that one Na for ur pocket that doesn't still make u brilliant or smart...in ur bible college they taught u what they formulated..av u tried to sit and do your own research? Lemme give u a research material.. Go and study d catholic Encyclopedia read how they came bawt the trinity..read what dy did concerning God's name and reason for their actions...the same set of people who taught u in ur bible college. When u are done with ur research then we can talk. Along with bible quotation is self explanatory that Dont need u to twist before u can explain and I will also bring my own bible quotation with backing of other bible quotations...deaconness "that was what dy taught me...and I can't think outside d box and make reasonable research"

Thirsty man size....

CharlieMaria:
Let's assume or presume i did twist the bible, even though the bible @ philipians 2vs6 clearly said Jesus is God. But let me ask you: Who created the world? Is it God? If yes. Then the scriptures expressly told us John 1vs1 that in the begining was the Word and the Word was with God, and that the Word was God. That all things were created by The Word and For Him and In Him. And in verse 14, it clearly says that the Word was made flesh and dwelt among us. If this Word was God in Jn1vs1 and in verse 14 the same word took flesh. Then God took flesh. Heb1vs6to8 called him God or did i twist it too? And John20:28 He was also called God. Or you think i inserted that text there? Or in John 14vs9 where Jesus himself said that He and the Father is One, did i also twist that? Does common sense not tell us that we have life and God gives Life? That we know the truth but God is truth? That we know ways to do things but God is the Way? So when Jesus said in John14vs6 I Am the Way, The Truth and Life...was He not Saying He was God? Think!!!

y did u skip verse 18 of john chapter1? Apart from what u av been taught from d bible by ur pastors av u ever taken ur time to study on ur own bawt DT bible verse? The Greek lang it was written with and how it was translated? Well I will help u with some research on john chapter 1
states: “In the beginning was the Word, and the
Word was with God, and the Word was God.” (King James
Version) Later in the same chapter, the apostle John clearly
shows that “the Word” is Jesus. ( ) Since the Word
is called God, however, some conclude that the Son and the
Father must be part of the same God.
Bear in mind that this part of the Bible was originally
written in Greek. Later, translators rendered the Greek text
into other languages. A number of Bible translators, though,
did not use the phrase “the Word was God.” Why not?
Based on their knowledge of Biblical Greek, those
translators concluded that the phrase “the Word was God”
should be translated differently. How? Here are a few
examples: “The Logos [Word] was divine.” (A New
Translation of the Bible ) “The Word was a god.” (The New
Testament in an Improved Version) “The Word was with
God and shared his nature.” (The Translator’s New
Testament) According to these translations, the Word is not
God himself. Instead, because of his high position among
Jehovah’s creatures, the Word is referred to as “a god.”
Here the term “god” means “mighty one.” (am not framing this. Do ur own research urself and see it is true). Most people do not know Biblical Greek. So how can you
know what the apostle John really meant? Think of this
example: A schoolteacher explains a subject to his
students. Afterward, the students differ on how to
understand the explanation. How can the students resolve
the matter? They could ask the teacher for more
information. No doubt, learning additional facts would help
them to understand the subject better. Similarly, to grasp
the meaning of , you can look in the Gospel of John
for more information on Jesus’ position. Learning
additional facts on this subject will help you to draw the
right conclusion.
For instance, consider what John further writes in
: “No man has seen [Almighty] God at
any time.” However, humans have seen Jesus, the Son, for
John says: “The Word [Jesus] was made flesh, and dwelt
among us, and we beheld his glory.” ( , KJ) How,
then, could the Son be part of Almighty God? John also
states that the Word was “with God.” But how can an
individual be with someone and at the same time be that
person? Moreover, as recorded at , Jesus makes
a clear distinction between himself and his heavenly
Father. He calls his Father “the only true God.” And toward
the end of his Gospel, John sums up matters by saying:
“These have been written down so that you may believe
that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God.” ( )
Notice that Jesus is called, not God, but the Son of God.
This additional information provided in the Gospel of John
shows how should be understood. Jesus, the
Word, is “a god” in the sense that he has a high position but
is not the same as Almighty God.(please consider this explanation with clean consience willing to learn and accept d correction remember iron sharpens iron....we want to understand d bible clearly so we can live in harmony with God standard) I will be expecting ur feed back

Raphael81:
Does the bible need the quran for validity? No it doed not, rather the quran tries to find a valid point in the bible, that is the bible recognises itq

ion no anything bawt quaran....the only thing bawt d quaran I know bawt is that it points to one God and it talks about Paradise for mankind

Raphael81:
Does the bible need the quran for validity? No it doed not, rather the quran tries to find a valid point in the bible, that is the bible recognises itq

ion no anything bawt quaran....the only thing bawt d quaran I know bawt is that it points to one God and it talks about Paradise on earth for obeidient mankind same as d bible

Raphael81:
u dont give the bible literal interpretations like the quran bro

d bible was written for literal being and not spiritual beings....why will u give bible spiritual meaning when it is meant for so to guide us in this Satan's world?

Btruth:
Proverbs 8:22 - 36 will give you more insight into His establishment beyond human reasoning.

u just quoted a portion to buttress my own point thank u.....that place shows that Jesus was the first thing God created he was there when God created all other things....23 said he was established/created before d earth was....use reasoning Na pls....try to drop whatever u are thought and read d bible with a plain mind not with d mind founded in all these people that av taught the bible d wrong way pls sir

whiteprince:
I don't think u have a brain abt these...
Why do we pray and say "in the name of the father and of the son and of the holy spirit Amen"?

Anglican and catholic will teach you more

excuse me I Dont pray with such format I pray d way Christ taught us that is the model payer....av ever thought bawt how catholic got their Trinity method? Go and do ur research and if u Dont av research material, quote me I will help u out

murmee:
Muslims should open the Bible to John 19 verses 6,7 9, 10 and 11. Verse 7 specifically says "If you really knew me, you would know my father (God) as well. From now on, you do know him (God) and have seen him (God) Verse 10 says "Don't you believe that 'I Am' in the Father (God) and the Father (God) is in me? The words that I say to you are not just my own, rather, it is the Father (God) 'LIVING IN ME' who is doing his work". Muslims what more proof do you want?

cos they are in agreement....he meant he rep. His father....stop reading bible like illiterates

CharlieMaria:
Perhaps you didn't read where i mentioned Philipians 2vs6 that clearly stated that Jesus is equal to God, but humbled himself to take on human nature. When he called God to save him He was both giving us example and at the same showing his human side. JESUS HAS TWO NATURES DIVINE NATURE AND HUMAN NATURE. NON OF THOSE NATURES WERE LACKING WHEN HE WAS ON EARTH.

that portion u quoted simply showed that Jesus didn't consider himself has God even tho he existed in God's form while in heaven....and what is God's form?a spirit creature....understood? Bible twister

murmee:
Because Jesus knew that after completing his MISSION on earth, he will go back to that same HEAVEN to claim His rightful position and we will be praying to Him. Got it?

and the explanation of the night before his death when he prayed that if it was God's will d cup should pass over him?

whiteprince:
Like seriously? Which planet were you dogged out from?

You the bad muslims are making the qouran look bad when its not

When Jesus was in the wilderness,it was the holy spirit that was with Him,the holy spirit prepared Him for the temptation in the wilderness
Even when John was in the wilderness,it was the Holy spirit that was with him

Please go get a brain and stop this nonsense

all these u are saying does it make logical sense to u? Nothing like 3person in one God....God is one and his name is Jehovah his son is his first creation and his name is Jesus and the holy spirit is God active force users in accomplishing his work and strengthening his people and prophets.nwow this is a logical reasoning and the bible confirms this with vivid biblical examples

iyke484real:
good! so with all your logics what do you make of this........


Question: "Is Jesus God? Did Jesus ever claim to be God?"

Answer: The Bible never records Jesus saying the precise words, “I am God.” That does not mean, however, that He did not proclaim that He is God. Take for example Jesus’ words in John 10:30, “I and the Father are one.” We need only to look at the Jews’ reaction to His statement to know He was claiming to be God. They tried to stone Him for this very reason: “You, a mere man, claim to be God” (John 10:33). The Jews understood exactly what Jesus was claiming—deity. When Jesus declared, “I and the Father are one,” He was saying that He and the Father are of one nature and essence. John 8:58 is another example. Jesus declared, “I tell you the truth … before Abraham was born, I am!” Jews who heard this statement responded by taking up stones to kill Him for blasphemy, as the Mosaic Law commanded (Leviticus 24:16).

John reiterates the concept of Jesus’ deity: “The Word [Jesus] was God” and “the Word became flesh” (John 1:1, 14). These verses clearly indicate that Jesus is God in the flesh. Acts 20:28 tells us, “Be shepherds of the church of God, which he bought with his own blood.” Who bought the church with His own blood? Jesus Christ. And this same verse declares that God purchased His church with His own blood. Therefore, Jesus is God!

Thomas the disciple declared concerning Jesus, “My Lord and my God” (John 20:28). Jesus does not correct him. Titus 2:13 encourages us to wait for the coming of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ (see also 2 Peter 1:1). In Hebrews 1:8, the Father declares of Jesus, “But about the Son he says, ‘Your throne, O God, will last forever and ever, and righteousness will be the scepter of your kingdom.’” The Father refers to Jesus as “O God,” indicating that Jesus is indeed God.

In Revelation, an angel instructed the apostle John to only worship God (Revelation 19:10). Several times in Scripture Jesus receives worship (Matthew 2:11; 14:33; 28:9, 17; Luke 24:52; John 9:38). He never rebukes people for worshiping Him. If Jesus were not God, He would have told people to not worship Him, just as the angel in Revelation did. There are many other passages of Scripture that argue for Jesus’ deity.

The most important reason that Jesus has to be God is that, if He is not God, His death would not have been sufficient to pay the penalty for the sins of the world (1 John 2:2). A created being, which Jesus would be if He were not God, could not pay the infinite penalty required for sin against an infinite God. Only God could pay such an infinite penalty. Only God could take on the sins of the world (2 Corinthians 5:21), die, and be resurrected, proving His victory over sin and death.

interesting write up I must say...I'd like us to take it one at a time.
The Bible never records Jesus saying the precise words, “I am God.” That does not mean, however, that He did not proclaim that He is God. Take for example Jesus’ words in John 10:30, “I and the Father are one.” We need only to look at the Jews’ reaction to His statement to know He was claiming to be God. They tried to stone Him for this very reason: “You, a mere man, claim to be God” (John 10:33). The Jews understood exactly what Jesus was claiming—deity. When Jesus declared, “I and the Father are one,” He was saying that He and the Father are of one nature and essence. John 8:58 is another example. Jesus declared, “I tell you the truth … before Abraham was born, I am!” Jews who heard this statement responded by taking up stones to kill Him for blasphemy, as the Mosaic Law commanded (Leviticus 24:16).
My answer:The Jews, we both know they are hypocrites.like av said dy know Jesus meant he and his father are of same essence in other word, they are united and had d same purpose. It means he was in accordance with God purpose. Tho d Jews leaders knew that was what he meant, they changed it that Jesus meant he was God.Jesus even gave an example in one of his sermon when he talked bawt a man who own a vineyard and was not around. He sent his servant each time to the vineyard and each time dy killed his servants. Then d man sent his son(take note of this) the man sent his son. Buh d stone was also killed. Then d man finally came himself....I think u should know the rest of the story. The point am trying to bring out was that Jesus sermon was talking bawt God(the man) and d prophets (servants that were killed) he has sent and Jesus(the man son) so tho they had same purpose they are not d same entity neither are dy equal. Jesus was created God was not.

John reiterates the concept of Jesus’ deity: “The Word [Jesus] was God” and “the Word became flesh” (John 1:1, 14). These verses clearly indicate that Jesus is God in the flesh. Acts 20:28 tells us, “Be shepherds of the church of God, which he bought with his own blood.” Who bought the church with His own blood? Jesus Christ. And this same verse declares that God purchased His church with His own blood. Therefore, Jesus is God!.....
My answer:first all lemme at this other bible rendition says "the blood of his own[son](NW,RO,TEV) what is causing d confusion in this verse? That word "own" judging with other Bible rendition apart from kj, I can easily say what DT kjv was trying to say is that God used his son. Like u are calling ur son ur blood cos u are related.....now if u said God pour his blood wouldnt it be contradicting john 3:16? And 1john 1:7? And also rev 1:4-6. ...If a passage can grammatically be translated in more
than one way, what is the correct rendering? One that
is in agreement with the rest of the Bible. If a person
ignores other portions of the Bible and builds his
belief around a favorite rendering of a particular verse,
then what he believes really reflects, not the Word of
God, but his own ideas and perhaps those of another
imperfect human.
John 1:1 RS reads: “In the beginning was the Word, and the
Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in
the beginning with God.” (KJ, Dy, JB, NAB use similar
wording.) However, NW reads: “In the beginning the
Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word
was a god. This one was in the beginning with God.”
Which translation of agrees with the
context? says: “No one has ever seen
God.” clearly says that “the Word became
flesh and dwelt among us . . . we have beheld his
glory.” Also, say that in the beginning he
was “with God.” Can one be with someone and at the
same time be that person? At , Jesus
addresses the Father as “the only true God”; so, Jesus
as “a god” merely reflects his Father’s divine
qualities.— .
Is the rendering “a god” consistent with the rules of
Greek grammar? Some reference books argue strongly
that the Greek text must be translated, “The Word was
God.” But not all agree. In his article “Qualitative
Anarthrous Predicate Nouns. Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the
one in , “with an anarthrous predicate
preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in
meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature
of theos.” He suggests: “Perhaps the clause could be
translated, ‘the Word had the same nature as
God.’” ( Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87)
Thus, in this text, the fact that the word the·osʹ in its
second occurrence is without the definite article (ho )
and is placed before the verb in the sentence in Greek
is significant. Interestingly, translators that insist on
rendering , “The Word was God,” do not
hesitate to use the indefinite article (a, an) in their
rendering of other passages where a singular
anarthrous predicate noun occurs before the verb.
Thus at , JB and KJ both refer to Judas
Iscariot as “a devil,” and at they describe
Jesus as “a prophet.”
John J. McKenzie, S.J., in his Dictionary of the Bible,
says: “ should rigorously be translated ‘the
word was with the God [= the Father], and the word
was a divine being.’”—(Brackets are his. Published
with nihil obstat and imprimatur.) (New York, 1965),
p. 317.
In harmony with the above, AT reads: “the Word was
divine”; Mo, “the Logos was divine”; NTIV, “the word
was a god.” In his German translation Ludwig Thimme
expresses it in this way: “God of a sort the Word was.”
Referring to the Word (who became Jesus Christ) as
“a god” is consistent with the use of that term in the
rest of the Scriptures. For example, at psalm 82:1-6
human judges in Israel were referred to as
“gods” (Hebrew, ’elo·himʹ; Greek, the·oiʹ, at john 10:34
) because they were representatives of Jehovah
and were to speak his law.

Revelation, an angel instructed the apostle John to only worship God (Revelation 19:10). Several times in Scripture Jesus receives worship (Matthew 2:11; 14:33; 28:9, 17; Luke 24:52; John 9:38). He never rebukes people for worshiping Him. If Jesus were not God, He would have told people to not worship Him, just as the angel in Revelation did. There are many other passages of Scripture that argue for Jesus’ deity.
My answer:all the portions u quoted here self get comma....matt 14:33 d last part there said the people testified he is d son of God...that was y dy bowed for him. Cos they bowed to him doesn't make him God....Jesus himself use mouth talk am say there is someone greater than him. And most definitely me and u knows no one is greater than God or is there any?

The most important reason that Jesus has to be God is that, if He is not God, His death would not have been sufficient to pay the penalty for the sins of the world (1 John 2:2). A created being, which Jesus would be if He were not God, could not pay the infinite penalty required for sin against an infinite God. Only God could pay such an infinite penalty. Only God could take on the sins of the world (2 Corinthians 5:21), die, and be resurrected, proving His victory over sin and death.
My answer: aav u ever read the book of romans 5: q6-21 and. 1cor 15:21 that said thru one man sin came into d world.(we know the man. He was a perfect being) and so thru another perfect man jesus dre is ressurection ....all in all God canur die for our sin it is illogical.....why will God died or our sin and yet still look up and say it is finish a beg who he dy talk to? How will God die for us and still pray a night before his death telling God that if it is his will let d cup pass over him? Does it make sense? When he is God y ccant he just let d cup pass over him without asking "God" again thru prayer? If he is God why did he say we should pray thru him when praying to "God"?doesn't it sound confusing? All in all d verses of the Bible are connected try linking them and not quote one verse that best suit ur argument and ignore the one that is against it....u took my time u can best understand all what I typed thru one on one convo. Read this epistle with sound mind and unbiased mind an it will help u

JackBizzle:
A woman is saying this?


See why Nigeria is a useless country?

a man replying like this? Reason why Africans have problem in progressing

iyke484real:
bros. No vex oh! you sound like an athiest. are you sure you ar a christian?

athiest? Never am a christian. Deluded Christian who is blinded by what he is taught? No....just a christian who reads d bible and also taught d bible with logical proof and not spiritual proof

iyke484real:
bro. Things of the spirit are not of logics... you using thesame logics of your forefathers when they foolishly cruxified Jesus.

chief again I will say...d bible was written for humans and nott spirit....how will God write a book said to be for teaching, for reproving and for setting thing straight in a way someone can't decode it in human sense? Can Toyota give u a car manual u can't understands except u are a Toyota product guru? D bible is like a manual use to guide our daily life. And God gave us the book for our understanding... Why av u not thought bawt this. Unlike the Muslims(no disrespect) the Christians beelieve God wrote d bible thru men. Av u ever thought bawt d reason y? It was cause human writers would be able to project God's thought in written so we all can understand without problem....Buh false teachers try to turn d bible in this our modern Christianity and all in d process of using d bible to cover dre false teachings, hear that phrase that u use spirit to understand d bible. God gave us human examples in d bible cos we are humans and we can understand better....the bible likens God as a loving father who gives breads to his son....that is one example d bible use human examples to express God thought. So giving u human example to understand this is not wrong. When u read ur bible. God gave humans sense for one reason. To use it to discern things we accumulate in our head. When u read d bible use ur sense. Everything doesn't necessarily av to be spirit spirit spirit.