alchemist13:

That statement was not my opinion about adultery but a deduction from the laws concerning adultery abd fornication.
You might want to read those laws more carefully next time so as to make an informed opinion.

We are here right? Why not help me understand those and it will help the Op.

Many are reading and will learn. You know how the issue of sex is so porous in our society even in church.

Who knows who you'll help by posting your information here?

LambanoPeace:



This killed me

. Just a question sir.

jonbellion:
nobody is saying there is no God
We are saying religious versions of God are lies
Why is that do hard to get
Why is it always false dichotomy with you
I don't believe in your God - there is no god
I don't believe in your God-devil worshipper
Why?

I save this for future sake, How do you know there Exit a God

alchemist13:

Actually Joagbaje is right. The commandments concerning adultery only about sleeping with a married woman.
Married men could, in theory, sleep with an unmarried woman and still marry her afterwards.

Adonbelivit


I hope you are joking?

GoodMuyis:


I save this for future sake, How do you know there Exit a God

Abi ooi

When I say these folks are jokers, folks will think I'm being mean


Seun, come and see

Anas09:

We are here right? Why not help me understand those and it will help the Op.

Many are reading and will learn. You know how the issue of sex is so porous in our society even in church.

Who knows who you'll help by posting your information here?

First of all you have to understand that most Mosaic laws were addressed to males in the Israelite society alone.
As Phyllis Bird puts it,

The majority of the laws, especially those formulated in the direct-address style of the so-called apodictic law (the style used primarily for the statement of religious obligations), address the community through its male members. Thus the key verbal form in the apodictic sentence is the second person masculine singular or plural. That this usage was not meant simply as an inclusive form of address for bisexual reference is indicated by such formulations as the following:
Thou shalt not covet thy neighbor’s wife. (Exod. 20:19)
You shall not afflict any widow or orphan. If you do . . . then your wives shall become widows and your children fatherless. (Exod. 22:22-24)
You shall be men consecrated to me. (Exod. 22:31)
Similarly, the typical casuistic law (case law) begins with the formula “If a man does X . . .” The term used for “man” in this formulation is not the generic term, ’adam, but the specifically and exclusively masculine term, ’ish.

As such, all adultery laws have the formula "If a man commits adultery with another man's wife..." No where in the law is a woman commanded not to sleep with another woman's husband. See Lev. 20:10

A man (that is, married or unmarried) can seduce a virgin, who is not engaged he then has to pay a dowry to the father for her to be his wife, but the father has the option to refuse to give his daughter to the seducer. In that case, the man pays anyway, for spoiling the virgin. (Exod 22:16-17)

If you look closely at both the adultery and fornication laws above you will notice a pattern. That is, both laws are treated as much as a property law as they are sexual laws. That is the reason that the covetousness of a mans wife is listed right in the middle of a general condemnation of covetousness of other properties of a man. The wife is regarded as a property of a man; hence the bride price. This is also the reason why a man must pay a dowry for an non engaged girl to her father since she is considered the property of her father.

Coveting another man's wife could lead to jealousy, jealousy leads to strife, strife threatens the very fabric of a society. This is the reason why sleeping with another man's wife is taking very seriously by many ancient society and this is also true for our local customs here in Africa.

So I would argue that laws concerning adultery and fornication are less about sexual purity but more about maintaining a stable patriarchal society.

LambanoPeace:



Adonbelivit


I hope you are joking?

No, I am not joking
See my comment above.

alchemist13:

First of all you have to understand that most Mosaic laws were addressed to males in the Israelite society alone.
As Phyllis Bird puts it,


As such, all adultery laws have the formula "If a man commits adultery with another man's wife..." No where in the law is a woman commanded not to sleep with another woman's husband. See Lev. 20:10

A man (that is, married or unmarried) can seduce a virgin, who is not engaged he then has to pay a dowry to the father for her to be his wife, but the father has the option to refuse to give his daughter to the seducer. In that case, the man pays anyway, for spoiling the virgin. (Exod 22:16-17)

If you look closely at both the adultery and fornication laws above you will notice a pattern. That is, both laws are treated as much as a property law as they are sexual laws. That is the reason that the covetousness of a mans wife is listed right in the middle of a general condemnation of covetousness of other properties of a man. The wife is regarded as a property of a man; hence the bride price. This is also the reason why a man must pay a dowry for an non engaged girl to her father since she is considered the property of her father.

Coveting another man's wife could lead to jealousy, jealousy leads to strife, strife threatens the very fabric of a society. This is the reason why sleeping with another man's wife is taking very seriously by many ancient society and this is also true for our local customs here in Africa.

So I would argue that laws concerning adultery and fornication are less about sexual purity but more about maintaining a stable patriarchal society.

Okay. But what did Jesus say about Adultery?

Anas09:

Okay. But what did Jesus say about Adultery?

In addition to what he said above?

1. Matt 5: 27 “You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’[a] 28 But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.

This passage can be interpreted in many ways. The most common common interpretation of this passage is of course that it condemns any feelings of sexual attraction by a one person to another with the possible exception of one's spouse. Any feelings of lust towards a non-spouse is a major sin, equivalent in seriousness to actually committing adultery.

However, another interpretation is found on the Christian Marriage web site. Pastor Don Milton notes that the word "adultery" means sexual intercourse by a man with a woman who is either engaged or married to another man. Milton notes that:

"Every reference to adultery in the entire Bible concerns sexual intercourse between a married or betrothed woman and a man other than the one to whom she is married or betrothed."

Finally, the webmaster of StudyToAnswer.net notes that

"...the Greek word translated as "lust" here, epithumeo does not merely mean 'to have a desire.' It is a word which actually indicated a strong, even consuming, desire, most often for something which, for whatever reason, is not lawful for one to possess. This is the way in which the word is used at many points in the New Testament ... it seems quite obvious that the Lord Jesus is describing, per the connotation of the word being used, looking upon a woman with an intense desire. Not a mere glance, not a general sort of attraction that may be normal to any heterosexual man, but an intense desire, with an idea towards POSSESSING the desired object (remember Paul's application of "lust" to the tenth commandment, against covetousness, in Romans 7:7?) What the Lord Jesus is talking about here is looking upon a woman in such a way as to desire to take her for yourself, even if it is not lawful for you to have her, in this specific example because she is another man's wife. Clearly Jesus is attaching the particular "sin" connotation to epithumeo, and applying it to the sort of ogling that a man might do which would lead him to then think about and develop a strong desire for the woman who it would be unlawful for him to pursue. ... From all this, it is apparent that the Lord's exposition in Matthew 5:28 is not talking about normal male heterosexuality. It is not talking about never being attracted to a woman who you might like to marry one day. It is talking about abstaining from a strong and persistent desire to possess or take, even in the temporariness of adultery, a woman who is not your wife, and who in fact is probably the wife of another man. "

2. John 8:1-11 New Living Translation (NLT) A Woman Caught in Adultery:
I am sure you are familiar with the Bible passage so I will not quote it. Adultery can only mean this woman was sleeping with man other than her husband. Note that Jesus did not argue her innocence or that she didn't deserve the punishment but only that those who are condemning her were not righteous enough to carryout the punishment.

Anyway further consideration:

http://www.religioustolerance.org/sex_jesu.htm:
John 8:1-11 records a meeting between Jesus, some scholars, Pharisees, and a woman who has been caught in adultery. The Mosaic law (Leviticus 20:10, and Deuteronomy 22:22) required that she must be executed by stoning. The passage in Deuteronomy is quite definite: "both the man...and the woman must die. You must purge the evil from Israel." They asked Jesus what should be done with the woman. He recommended that the thrower of the first stone be required to be without sin. Since no individual is without sin, his suggestion is equivalent to pardoning the woman. He thus recommended that the woman be allowed to live. This was a quadruple violation of Mosaic Law:
- Deuteronomy 22:22: Each incidence of adultery was considered an evil blot on the land itself; it had to be purged from Israel. The only method of doing that was to kill the adulterers.
- Deuteronomy 17:7: When a person is to be executed under Jewish law, the first stones were to be thrown by the witnesses to the crime. (An trial leading to an execution had to have at least two witnesses. Only then were the remainder of the people allowed to take part in the murder of the criminal.)
- There is no passage in the Mosaic law which states that executioners have to be sinless.
- There is no passage in the Mosaic law which allows an adulterer to be pardoned.

Later, Jesus said to the woman: "Neither do I condemn thee: go, and sin no more." Through these words, he recognized her adultery as a sin.

This passage is apparently a forgery that was not written by the author(s) of the gospel of John. It was written by an anonymous individual and later inserted after chapter 7 by an anonymous editor. The New International Version of the Bible has a footnote at this point stating: "The earliest and most reliable manuscripts and other ancient witnesses do not have John 7:53 - 8:11." Other manuscripts place it at the end of the Gospel of John. Still others insert it after Luke 21:38. The Jesus Seminar calls it a "floating" or "orphan" story. 1 The Fellows of the Jesus Seminar -- a group of liberal theologians -- agreed that while "the words did not originate in their present form with Jesus, they nevertheless assigned the words and story to a special category of things they wish Jesus had said and done." The passage is apparently a traditional Christian story that found its way into various later manuscripts but was not part of the original writings by the author(s) of the Gospel of John.

alchemist13:


In addition to what he said above?

1. Matt 5: 27 “You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’[a] 28 But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.

The term "woman " refers to a married woman. Not a single lady. Single ladies are called maiden , virgins etc.

2. John 8:1-11 New Living Translation (NLT) A Woman Caught in Adultery:
I am sure you are familiar with the Bible passage so I will not quote it. Adultery can only mean this woman was sleeping with man other than her husband. Note that Jesus did not argue her innocence or that she didn't deserve the punishment but only that those who are condemning her were not righteous enough to carryout the punishment.

She was an adultress because she was married.

alchemist13:


In addition to what he said above?

1. Matt 5: 27 “You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’[a] 28 But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.

This passage can be interpreted in many ways. The most common common interpretation of this passage is of course that it condemns any feelings of sexual attraction by a one person to another with the possible exception of one's spouse. Any feelings of lust towards a non-spouse is a major sin, equivalent in seriousness to actually committing adultery.

However, another interpretation is found on the Christian Marriage web site. Pastor Don Milton notes that the word "adultery" means sexual intercourse by a man with a woman who is either engaged or married to another man. Milton notes that:



Finally, the webmaster of StudyToAnswer.net notes that



2. John 8:1-11 New Living Translation (NLT) A Woman Caught in Adultery:
I am sure you are familiar with the Bible passage so I will not quote it. Adultery can only mean this woman was sleeping with man other than her husband. Note that Jesus did not argue her innocence or that she didn't deserve the punishment but only that those who are condemning her were not righteous enough to carryout the punishment.

Anyway further consideration:

See? Matt 5:27 hung you. You are of the opionion that only women commit adultery. lol. But Jesus is referring to men here, if they as much as look lustfully, they are guilty.

Pathrachial (Man) may try to twist it to mean what he wants it to mean, but deep down you know the truth.

Pathrachy did not start in our time. The pathrachial tradition in the Bible was fixed there by men, just like devorce was. Jesus said, in the beginning, it was not so.
God created One man for one woman.

Thats the reason he rebuked the Pharisees for abandoning the love of God and were preaching the Traditions of men.

Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.
1 Corinthians:7:2

(To avoid sexual sin. The case in point here is sexual sin) Let EVERY MAN HAVE HIS OWN WIFE not Wives.



Talking about the woman caught in Adultery, have you not asked why the man wasnt brought out? Thats the very reason The Master asked them to cast their stones if they were not guilty of the same sin.

Anas09:


See? Matt 5:27 hung you. You are of the opionion that only women commit adultery. lol. But Jesus is referring to men here, if they as much as look lustfully, they are guilty.

I never said only women commit adultery.

Anas09:

Pathrachial (Man) may try to twist it to mean what he wants it to mean, but deep down you know the truth.

Pathrachy did not start in our time. The pathrachial tradition in the Bible was fixed there by men, just like devorce was. Jesus said, in the beginning, it was not so.

Well God's laws seems to reinforce it and sometimes even establish it. @ the bolded, are you suggesting that the laws found in Deuteronomy and Leviticus are the works of men? Are you sure you want to make that claim?

Added bonus: The Deuteronomy passage commonly sited about divorce actually never gives commandments about divorce but only assumes it. The passage is actually about a woman's eligibility to remarry. What do you make of Jesus actually failing to properly interpret it along with the Pharisees? Was he not in a sense, considering the trinity theology, the one that actually gave Moses the laws? Food for thought...

Anas09:
God created One man for one woman.

The Bible never actually teaches this... maybe except Paul's teachings were he specified conditions to be a bishop (or deacon?)

Anas09:
Thats the reason he rebuked the Pharisees for abandoning the love of God and were preaching the Traditions of men.

Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband.
1 Corinthians:7:2

This passage only advocates marriage as a means to avoid fornication. It says nothing about multiple marriages. Interestingly, monogamy in new testament times owed more to Roman/Hellenistic influence on Jews, especially in the diaspora (a major constituent of Paul's ministry), than traditional Jewish traditions which very much supported polygamy.

Anas09:
(To avoid sexual sin. The case in point here is sexual sin) Let EVERY MAN HAVE HIS OWN WIFE not Wives.

Admittedly, by the time of Paul, the focus was more of sexual purity than social cohesion.

Anas09:

Talking about the woman caught in Adultery, have you not asked why the man wasnt brought out? Thats the very reason The Master asked them to cast their stones if they were not guilty of the same sin.

Jesus did not ask the men if they were guilty of the same sin. He asked them if they are not guilty of any sin.