₦airaland Forum

QuinQ:
So who has fulfilled them? Who has come closer to fulfilling them than Jesus Christ (once you realize it refers to the spiritual NOT the physical. Spiritual Jews)

The Messiah has not yet come. When he comes you will know.
No more wars and oppression
Universal knowledge of God

Those has not yet happened. So the Jews are still waiting. The fact that he has not come does not means I should worship a man as god. That is idolatry.

Lol to the bold

Jesus is the Christian god....

QuinQ:
Lie. Second coming is entirely New Testament.
Once again, are you saying the OT prophets were lying?

Second coming is a Christian apology for Jesus not fulfilling any messianic prophecies.

QuinQ:
Lie. Second coming is entirely New Testament.
Once again, are you saying the OT prophets were lying?

Got this from Gemini Ai

In Judaism, the Messiah (Mashiach) is not a divine figure, but a mortal, human leader from the line of King David. According to tradition—most famously outlined by Maimonides (Rambam)—the Messiah will accomplish specific, physical goals to inaugurate the Messianic Age.
Here are the six primary prophetic criteria the Messiah must fulfill
1. Gather the Exiles: The Messiah will ingather all Jewish people to the Land of Israel.
2. Rebuild the Temple: He will reconstruct the Third Temple in Jerusalem on the Temple Mount.
3. Fight God's Battles: He will win wars against the enemies of Israel and restore national sovereignty.
4. Restore Torah Observance: He will guide the Jewish people back to full observance of the Torah and its commandments.
5. Usher in Universal Peace: He will bring about a permanent era of global peace where war, famine, and hatred cease.
6. Unite Humanity in Knowing God: He will bring all of mankind to know, worship, and serve the one God of Israel.


Which of these did Jesus fulfill??

QuinQ:
So you're saying none of those prophesies have been fulfilled, that the prophets were lying?
Is that what you're saying?
Because if you remove Jesus they'd all remain unfulfilled!

God promised the Jews a Messiah(anointed king) that will bring peace between them and their neighbors. He will end all wars and any form of oppression. And 6 other messianic prophecies. That had still not happened, so they are still waiting.
The Romans learnt about the idea and created Jesus Christ and said he will fulfill those prophecies at the second coming. But need flash, there was NEVER any second coming arrangement anywhere....
They are still waiting.....

Like I said here a thousand times, death is an illusion.

Kobojunkie:
Look who's talking! 😒

This is the very next chapter, that is Genesis 1;27
27 And God created man in His image; in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them.

There is no "US" there again nah, just a personal pronoun.

Mouuuuugwuuuuuu.com

Kobojunkie:
I already preinformed you that I am not here to endlessly debate anyone's private delusions regarding what is clearly stated in the texts. 😒

What is stated in the text? You just take text out of its proper context and runaway with it as if you have found the philosophers stone.

J

AntiChristian:
An anachronism is a chronological error in which a person, object, event, or custom is placed in the wrong time period. Derived from Greek roots meaning "against time," it often appears in literature, film, or art, either as an unintentional mistake or an intentional stylistic choice.

The Pharaoh During the Time of Joseph in the Bible
1. Biblical Reference to the Pharaoh in Joseph’s Story
-In the Book of Genesis (chapters 37–50), Joseph rises to prominence in Egypt after interpreting Pharaoh’s dreams. The ruler of Egypt in this narrative is commonly referred to as "Pharaoh." The term "Pharaoh" is used as a title for the Egyptian ruler, but the Bible does not provide a personal name for him.

2. Was He Truly Called "Pharaoh" or "King"?
-Use of "Pharaoh": [/b]The Hebrew Bible uses the term "Pharaoh" (Hebrew: פַּרְעֹה, Par'oh) to denote the ruler of Egypt. This term appears in the Joseph narrative and throughout the Pentateuch.

[b]-Use of "King": In some parts of the Old Testament, the Egyptian ruler is also referred to as "king" (Hebrew: מֶלֶךְ, melekh). For example, in Genesis 41:41, Joseph is made "ruler over all the land of Egypt," second only to Pharaoh, the king.
The terms "Pharaoh" and "king" are often used interchangeably in the biblical text, reflecting the ruler’s supreme authority.

3. Historical and Linguistic Context of the Title "Pharaoh"
-The word "Pharaoh" originally meant "great house" and referred to the royal palace rather than the ruler himself. It became a title for the Egyptian monarch only later, around the New Kingdom period (starting circa 1550 BCE).

-The Joseph story is traditionally placed in the Middle Kingdom or Second Intermediate Period of Egypt (roughly 2000–1600 BCE), before the title "Pharaoh" was commonly used for the king.

-Therefore, the use of "Pharaoh" in the Joseph narrative may be anachronistic, reflecting the language and titles familiar to the biblical authors or later editors rather than the historical reality of Joseph’s time.

4. Why the Error or Anachronism?
-Literary and Theological Reasons: The biblical text was likely written or compiled centuries after the events it describes. The authors used contemporary or familiar terms to communicate effectively with their audience.
-Transmission and Redaction: Over time, the biblical text underwent editing and redaction, during which later terminology could have been inserted or standardized.

-Lack of Specific Names: The Bible does not name the Egyptian ruler during Joseph’s time, possibly because the authors did not have access to or did not prioritize historical Egyptian records.

5. Was the Error Due to Later Corruption?
-The term "error" here is better understood as an anachronism or a linguistic adaptation rather than a corruption in the sense of deliberate falsification.
-The use of "Pharaoh" for the ruler in Joseph’s time likely reflects the language of the biblical writers’ own era rather than a historical mistake or corruption.
-Biblical texts often use titles and terms familiar to their contemporary audience, even if they do not perfectly match the historical period described.

Summary
-The ruler during Joseph’s time in the Bible is called both "Pharaoh" and "king."
-Historically, the title "Pharaoh" was not used for Egyptian rulers until after Joseph’s supposed era, making its use in Genesis an anachronism.
-This is likely due to the biblical authors using contemporary terms for clarity and familiarity rather than a textual corruption.
-The Bible’s lack of a personal name for the Egyptian ruler and the interchangeable use of "king" and "Pharaoh" reflect the narrative’s theological and literary aims rather than strict historical accuracy.

The Torah was written by a group of priest lead by Ezra when they came home from the Babylonian exile. This should be around 550-530CE.
It is not a historical narrative, it is a spiritual manual. It is full of Allegory and symbolism.
It is used in the synagogue for spiritual enlightenment.
Egypt (slavery) represent ignorance of oneself.. Every thing happening in the Torah is happening within us.

When man expires , in he body is buried so that it can return back to the earth and the spirit returns to God who gave it. See Ecclesiastes 12:7
So my friend there was never any need for the fictitious character called Jesus.

R

Kobojunkie:
I already informed you that I am not here to endlessly debate anyone's private delusions regarding what is clearly stated in the texts. 😒

You are the one who is ignorant and I need to cure it, so that you can leave the dark side( and come to the light side...

You are asking for the "US" in Genesis
Let me explain.

MAN= body made from the dust of the earth
Spirit from the breath of God.

So the us is God our father and mother earth..

Kobojunkie:
1. Rubbish! " Let us make man in our image DOES NOT point to one. It could point to one true God, as Jesus Christ put it in John 17, but not just one entity. 😒

2. If Jesus Christ of Israel, the Eternal Life and Truth of YHWH, told you that YHWH is the only True God. Does that in some way diminish the fact that Jesus Christ of Israel shares the very essence of YHWH -- godhood? If the Spirit of YHWH is not YHWH himself, does this in some way diminish the fact that the Spirit of YHWH shares of the very essence of YHWH--- godhood?😒

1. Please read the very next verse so that your ignorance will be cured.

2. No matter how you want to paint it, Jesus is a fictional character
QED

adeiza4u:
This is the true and "contextual" meaning of that story:

When Jesus was on the cross and cried out:

> “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?”
> — Matthew 27:46

He was not “forgetting” that He is the Savior. Rather, He was revealing several deep spiritual truths.

First, Pentecostal believers understand that Jesus is both fully God and fully man. While on earth, He lived as the Son in relationship with the Father. Throughout His ministry, He prayed to the Father, depended on the Father, and obeyed the Father. The cross did not cancel that relationship.

Second, at that moment on the cross, Jesus was carrying the sins of the whole world. The Bible says:

> “He who knew no sin became sin for us.”

Sin separates humanity from God. On the cross, Jesus experienced the terrible weight and suffering of bearing mankind’s sin. His cry expressed the agony of that moment.

Third, Jesus was also fulfilling prophecy. He was quoting Psalm 22, written centuries before His birth. That Psalm begins with “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” but ends in victory and vindication. By speaking those words, Jesus was showing that He was the promised Messiah fulfilling Scripture.

Now, why didn’t He “call on Himself”?

Because within Christian belief, the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit are distinct persons in one Godhead. Trinity does not mean Jesus was talking to Himself like one person acting alone. The Son was speaking to the Father in the eternal relationship that has always existed within the Godhead.

Also, Jesus came to model perfect surrender and trust in God even in suffering. On the cross He showed humanity how to remain faithful even in pain, darkness, and sacrifice.

So His cry was not weakness or contradiction. It was:

* the suffering of the sin-bearer,
* the fulfillment of prophecy,
* the expression of His human agony,
* and the continuing relationship between the Son and the Father.

And importantly, after that suffering, He still declared victory. Before He died, He said:

> “It is finished.”

Meaning the work of salvation was completed.

This is what it means, not what AntiChristian implies by half quotation of the story/scripture.

When Jesus died was it the 100©% human or the 100% god that died?

Kobojunkie:
1. What is stated in those passages directly correlate with what is written in Genesis chapter 1 through 3. Any private delusions/interpretations you wish to give them... I do not care to attend to.🥱

2. He is fictional yet a moment ago, you were certain he was no different from you. What a ridiculous delusion, yours must indeed be. 🥱🥱

Quote the passages let the whole world see it....why did you dodge it?

QuinQ:
Are you saying the Carholic church wrote the Bible?

The Old Testament (OT) features hundreds of prophecies pointing to the coming of Jesus Christ.
**Bethlehem, Egypt, and Galilee, found in landmark passages such as Isaiah 7:14 and Micah 5:2.

Have you actually read does passages yourself or you are just vomiting what you heard your pastors say?
Isaiah 7 is about a war. Pointing to a pregnant woman and saying she will soon give birth is not a prophecy.The actual prophecy is in verse 16.

erusalem (The Temple & The Mount of Olives)The Prophecies: Malachi 3:1 foretold that the "Lord" would suddenly come to His temple in Jerusalem. Furthermore, Zechariah 14:4 prophesied that the Messiah's feet would literally stand on the Mount of Olives.
Egypt (Place of Refuge)The Prophecy: Hosea 11:1 states, "out of Egypt I called my son."Fulfillment: This foretold the flight of the holy family to Egypt to escape King Herod's decree, followed by their eventual return.
**Galilee (Region of Ministry)The Prophecy: Isaiah 9:1-2 prophesied that a great light would dawn on the region of Galilee of the Gentiles.Fulfillment: Jesus based a vast portion of His public ministry and performed many miracles in the Galilee region, particularly around Capernaum and the Sea of Galilee.
**Genesis 3:15: Given in the Garden of Eden, this verse foretells the "seed" of the woman who would crush the serpent's head, interpreted by Christians as the first prophecy of Christ's triumph over sin.
**Isaiah 7:14: Foretold in the context of the Davidic kingdom, this declares that a virgin would conceive and bear a son called "Immanuel" (God with us).
**Isaiah 53: Often called the chapter of the "Suffering Servant," this text details the Messiah's rejection, silent suffering, and substitutionary sacrifice.

And hundreds other prophecies

Noo, not the Bible. But the entire so called New testament.[/quote]You need to read those passages in context, stop taking them in isolation. When you do, you will clearly see that there never was anything concerning Jesus there.

SIRTee15:
I sent it to u b4, I'm not bothering my head about that
Go and read your tanakh and stop acting ignorant

So it is either God is lying in Isaiah 45:5-7 or you did not understand the context of what Ezekiel was talking about...

Take your pick.

Noooooooooooooo.

Life is a circle, not a straight line.

Man can never be God because he is made from mud(dust) if Jesus existed he can never be God. That body has already made him impure....man is impure by design. If Jesus actually existed he can never be pure....

Kobojunkie:
I am not interested in your private delusions but what is stated in the Books of the Israelites Scripture. According to the books, the Spirit of God is not man or any part of man. Rather, it is the breath that animates man; the same breath leaves man and returns to God once man dies. It holds nothing of the essence of man, as it is rather fully of God. Genesis Chapter 1 - 3 attests to this.

2. Again, I am not here to trade private delusions with you but engage in discourse regarding that which is, in fact, written down in the book. No other man is said to have been born exactly as Jesus Christ of Israel was; no man is born directly from the infusion of the Spirit of God with the essence of the human being. So, this claim of yours that Jesus Christ of Israel is no different from other men is fallacious. 😒

1. Please read Ecclesiastes 12:7 and psalm 104!29-31

2. That is enough reason to believe that he is a fictional character. Isn't it mush like Perseus of clash of the titans.

QuinQ:
God the Son of God came for a mission, which he accomplished. If Jesus is not God, what is he? He has to be God, only, not the Father!

The Prophets knew God was more than one person (see below). His true nature became a bit clearer with coming of Christ

Maybe he was created by the Catholic church as an insult against the creator of heaven and earth.
None of the prophet in the Tanakh reported that God had a son he was sending as a sacrifice to him. According to Amos3:7 God does nothing without revealing it to his servants the prophet

Kobojunkie:
YHWH is right to state that outside of Him, even His own Spirit does not exist. He is YWHW, and out of Him His very own Spirit emanates. YHWH and the Spirit of YHWH are one, though distinct beings. 😒

It might interest you to know that we are that God spirit having a human experience.
So if Jesus actually existed,he is no different from us. His spirit is his breath.

adeiza4u:
Your problem is, you think and believe so much that you know the Bible, whereas reverse is the case. With this comment, you obviously don't truly know the Bible. Humble yourself and be open minded so you can comprehend the TRUTH. Ignorance leads to destruction o.

So what is the correct thing to say? How do you interpret that story in the Bible?

SIRTee15:
Ezekiel preached a figure like a Man sits on the throne of God.

Is God like a man?
Who is that figure like a man

Please can you provide proper referencing, so I can read the context

While at it, do well to check Isaiah 45:5
Isaiah 45:5
I am the Lord, and there is no other;
apart from me there is no God.
I will strengthen you,
though you have not acknowledged me,

Thanks

God is one and indivisible. God is the creator and can never be part of creation. Everything exists within God...
God is the universal divine consciousness. Not a Jewish man up in the sky. The yoruba refers to it as Olodumare and the igbos as Chineke..same God different nomenclature.

No prophet preached a triune god. God is one indivisible entity. The idea of a trinity was created by the Catholic church at one of their church council in the 5th century.

God is existence itself, God is one. Every other thing exist within God. I have posted a picture here before of Marduk with the universe as his garment. .... understand the symbolism.

The truth of the matter is that nobody knows the authors of any book of the Christian scriptures. They just a fix those names to pass it off as authentic.. the gospels began life anonymously. But I think it was Eusebius who wrote the one that has come down to us....

Theawakensoul:

Historians examine:
👉 written sources
👉 multiple references
👉 cultural impact
👉 archaeological context
👉 external mentions
👉 timeline consistency

And based on that, the majority of secular historians, including non-Christians and atheists, conclude that:
👉 a Jewish teacher named Yeshua likely existed in 1st-century Judea
👉 he gathered followers
👉 and was crucified under Roman authority.

Now…
does that automatically prove every miracle claim or church doctrine?

No.

And that’s where many debates begin.

Because there’s a difference between:
👉 a historical figure existing
and
👉 later theology built around that figure.

Jesus failed in all those criterias, in all sincerity. Let's not over flog it

tctrills:
So just because you call something facts, the rest of the world should accept it?
I have discussed with you more than once and each you are not able to prove your theory.
Yesterday you said God doesn't want us to worship Him because we are also God yet you quote from the old testament a book where God requested to be worshiped.

Please can you tell me which book of the Tanakh and how he said we should do it....show me where he gave the Jews the more of worship.

I am waiting

tctrills:
I don't even know what you are saying so I don't know what to add.
Please read what you wrote and edit so that you can be understood

Edited now, sorry

Extra terrestrial means extra land. They originate from lands beyond the ice wall in Antarctica.
Some are here for our resources and to watch us so we don't self distruct and go into extinction.

tctrills:
So let's call it your opinion not your religion

Lol, I drop facts and knowledge, not beliefs, the fact that you are blind to see them does not negate it..

Stop making claims you can't prove.

Theawakensoul:
You actually raised some interesting points, especially about symbolism, consciousness, and spiritual interpretation.

And I agree with part of what you’re saying:
👉 many spiritual texts DO contain symbolic and psychological layers
👉 inner transformation is a real part of spirituality
👉 and reading everything only literally can miss deeper meanings

For example:
👉 ego
👉 fear
👉 desire
👉 awakening
👉 consciousness

can absolutely be explored through spiritual stories and metaphors.

Even many mystics throughout history interpreted scripture symbolically.

But I think you then jumped from:
👉 “scriptures contain symbolism”
to
👉 “therefore none of it has historical roots.”

And that’s a very different claim.

Because historically, there is actually strong evidence that:
👉 a Jewish teacher named Yeshua which his name later fabricated to Jesus existed
👉 he lived in 1st-century Judea
👉 he was crucified under Roman authority

Even many non-Christian historians and secular scholars accept that.

Now whether later theology transformed him into something else…
THAT is where debate begins.

And honestly, I partially agree there too.

Because over centuries:
👉 mythology
👉 empire politics
👉 theology
👉 symbolism
👉 and institutional religion
all became layered onto the original movement.

But saying:
👉 “Jesus is literally Marduk”
or
👉 “Jesus never existed at all”

goes beyond what mainstream historical evidence currently supports.

Now about “the letter killeth.”

I think that verse is often misunderstood.

Paul was speaking about:
👉 rigid legalism without spiritual transformation

not saying:
👉 “history doesn’t matter”
or
👉 “everything is only allegory.”

Because once EVERYTHING becomes symbolic only…
people can make texts mean absolutely anything.

And then truth becomes impossible to ground.

I do agree with your deeper point though:

🔥 consciousness matters.

Spirituality without inner awakening easily becomes:
👉 ritual without transformation
👉 religion without wisdom
👉 belief without awareness

And many people do read sacred texts only externally while missing:
👉 self-knowledge
👉 inner growth
👉 compassion
👉 consciousness
👉 transformation

So I think balance is important.

Not:
👉 blind literalism

But also not:
👉 dismissing all history entirely.

Maybe sacred texts contain BOTH:
👉 historical layers
AND
👉 symbolic psychological meaning.

And perhaps the deeper goal is not worshipping stories…
but understanding what they were trying to awaken within human consciousness.

I AM - THE AWAKEN SOUL TAS
QUESTIONING EVERYTHING

Do you think Jesus is based on a real person, that's a pretty big assertion you made, please can you go ahead and tell me one person who actually saw him....


I am waiting.

Every other thing you said, I can take....

Thanks.