Mtsheeeew....SMH


Expect my reply 2nyt

I will be going to bed very early tonight because have been depriving myself of a normal day to day sleep which in turn is gradually affecting me......therefore i will not be replying all your posts, even though you really shot yourself in the foot today, INSHA ALLAH i will reply them all tommorrow and unfollow this thread totally...before then let me expose your mentors lie here...

Emusan:

Truly if one reads this translation and compare it with other translations one can say Sam Shamoun is being biased with his articles BUT does he being biased?

The fact that you are trying to cover the lies and deception of Sam shamoun here shows how perverted you are....therefore, i now count you to be a liar and a deceptor, evangelising xtianity by lieing about other people faith. the fact that you yourself never went through the topic before you just copy and then paste it yourself, after when i showed you that the primer translation is nowhere to be found and i quote all available and accepted tranlation to counter your claim, you still went ahead and say Sam Shamoun is not biased, Infact for using the word bias makes you also a great lier..SMH

Emusan:
Absolutely No! because Sam has dealt with the bias part of other translations like Y. Ali, Picthall e.t.c in translating the word SALAT as blessing in one article. I'm still searching for the article once I get it I'll provide you the link to tell you that Sam never deceives his reader.
I purposely left only Mushin Khan's translation because it gives more evidence to Sam claim with the word SALAT that appears.

The problem you are having here is that you thought the word SALAt was used in the verse, unfortunately for you it was not SALAT that was used .. here is the transliteration and you must point to me the word SALAT there....
Quran 33:43
Transliteration
Huwa allathee [size=15pt]yu[b] SALLEE [/b]AAalaykum [/size]wamala-ikatuhu liyukhrijakum mina aththulumatiila annoori wakana bilmu/mineena raheema
Sahih International
It is He who confers blessing upon you, and His angels [ask Him to do so] that He may bring you out from darknesses into the light. And ever is He, to the believers, Merciful.
Muhsin Khan
He it is Who sends Salat (His blessings) on you, and His angels too (ask Allah to bless and forgive you), that He may bring you out from darkness (of disbelief and polytheism) into light (of Belief and Islamic Monotheism). And He is Ever Most Merciful to the believers.
Pickthall
He it is Who blesseth you, and His angels (bless you), that He may bring you forth from darkness unto light; and He is ever Merciful to the believers.

NOTE: SALLEE is singular

QURAN 33:56
Transliteration
Inna Allaha wamala-ikatahu [size=15pt]yu[b] SALLOOONA [/b]AAala [/size]annabiyyi ya ayyuha allatheenaamanoo salloo AAalayhi wasallimoo tasleema
Sahih International
Indeed, Allah confers blessing upon the Prophet, and His angels [ask Him to do so]. O you who have believed, ask [ Allah to confer] blessing upon him and ask [ Allah to grant him] peace.
Muhsin Khan
Allah sends His Salat (Graces, Honours, Blessings, Mercy, etc.) on the Prophet (Muhammad SAW) and also His angels too (ask Allah to bless and forgive him). O you who believe! Send your Salat on (ask Allah to bless) him (Muhammad SAW), and (you should) greet (salute) him with the Islamic way of greeting (salutation i.e. AsSalamu 'Alaikum).
Pickthall
Lo! Allah and His angels shower blessings on the Prophet. O ye who believe! Ask blessings on him and salute him with a worthy salutation.

NOTE: SALLOONA is plural

Now please answer me do you agree with me that Sam Shamoun was trying to deceive us here or not

Emusan: To you what is the meaning of SALAT?

Salat (ṣalāh) is an Arabic word whose basic meaning is "bowing, homage, worship, prayer". In its English usage..http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Salat
Quran 5:6
Transliteration
Ya ayyuha allatheena amanooitha [size=15pt]qumtum ila as[b] salat [/b]i [/size]faghsiloowujoohakum waaydiyakum ila almarafiqi wamsahoobiruoosikum waarjulakum ila alkaAAbayni wa-in kuntumjunuban fattahharoo wa-in kuntum marda awAAala safarin aw jaa ahadun minkum mina algha-itiaw lamastumu annisaa falam tajidoo maanfatayammamoo saAAeedan tayyiban famsahoobiwujoohikum waaydeekum minhu ma yureedu AllahuliyajAAala AAalaykum min harajin walakin yureeduliyutahhirakum waliyutimma niAAmatahu AAalaykumlaAAallakum tashkuroon
Sahih International
O you who have believed, when you rise to [perform] prayer , wash your faces and your forearms to the elbows and wipe over your heads and wash your feet to the ankles. And if you are in a state of janabah, then purify yourselves. But if you are ill or on a journey or one of you comes from the place of relieving himself or you have contacted women and do not find water, then seek clean earth and wipe over your faces and hands with it. Allah does not intend to make difficulty for you, but He intends to purify you and complete His favor upon you that you may be grateful.

QURAN2:177
Transliteration
Laysa albirra an tuwalloo wujoohakum qibalaalmashriqi walmaghribi walakinna albirra man amanabillahi walyawmi al-akhiri walmala-ikatiwalkitabi wannabiyyeena waataalmala AAala hubbihi thawee alqurbawalyatama walmasakeena wabnaalssabeeli wassa-ileena wafee arriqabiwaaqama [size=15pt]as[b] salat [/b]a[/size] waataazzakata walmoofoona biAAahdihim ithaAAahadoo wassabireena fee alba/sa-iwaddarra-i waheena alba/si ola-ikaallatheena sadaqoo waola-ika humualmuttaqoon

Sahih International
Righteousness is not that you turn your faces toward the east or the west, but [true] righteousness is [in] one who believes in Allah , the Last Day, the angels, the Book, and the prophets and gives wealth, in spite of love for it, to relatives, orphans, the needy, the traveler, those who ask [for help], and for freeing slaves; [and who] establishes [b]prayer [/b]and gives zakah; [those who] fulfill their promise when they promise; and [those who] are patient in poverty and hardship and during battle. Those are the ones who have been true, and it is those who are the righteous.

Can you now see the difference or cant you see?

Now was Sam shamoun trying to deceive us here or not?

Emusan: This is how you will know that people like Yusuf Ali, Sahih try to cover up this obvious problem by rendering the word SALAT as Blessing not as Prayer.

Does SALAT and SOLLEE looks alike who is trying to cover up this obvious problem if your the deceiver called Sam Shamoun? Are you still going to cover him up or not?

Who is more unjust than one who invents a lie against Allah ?

I will reply the rest tommorrow ishaAllah....Good night

I'm so glad that you finally exposed your ignorance on YOUR OWN BELIEF.

Just read this before you disappear sha.....

Rilwayne001: before then let me expose your mentors lie here...

Let's see who is lying or ignorant about his own scripture.

The fact that you are trying to cover the lies and deception of Sam shamoun here shows how perverted you are....

Really! OK let's see.

therefore, i now count you to be a liar and a deceptor, evangelising xtianity by lieing about other people faith.

So if I now point out your own loop holes what will you call yourself?

the fact that you yourself never went through the topic before you just copy and then paste it yourself,

Let's see who didn't read the article properly by being blindfolded through false teaching.

after when i showed you that the primer translation is nowhere to be found and i quote all available and accepted tranlation to counter your claim,

First Error: Your first mistake is @color part and this shows that you didn't read the article properly.

You can go back to the OP or Sam Shamoun's article and see whether the word PRIMER is there. The translation is called PALMER translated by Edward Henry Palmer.

Can you see your problem here?

you still went ahead and say Sam Shamoun is not biased, Infact for using the word bias makes you also a great lier..SMH

Is Sam biased now or what?
Remember I also say he(Sam) exposed the BIAS part of the other translations who rendered the word SALAT as blessing, honour e.t.c

The problem you are having here is that you thought the word SALAt was used in the verse, unfortunately for you it was not SALAT that was used ..

Unfortunate for you, you couldn't ask yourself WHY people like Muhsin Khan rendered the word SALAT as blessing despite the fact that it appears BOLDLY in the text and what is the word SALAT doing in Muhsin Khan translation if the word was not used?

This shows that you argue blindly.

here is the transliteration and you must point to me the word SALAT there....
SALLEE
Muhsin Khan
He it is Who sends Salat (His blessings)
NOTE: SALLEE is singular
SALLOOONA
Muhsin Khan
Allah sends His Salat (Graces, Honours, Blessings, Mercy, etc.)
NOTE: SALLOONA is plural

Waooooo this is the sweetest part of your post because you simply analysed at all without much stress for me.
Since you've analysed it this way no need for me to do it again than to expose your own ignorance about how much you know Arabic and Qur'an, The words YUSALLOON or SALLOO or YUSALEE or SALAT are all derived from the root word WASALA,

That is why the word SALAT or SALLEE or SALLOO can interchangeably be used.

Can you see it now?

Now please answer me do you agree with me that Sam Shamoun was trying to deceive us here or not

Do you agree that people like Y. Ali, Picthall, Sahih are deceiving Muslims for rendered this verse as blessing, honour e.t.c and Sam is innocent for exposing this lie?

Salat (ṣalāh) is an Arabic word whose basic meaning is "bowing, homage, worship, prayer". In its English usage..http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Salat

So give us the meaning of WASALA?

Can you now see the difference or cant you see?

Can you now see they are the same or can't you see?

Now was Sam shamoun trying to deceive us here or not?

Now were you been deceived by those translations or not?

Does SALAT and SOLLEE looks alike

Please give the meaning of SALLEE as you do to SALAT so that we can see who is lying

who is trying to cover up this obvious problem if your mentor the deceiver called Sam Shamoun? Are you still going to cover him up or not?

Answer these questions yourself.

I WONDER WHY YOU DIDNT ADDRESS THOSE TRANSLITERATION I PROVIDED IN BOTH CASES (SALAT & SALLE)

THE FACT THAT SALAT WAS NOT USED IN THE VERSE, THE FACT THAT SALLEE WAS NOT USED IN PLACE OF PRAY IN THE QURAN (BETTER STILL PROVIDE IT FOR US) SHOWS THAT THE TWO WORDS ARE DISTINCT....

BROTHER....HAVE A NICE DAY.


AFTER WASTING MY MB,AND MY PRECIOUS TIME REPLYING YOUR SILLY CLAIM...YOU PREFER TO BE LYING BY IGNORING MOST OF MY POSTS.

AM DONE ENGAGING IN A FUTILE ARGUMENT WITH YOU..

Rilwayne001: I WONDER WHY YOU DIDNT ADDRESS THOSE TRANSLITERATION I PROVIDED IN BOTH CASES (SALAT & SALLE)

After I've exposed your little knowledge about Arabic you said I didn't address your translation.

The question is which word those translations rendered as blessing or honour?

Which you said is SALLEE and I go further to let you know that both SALAT AND SALLEE mean the same thing been derived from the same ROOT word WASALA.

Very pathetic!

THE FACT THAT SALAT WAS NOT USED IN THE VERSE, THE FACT THAT SALLEE WAS NOT USED IN PLACE OF PRAY IN THE QURAN (BETTER STILL PROVIDE IT FOR US) SHOWS THAT THE TWO WORDS ARE DISTINCT....

Your problem is the inability to comprehend simple English just as it's difficult for Allah to express Itself in simple English.

1) You keep clamouring that the word SALAT was not used YET in Muhsin Khan's Translation the word SALAT appeared, did you ask why Muhsin Khan used SALAT in his translation? which I further explained by letting you know that both SALAT & SALLEE can interchangeably use because they came from the same ROOT word WASALA.

2) For saying the two words are distinct shows again how you lack Arabic knowledge.

3) What is the meaning of SALLEE?

BROTHER....HAVE A NICE DAY.

You too

AFTER WASTING MY MB,AND MY PRECIOUS TIME REPLYING YOUR SILLY CLAIM...YOU PREFER TO BE LYING BY IGNORING MOST OF MY POSTS.
I AM DONE ENGAGING IN A FUTILE ARGUMENT WITH YOU..

I didn't ignore your post in the first place and I don't need to reply all your post when I've already seen the lapses of your post ~~~F9 in Arabic language ~~~ so all I could do is to help you by bring out your error.

Runing away as usual!

Stop deceiving yourself and being ignorance of your own faith SALAT & SALLEE are the same thing.

In case you're reading my post from underground see the surah where SALLEE was used for prayer "And the angels called to him as he stood praying (yusallee) in the sanctuary: Allah giveth thee glad tidings of (a son whose name is) John, (who cometh) to confirm a word from Allah, lordly, chaste, a prophet of the righteous. S. 3:39 Pickthall

So can you see where your problem lies?

Lastly can you be able to decipher between PRIMER & PALMER now?

SMH seriously for you.

Emusan:

Please kindly do me this favour before we proceed.

Do you believed that 'WE, HIM, HIS, OUR, US' as agreed by many Muslim scholars to be a royal plural pronouns and third person pronouns used for Allah?

NOTE: They did this in other to explain away the plurality of many Allah(Gods) in Qur'an.

Does Muhammad or Angel Gabriel word appear in the Qur'an?

The Qur’anic linguistic feature is the effective rhetorical device known as
iltifāt or grammatical shifts. This literary device
enhances the texts literary expression and it is an accepted, well researched part of Arabic rhetoric.

One can find references in the books of Arabic rhetoric by al-Athir, Suyuti and Zarkashi. These grammatical shifts include: changes in
person, change in number, change in addressee, change in tense, change in case marker, using a noun in place of a pronoun and many other changes.


The main functions of these shifts include the changing of emphasis, to alert the reader to a particular matter, and to enhance the style of the text.Its effects include creating variation and difference in a text, to generate rhythm and flow, and to maintain the listener’s
attention in a dramatic way.
Chapter al-Kawthar provides another good example of the use of grammatical shifts,
“Verily, We have granted you The Abundance.
Therefore turn in prayer to your Lord and sacrifice. For he who hates you, he will be cut off.”

In this chapter, there is a change from the first person plural “We” to the second person “…your Lord”. This change is not an abrupt shift; it is calculated and highlights the intimate relationship between God and the Prophet Muhammad ﷺ. The use of “We” is used to emphasize the Majesty, Power and Ability of God. This choice of personal pronoun calls attention to, and stresses the fact, that God has the Power and Ability to grant Muhammad“…The Abundance”. Whereas “Your Lord” has been used to indicate and emphasise intimacy, closeness and love. The word “Your Lord” has a range of meanings that imply master, provider, and the One that cares. This is an apt use of language, as the surrounding concepts are about prayer, sacrifice and worship; “Therefore turn inprayer to your Lord and sacrifice“.
Furthermore, the purpose of this chapter is also to console Prophet Muhammad,as using such intimate language enhances the psycholinguistic effect.


www.nairaland.com/1898514/qurans-miracle-non-arabic-speakers#26258407

Longest time Brother Lanrexlan!

lanrexlan: The Qur’anic linguistic feature is the effective rhetorical device known as
iltifāt or grammatical shifts. This literary device
enhances the texts literary expression and it is an accepted, well researched part of Arabic rhetoric.

Another way of explaining away this gross problem in Quran, rhetoric device

One can find references in the books of Arabic rhetoric by al-Athir, Suyuti and Zarkashi. These grammatical shifts include: changes in
person, change in number, change in addressee, change in tense, change in case marker, using a noun in place of a pronoun and many other changes.

Please give us another literature where rhetoric device of GRAMMATICAL SHIFTS was using like Quran.

The main functions of these shifts include the changing of emphasis, to alert the reader to a particular matter, and to enhance the style of the text.Its effects include creating variation and difference in a text, to generate rhythm and flow, and to maintain the listener’s
attention in a dramatic way.
Chapter al-Kawthar provides another good example of the use of grammatical shifts,
“Verily, We have granted you The Abundance.
Therefore turn in prayer to your Lord and sacrifice. For he who hates you, he will be cut off.”

In this chapter, there is a change from the first person plural “We” to the second person “…your Lord”. This change is not an abrupt shift; it is calculated and highlights the intimate relationship between God and the Prophet Muhammad ﷺ. The use of “We” is used to emphasize the Majesty, Power and Ability of God. This choice of personal pronoun calls attention to, and stresses the fact, that God has the Power and Ability to grant Muhammad“…The Abundance”. Whereas “Your Lord” has been used to indicate and emphasise intimacy, closeness and love. The word “Your Lord” has a range of meanings that imply master, provider, and the One that cares. This is an apt use of language, as the surrounding concepts are about prayer, sacrifice and worship; “Therefore turn inprayer to your Lord and sacrifice“.
Furthermore, the purpose of this chapter is also to console Prophet Muhammad,as using such intimate language enhances the psycholinguistic effect.
www.nairaland.com/1898514/qurans-miracle-non-arabic-speakers#26258407

Did you read the OP where Allah suppose to be narrating Moses' encounter with Itself but Allah started praising Itself, is that rhetoric statement again?

Please come with another excuse.

Emusan: Longest time Brother Lanrexlan!

Long time indeed.

Another way of explaining away this gross problem in Quran, rhetoric device

To you and your mentors with a closed heart,it's a problem.

Please give us another literature where rhetoric device of GRAMMATICAL SHIFTS was using like Quran.

That's a miracle about the glorious Qu'ran which the 7th century arabians couldn't even match.I gave you a typical example of such shift with a well detailed and explained example.
Mind explaining this to me?
Exodus 3:2-3 -There the angel of the LORD appeared to him in flames of fire from within a bush.Moses saw that though the bush was on fire it did not burn up. So Moses thought, "I will go over and see this strange sight--why the bush does not burn up." When the LORD saw that he had gone over to look,God called to him from within the bush "Moses! Moses!" And Moses said, "Here I am."................. this,Moses hid his face, because he was afraid to look at God
In the beginning of the verse,the angel of God appeared to Moses then towards the end Moses was afraid to look at God.Is God's face and angel's face the same?

Did you read the OP where Allah suppose to be narrating Moses' encounter with Itself but Allah started praising Itself, is that rhetoric statement again?

Please come with another excuse.

Try and be a gentleman Emusan.Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala is a living being He's Al-Hayyu the ever living and the pronoun you should use is not 'itself'.'Itself' is used for inanimate things.Try to show some courtesy.

To your question,I don't think it's your problem if Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala praises himself.He's the most High,worthy of all praises. To Him belong all praises.Allah praises Himself to remind His creatures that all praise belongs to Him alone.

It is not permissible for a human being to praise themselves like this.Allah says --So ascribe not purity to yourselves. He knows best him who fears Allah and keep his duty to Him. (Surah Najm 53:32) Self-praise is despised among humans because they have many more defects and deficiencies than points of praise.Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala is pure,the Holy one worthy of All praises.

So Allah praises himself to remind his creatures that they are weak and solely dependent of Him.

lanrexlan: Long time indeed.

Yeah

To you and your mentors with a closed heart,it's a problem.

It's not a problem for me BUT to you who see an obvious problem and trying to cover it.

[size=14pt]That's a miracle about the glorious Qu'ran[/size]

Imaging you call it MIRACLE whereas rhetorical language is always straight forward.

which the 7th century arabians couldn't even match.

Then I challenge you to provide JUST ONE LITERATURE that uses this unmatchable Quran but couldn't RATHER you called it MIRACLE...SMH!

I gave you a typical example of such shift with a well detailed and explained example.

NOTE nothing like grammatical shifting in the Bible RATHER each statement demonstrate THE PLURALITY of YAHWEH not a being like Allah that suppose to exist in SINGULARITY but always shift in Its statement.

Mind explaining this to me?
Exodus 3:2-3 -There the angel of the LORD appeared to him in flames of fire from within a bush.Moses saw that though the bush was on fire it did not burn up. So Moses thought, "I will go over and see this strange sight--why the bush does not burn up." When the LORD saw that he had gone over to look,God called to him from within the bush "Moses! Moses!" And Moses said, "Here I am."................. this,Moses hid his face, because he was afraid to look at God
In the beginning of the verse,the angel of God appeared to Moses then towards the end Moses was afraid to look at God.Is God's face and angel's face the same?

This is where your problem lies, Angel of the Lord that appeared here is another being within the TRINITY of YAHWEH you can do more research about this.

It's even good as you quote this verse from Bible now let's compare this verse with Quran to see the difference.

"When Moses said to his people 'I observe a fire, and will bring you news of it, or I will bring you a flaming brand, that haply you shall warm yourselves.' So, when he(Moses) came to it, he(Moses) was called: 'Blessed is he who is in the fire, and he who is about it. Glory be to God, the Lord of all Being! Moses, behold, it is I, God, the All-mighty, the All-wise. Cast down thy staff.' And when he saw it quivering like a serpent he turned about, retreating, and turned not back. 'Moses, fear not; surely the Envoys do not fear in My presence, save him who has done evil, then; after evil, has changed into good; All-forgiving am I, All-compassionate. Thrust thy hand in thy bosom and it will come forth white without evil-among nine signs to Pharaoh and his people; they are an ungodly people.' But when Our signs came to them visibly, they said, 'This is a manifest sorcery'; and they denied them, though their souls acknowledged them, wrongfully and out of pride. Behold, how was the end of the workers of corruption! S. 27:7-14

If you pay close attention to this conversation very well you can see the obvious grammatical shift;
Who called Moses? It's Allah!
But who speaks to Moses? A being outside the FIRE.

1) The translator inserted quotation mark to make it sure that the SPEAKER is referring to another person which SUPPOSED to be Allah
2) Then we can see when Allah supposes to start Its statement, the statement begins as if an outside was the one PRAISING the person inside the FIRE.
3) At the end we can see that the voice of an outsider PRAISING the one inside the FIRE finally identify him/her/itself to be Allah

BUT in case of that Genesis you quoted The Angel of the Lord simply IDENTIFY Himself as YAHWEH not shifting from one person to another AND NOTHING like PRAISES

Try and be a gentleman Emusan.

I am sir.

Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala is a living being He's Al-Hayyu the ever living and the pronoun you should use is not 'itself'.'Itself' is used for inanimate things.

Whereas the He you used was only using for a PERSON, is Allah a PERSON?

Try to show some courtesy.

I will.

To your question,I don't think it's your problem if Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala praises himself.He's the most High,worthy of all praises. To Him belong all praises.Allah praises Himself to remind His creatures that all praise belongs to Him alone.

Heehee...so it's befitting for a CREATOR to be PRAISING HIMSELF? SMH
Did you know that PRAISE is part of WORSHIP?
So if Allah is praising himself THAT means he is WORSHIPPING himself...
But people like you can quickly attack Christianity by asked who is Jesus praying to if He is God? you can see problem with Jesus' prayer that is, it's not befitting for Christ to pray if He is actually God BUT it befits Allah to PRAISE himself.

It is not permissible for a human being to praise themselves like this.Allah says --So ascribe not purity to yourselves. He knows best him who fears Allah and keep his duty to Him. (Surah Najm 53:32) Self-praise is despised among humans because they have many more defects and deficiencies than points of praise.Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala is pure,the Holy one worthy of All praises.

Of course you're right BUT only if you know that it's not befitting A Unitarian CREATOR to be WORSHIPPING himself.

So Allah praises himself to remind his creatures that they are weak and solely dependent of Him.

You agree that Allah is worshipping himself and it's good for a Unitarian creator to do so...that's good of you and your religion.

the WE in the quran is a very important aspect of the quran that needs to be understand well. many will call me kafari, or sinner or that blasphemy is what i'm doing.

when i was born, i knew who God is perfectly well, i see God everyday, and i will forever be happy that i see or hear God everyday, and GOD permitted me to love and worship this God for a while till i come of understanding. and so are all of us who are fortunate. who is this God?

that God is my mother. till i was 12 or 13 years old, that was my God regardless how father took me to church every sunday and i watched them prayed. anytime i felt wrong, scared, sad, or anything wrong, the only person i yelled for was muuuummyyy. so as you can all see, my God from the ages of 2 to 13 was a living person. "my mum". when and how did i fall into believing that GOD is a spirit? how did it happen that the one that i called God (mum) for 12 years, calls a spirit and her helper too calls on to a spirit. they went as low to later call Jesus and lower into calling papa and father. i never understood for many years nevertheless, i also called on spirit GOD. then i stopped, and started looking for GOD. then you will fail in all your responsibility as a man because you know deep down in your guts that spirit can't hurt you, atleast i didn't kill him. so i became a self acclaimed atheist in secret, but still question the existence of GOD. I went to all the churches, deeper life, catholics, anglican, MFM, winners, redeem, went to few mosques, went for hindu, tried buddism, the russian orthodox church, transpersonal psychology, smoked ganja. all of it all was a spirit GOD. everybody go tp their various religious worship places, but in the corner, they still do what they do in secret, why? they know deep down, spirit can't judge them.

what is that long story, boring story for?
it is to explain the fact that GOD really exist, He is a MAN like me and you. he eats, drinks, walks, studies, laughs, but HE is all knowing, THE SUPREME, THE CREATOR OF ALL. AND HE HAS HIS OWN NAME. BUT HIS ORIGINAL TITLE IS ALLAH.

How old is this planet (earth)? it is 76 trillion years from record. we can specifically say the time exactly but a handful few.
is GOD 76 trillion years old? no! but still ALLAH is ONE! ONE is a mathematical digit, and the most perfect number.

There is 24 hours in a day, the earth of 24,896 miles and diameter of 7926 miles completes a cycle in an axis in 24 hours, and the earth completes a cycle around the sun in 365 days, THE AXIS COMPLETES ITS CYCLE IN 25000 YEARS.

THE MUSLIMS, who are originally, and are still, are the blackman/blackmen. aboringines. african are aboringinals, originals. we write our history forward, not backwards as the other races.

in the beginning of every 25000 years, the scientists (the 24 elders in revelation of the bible), 12 major/upper, 12 minor/lower. 23 of them by means of supreme higher mathematics and sciences, can read into the future for 25,000 years. they don't miss, it is not magic, it is mathematics.
your/my speed of thought is 24 billion miles per second. those thoughts of yours move in time sir. they gather all of this thoughts, through mathematics, they work out, deduct and see the future, and then make what is called the SCRIPTURES! As you all can see that will be a quadrillion up quadrillion of files. ALLAH Who is the head of the 24, now has the scriptures to Himself alone will pick which he wants to happen or to be fulfilled. only ALLAH has that power to do so.

Now for the main point, This Supreme MAN can live up to a thousand years or a little more. infact all blackmen are made to live up to a thousand years if he lives right. so the next SUPREME MAN can't change what the ONE at the beginning of the 25000 years has marked to be fulfilled. it must be.

ALL THE SUPREME MAN ARE what we may term as "THE WE" OR THE 24 Scientists.

In these present cycle, we are at the 15,100 year. at the beginning of this cycle, The Scientists met a bright light at the 15,000 year, ONE who HIS POWER IS GREATER THAN ALL OF THE OTHER SUPREME MAN. THE END OF THE 15,000 YEAR IS THE END of the caucasian rule (devils).

ALLAH IS ONE. THE WISDOM, KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING OF ALLAH/GOD IS ONE.

Emusan: Yeah
It's not a problem for me BUT to you who see an obvious problem and trying to cover it.

To me it's not a problem,I perfectly understand the grammatical shifts,you are the one that has a problem copying Sam Shaoun's article.

Imaging you call it MIRACLE whereas rhetorical language is always straight forward.

What do you know about rhetoric devices in Arabic language? I am not talking about rhetorical questions here.

Then I challenge you to provide JUST ONE LITERATURE that uses this unmatchable Quran but couldn't RATHER you called it MIRACLE...SMH!

Then I challenge you to give me another person that parted the red sea apart from Moses(pbuh).Then I challenge you to give me another person that survive 3days and 3nights in the belly of the fish apart from Jonah(pbuh).To each Prophet belongs his own miracle and the grand miracle given to Muhammad(pbuh) is the glorious Qu'ran and the 7th century arabians couldn't even match the fluency and grammatical composition of the Qu'ran though they were the best at literature in that time.
Iltifāt(Grammatical Shift) has been called by rhetoricians shajā'at al- `arabiyya(The Audacity of Arabic) as it shows in their opinion,the daring nature of the Arabic language.If any 'daring' is to be attached to it,it should above all be the daring of the language of the Qur'ān since, for reasons that will be shown below, it employs this feature far more extensively and in more variations than does Arabic poetry. uses mainly Qur'ānic references in discussing iltifāt.No one seems to quote references in prose other than from the Qur'ān: and indeed a sampling of hadīth material found not a single instance.

NOTE nothing like grammatical shifting in the Bible RATHER each statement demonstrate THE PLURALITY of YAHWEH not a being like Allah that suppose to exist in SINGULARITY but always shift in Its statement.

Why would there be grammatical shifts in the bible when most of the words of the bible are words of men?

This is where your problem lies, Angel of the Lord that appeared here is another being within the TRINITY of YAHWEH you can do more research about this.

So there are now four in one.The Father,The Son,The Holyspirit and The Angel.That's beautiful!!!!.

It's even good as you quote this verse from Bible now let's compare this verse with Quran to see the difference.

The Qur'ān, it should be remembered,is not an autobiography of Allāh which thus has to be cast wholly in the form of 'I' and 'me';it serves as guidance for men and teaches them about stories of people that have passed in order to gain admonition from it.Let me give you another example.The Qu'ran says in Surah Al-Qiyamah 75:2 -No! I swear by the reproachful soul! What,does man reckon We shall not gather his bones? Yes indeed;We are able to shape again his fingers
The verse started with I swear(Singular) then shifts to We are able to shape again his fingers(Plural).So why this sudden change?

It is the singular that is fitting for 'I swear';the
sudden shift to the plural expresses,as it were,
multiplicity of power in answer to the pre-Islamic Arabs' incredulity at the idea of putting scattered bones together again at the resurrection.
The sudden shift recharges the concept of plural as a grammatical form with its full sense of majesty.

The Qur'ān uses the singular pronoun for God particularly in such contexts(like swear) as those expressing worship (O my slaves),prohibition of shirk and wrath;the use of the singular is clearly important in such contexts and when there is a sudden shift to the plural of majesty it sharpens the listener's sense of the contrast between the two grammatical forms,investing 'we' when it comes after 'I' with enhanced meaning.

If you pay close attention to this conversation very well you can see the obvious grammatical shift;
Who called Moses? It's Allah!
But who speaks to Moses? A being outside the FIRE.

You are the one having a problem.Moses(pbuh) was called by a voice from inside the burning flame,not a voice outside as you keep lamenting.Read gently

Surah An-Naml 27:7 -But when he came to it(the fire),he was called:"Blessed is whosoever is in the fire and whosoever is round about it! And glorified be Allah, the Lord of the 'Alamin (mankind,jinns and all that exists).So your point is that the being that talked to Moses(pbuh)[i.e Allah(swt)]must be outside for burning flame? Must the two persons(addressee and addresser) have a face to face contact before they can communicate? Can't voice be heard without seeing the person? Moses(pbuh) was called by Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala from inside the burning flame(It's a voice for goodness sake),it's not necessary for Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala to be the outside the flame before communication can take place.

1) The translator inserted quotation mark to make it sure that the SPEAKER is referring to another person which SUPPOSED to be Allah

2) Then we can see when Allah supposes to start Its statement, the statement begins as if an outside was the one PRAISING the person inside the FIRE.

I will ignore you if you can't show some respect,stop using 'itself' and use your brain.Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala is A LIVING BEING.'Itself' is used for inanimate objects.You are the only one seeing someone outside the fire apart from Moses(pbuh).Moses(pbuh) was called by a voice inside the burning flame.Is it a must the two beings communicating must be together? Can't there be communication without facial contacts? Use your brain please.

3) At the end we can see that the voice of an outsider PRAISING the one inside the FIRE finally identify him/her/itself to be Allah

You are the one encountering the problem.

But in case of that Genesis you quoted The Angel of the Lord simply IDENTIFY Himself as YAHWEH not shifting from one person to another AND NOTHING like PRAISES

Nowhere does the angel identify himself as God.The angel didn't say 'I am Yahweh',you are the one cooking that up.The verse says 'the angel appeared to Moses within the bush and afterwards what we heard was God's voice.You didn't answer the question.

I am sir.

You aren't.

Whereas the He you used was only using for a PERSON,is Allah a PERSON? I will.

Please,what type of thinking is this? Even 'she' is for countries,people will say 'Nigeria celebrated her 53rd independence'. Is Nigeria a female? Why using 'her' for Nigeria then?

Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala has no gender and we can't use 'it' for Allah because Allah is a living being.The only pronoun we can use is 'he' since 'he' is closer but that doesn't signify Allah is a male.

Heehee...so it's befitting for a CREATOR to be PRAISING HIMSELF? SMH
Did you know that PRAISE is part of WORSHIP?
So if Allah is praising himself THAT means he is WORSHIPPING himself...
But people like you can quickly attack Christianity by asked who is Jesus praying to if He is God? you can see problem with Jesus' prayer that is, it's not befitting for Christ to pray if He is actually God BUT it befits Allah to PRAISE himself.

One reason I don't like engaging you in a dialogue.You never keep track of what you write,praise and worship aren't the same.Praise may be part of worship but they are never the same.Praise and prayer are never the same.

In Arabic there are many words that can be used for praise such as Hamd,Madh and Shukr.Hamd is a type of praise due to the qualities that the one being praised,possesses.

Shukr on the other hand means gratitude – giving thanks or showing thanks.You thank a person for the good they have and shown towards you.
We can have:
1)Shukr by heart; the internal recognition that that
blessing is from Allah and knowing that it has been
given by the grace of Allah and not by the servants
own merit.
2) Shukr by the tongue;praising the Bestower of
blessings,Allah.
3) Shukr by the limbs;by using that blessing in a
way that is pleasing to the one that has bestowed
you with that good.

So when Allah says 'All praises be to Allah' it's Hamd,a praise for perfection and qualities which none can possesses except Allah.It's not showing appreciation or gratitude(Shukr),get that straight into your head.

'Jesus' was praying to the unseen,not praising.Was Allah Subhanahu wa Ta'ala praying for himself? SubhanAllah!!!! Stop the conjectures Emusan.

Of course you're right BUT only if you know that it's not befitting A Unitarian CREATOR to be WORSHIPPING himself.

You are the one that have grammatical problems.Read post and digest before launching.

You agree that Allah is worshipping himself and it's good for a Unitarian creator to do so...that's good of you and your religion.

Why are you fond of telling lies? I never mentioned worship in my post,you did and you also concluded I agreed which is false.You brought forth your argument whether praise and worship connotes the same thing,I never mentioned anything yet and you jumped into conclusion accusing me that I agreed without even saying a word.This is not the first time of you doing that,that's very bad of you.

lanrexlan: To me it's not a problem,I perfectly understand the grammatical shifts,

That's is ignorant because pronoun shift remains grammatical error forever and I believe you know this but you only accept it just because it appeared in Quran.

you are the one that has a problem copying Sam Shaoun's article.

Now copying Sam is a problem, no wonder Muslims want his life terminated the way they are after Ali Sina's life.

What do you know about rhetoric devices in Arabic language? I am not talking about rhetorical questions here.

Nothing like rhetorical devices in Arabic language. Rhetorical devices is a method well known generally but the Arabians can only deceive people like you that Arabic has its own rhetorical devices.

Then I challenge you to give me another person that parted the red sea apart from Moses(pbuh).Then I challenge you to give me another person that survive 3days and 3nights in the belly of the fish apart from Jonah(pbuh).

You're attacking a straw man here!
So without facing a trouble at red sea, God should just parted red sea again
God performs miracle through people when ordinary human power can't provide solution to the problem at hand.
Joshua parted river Jordan, Elisha parted river Jordan, Lazarus come out alive after four days in dead, Jesus resurrected after the third day.
That's why you confused miracle with ordinary communication and people like you can swallow this obvious grammatical error as a miracle.

To each Prophet belongs his own miracle and the grand miracle given to Muhammad(pbuh) is the glorious Qu'ran and the 7th century arabians couldn't even match the fluency and grammatical composition of the Qu'ran though they were the best at literature in that time.

Remember in every MIRACLE ever performed by God through human, no human knowledge can comprehend or give full detail of it because the day man can be able to give detail analysis of MRACLE it's no more a MIRACLE simply because MIRACLE is a wonderful event occurring in the PHYSICAL world attributed to SUPERNATURAL powers...which means NO human knowledge can explain it...BUT what we see Arabians doing today is that they tell us that Quran is a miracle given to Muhammad and they go ahead to explain how this MIRACLE performed by Allah can be fully understood.

The next thing you will do now is to consult Arabic dictionary to give us another meaning of MIRACLE.

Iltifāt(Grammatical Shift) has been called by [size=14pt]rhetoricians shajā'at al- `arabiyya(The Audacity of Arabic) as it shows in their opinion, the daring nature of the Arabic language.[/size] If any 'daring' is to be attached to it,it should above all be the daring of the language of the Qur'ān since, for reasons that will be shown below, it employs this feature far more extensively and in more variations than does Arabic poetry. uses mainly Qur'ānic references in discussing iltifāt.No one seems to quote references in prose other than from the Qur'ān: and indeed a sampling of hadīth material found not a single instance.

@first Bold-You can see the point I'm emphasising on as well details @underline statement. This people only try to cover Allah's weak knowledge which is not as it's generally accepted BUT THEY ONLY GIVE their own OPINION by bring what only themselves agreed with.
@second Bold-'No one seems...' Which means people are doing it BUT it might not up to the way Quran used it. Then what make it a MIRACLE? Since people are doing it without supernatural powers.
Lastly, most ancient and latest writer use prose in their work which also appeared in Quran BUT NONE uses GRAMMATICAL SHIFT because it's a pure grammatical error.

Why would there be grammatical shifts in the bible when most of the words of the bible are words of men?

At least it's only MOST that are words of men, the remaining ones that are God's words why this grammatical shift didn't appear after all Muhammad claimed that THE SAME God who gave the previous REVELATION is the one who gave his own so at least we suppose to see a little evidence of this GRAMMATICAL SHIFT in the previous revelation.

So there are now four in one.The Father,The Son,The Holyspirit and The Angel.That's beautiful!!!!.

If the word 'ANOTHER' in my post confused you at least the word 'TRINITY' supposed to correct you. can TRINITY refer to four persons?

The Qur'ān, it should be remembered,is not an autobiography of Allāh which thus has to be cast wholly in the form of 'I' and 'me';

Another excuse; the point is who did Allah refer to when Allah shift to third person is what is in question here?

it serves as guidance for men and teaches them about stories of people that have passed in order to gain admonition from it.

Does Bible not serve as a guidance too?

Let me give you another example.The Qu'ran says in Surah Al-Qiyamah 75:2 -No! I swear by the reproachful soul! What,does man reckon We shall not gather his bones? Yes indeed;We are able to shape again his fingers
The verse started with I swear(Singular) then shifts to We are able to shape again his fingers(Plural).So why this sudden change?
It is the singular that is fitting for 'I swear';the
sudden shift to the plural expresses,as it were,
multiplicity of power in answer to the pre-Islamic Arabs' incredulity at the idea of putting scattered bones together again at the resurrection.
The sudden shift recharges the concept of plural as a grammatical form with its full sense of majesty.
The Qur'ān uses the singular pronoun for God particularly in such contexts(like swear) as those expressing worship (O my slaves),prohibition of shirk and wrath;the use of the singular is clearly important in such contexts and when there is a sudden shift to the plural of majesty it sharpens the listener's sense of the contrast between the two grammatical forms,investing 'we' when it comes after 'I' with enhanced meaning.

I'll answer this separate but remember you've agreed that Allah did SWEAR.

You are the one having a problem.Moses(pbuh) was called by a voice from inside the burning flame,not a voice outside as you keep lamenting.Read gently

I do read gently but it's you who didn't. My statement was 'AS IF' check again.
You said inside but see how the verse put it.

Surah An-Naml 27:7 -But when he came to it(the fire),he was called:"Blessed is whosoever is in the fire and whosoever is round about it! And glorified be Allah, the Lord of the 'Alamin (mankind,jinns and all that exists).

So you can see the underlined words 'WHOSEVER' this sounds as if an outsider PRAISING THE PERSON INSIDE THE fire.

So your point is that the being that talked to Moses(pbuh)[i.e Allah(swt)]must be outside for burning flame?

You didn't understand my point, I repeat THE VOICE SOUNDS as an outsider praising the ONE INSIDE the fire.

Must the two persons(addressee and addresser) have a face to face contact before they can communicate?

Read very well before you comment.

Can't voice be heard without seeing the person?

The voice here sounds like THE PERSON is outside the FIRE whereas Allah supposed to be INSIDE the FIRE.

Moses(pbuh) was called by Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala [size=14pt]from inside the burning flame(It's a voice for goodness sake),[/size] it's not necessary for Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala to be the outside the flame before communication can take place.

The point you're missing here is that you fail to notice the vocal differences in this communication.
"Blessed is he that in the fire" or another translation "Blessed is whosoever inside the fire". This is a statement of an outsider referring to the one INSIDE the fire.

I will ignore you if you can't show some respect,stop using 'itself' and use your brain.Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala is A LIVING BEING.'Itself' is used for inanimate objects.

I put more emphasis on this to correct the notion of people like you who always claim that the prediction of Holyspirit in the book of John can't be referring to the Holyspirit because John uses HE for the Spirit whereas John supposed to use 'It'.

You are the only one seeing someone outside the fire apart from Moses(pbuh).
Moses(pbuh) was called by a voice inside the burning flame.Is it a must the two beings communicating must be together? Can't there be communication without facial contacts? Use your brain please.

Nobody is talking about facial contact here BUT changing in VOCAL communication when the voice sounds like an OUTSIDER speaking.

You are the one encountering the problem.

I'm not.

Nowhere does the angel identify himself as God. [size=14pt]The angel didn't say 'I am Yahweh',[/size] you are the one cooking that up.The verse says 'the angel appeared to Moses within the bush and afterwards what we heard was God's voice.You didn't answer the question.

Let's see who is adding up here. I'll highlight the relevant part.
2 And the angel of Jehovah appeared unto him in a flame of fire out of the midst of a bush: and he looked, and, behold, the bush burned with fire, and the bush was not consumed.
3 And Moses said, I will turn aside now, and see this great sight, why the bush is not burnt.
4 And when Jehovah saw that he turned aside to see, God called unto him out of the midst of the bush, and said, Moses, Moses. And he said, Here am I.
5 And he said, Draw not nigh hither: put off thy shoes from off thy feet, for the place whereon thou standest is holy ground.
6 Moreover he said, I am the God of thy father, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob.[/u] And Moses hid his face; for he was afraid to look upon God.

These verses are self explanatory.
NOTE: The Angel appeared OUT OF THE MIDST OF THE BUSH in verse 2 and GOD ALSO CALLED him OUT OF THE MIDST OF THE BUSH unless you want to tell us that two persons appeared to Moses.

Please,what type of thinking is this? Even 'she' is for countries,people will say 'Nigeria celebrated her 53rd independence'. Is Nigeria a female? Why using 'her' for Nigeria then?
Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala has no gender and we can't use 'it' for Allah because Allah is a living being.The only pronoun we can use is 'he' since 'he' is closer but that doesn't signify Allah is a male.

I'm not talking about GENDER here.
Moreover, whenever she/her is being used for inanimate object it means those objects have been PERSONIFIED as a female or FEMINE.

One reason I don't like engaging you in a dialogue.You never keep track of what you write,

Let's see whether I keep track or you're the one who confused.

praise and worship aren't the same.

Did I say they are the same? show me.

Praise may be part of worship but they are never the same.Praise and prayer are never the same.

It's not MAY BE praise is part of worship this is my first statement.
Who says prayer and praise are the same?

In Arabic there are many words that can be used for praise such as Hamd,Madh and Shukr. Hamd is a type of praise due to the qualities that the [size=14pt]one being praised,[/size] possesses.

The funny part is that you didn't even understand what you're saying yourself.
The definition you gave says "...ONE BEING PRAISED..." Which means the person who's giving the praise is ACTUALLY praising ANOTHER PERSON.

Shukr on the other hand means gratitude – giving thanks or showing thanks. You thank a person for the good they have and shown towards you.
We can have:
1)Shukr by heart; the internal recognition that that
blessing is from Allah and knowing that it has been
given by the grace of Allah and not by the servants
own merit.
2) Shukr by the tongue;praising the Bestower of
blessings,Allah.
3) Shukr by the limbs;by using that blessing in a
way that is pleasing to the one that has bestowed
you with that good.

Does this solve the problem? Let's see!

So when Allah says 'All praises be to Allah'

So Allah says to Allah

it's Hamd,a praise for perfection and qualities which none can possesses except Allah.It's not showing appreciation or gratitude(Shukr),get that straight into your head.

But the hamd never refers to the same person rather than ANOTHER PERSON being praised.
So who is Allah praising according to HAMD definition?

'Jesus' was praying to the unseen, not praising.

It also means that Allah is praising to unseen.

Was Allah Subhanahu wa Ta'ala praying for himself?

Quran said so.

SubhanAllah!!!! Stop the conjectures Emusan.

Stop confusing yourself sir.

You are the one that have grammatical problems.Read post and digest before launching.

I resemble Allah nah.

Why are you fond of telling lies? I never mentioned worship in my post,

But you agree that Praise may be part of worship.

you did and you also concluded I agreed which is false.

Was my claim wrong?

You brought forth your argument whether praise and worship connotes the same thing,

See how an educated person misread statement, did I say praise and worship mean the same thing?
I repeat PRAISE IS PART OF WORSHIP if this is different from my previous point show me here now and let's see who lack comprehension.

I never mentioned anything yet and you jumped into conclusion accusing me that I agreed without even saying a word.This is not the first time of you doing that,that's very bad of you.

You agreed that Allah did praise himself and praise is part of worship which you try to justify by bringing different meaning of praise in Arabic which it doesn't even favour you.
So what did I do wrong?

lanrexlan: Let me give you another example.The Qu'ran says in Surah Al-Qiyamah 75:2 -No! I swear by the reproachful soul! What,does man reckon We shall not gather his bones? Yes indeed;We are able to shape again his fingers
The verse started with I swear(Singular) then shifts to We are able to shape again his fingers(Plural).So why this sudden change?
It is the singular that is fitting for 'I swear';the
sudden shift to the plural expresses,as it were,
multiplicity of power in answer to the pre-Islamic Arabs' incredulity at the idea of putting scattered bones together again at the resurrection.
The sudden shift recharges the concept of plural as a grammatical form with its full sense of majesty.
The Qur'ān uses the singular pronoun for God particularly in such contexts(like swear) as those expressing worship (O my slaves),prohibition of shirk and wrath;the use of the singular is clearly important in such contexts and when there is a sudden shift to the plural of majesty it sharpens the listener's sense of the contrast between the two grammatical forms,investing 'we' when it comes after 'I' with enhanced meaning.

Back to Allah swear.

Before I proceed any further I'll like to address the issue of why people swear at all, why do persons swear by appealing to God?
The purpose for swearing by God, or in God’s name, is to call him as our witness and the judge of our honesty and sincerity in what we are saying.

The implication is that if I am lying, or if I am not keeping my word, then God may hold me accountable and punish me. I.e. this is attributing superhuman knowledge (knowing my thoughts and heart) and power (to punish) to the one I'm swearing by.

Thus, properly speaking only Deity can actually be appealed to for the guarantee of my intentions and thoughts.

Therefore it is blatant idolatry, or to introduce a different term, deification, to use the name of anything else besides God in swearing.

The questions that need a thoughtful respond are;
1) Does God need to swear?
2) If God can actually swear, what does it need to swear with?
3) Can God swear with what He Himself created?
4) Is it reasonable for God to be swearing by inanimate objects that can't hold Him account for His action?

If we can able to provide an accurate answer to these questions then our understanding about God will be right.

Comparisons between YAHWEH and ALLAH in taking OATH

YAHWEH:
"and said, ‘By Myself I have sworn, declares the LORD, because you have done this thing and have not withheld your son, your only son,’" Genesis 22:16

"I have sworn by Myself; the word has gone out of My mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, that to Me every knee shall bow…" Isaiah 45:23

"The LORD has sworn by His right hand and by His strong arm, ‘I will never again give your grain as food for your enemies; Nor will foreigners drink your new wine for which you have labored.’" Isaiah 62:8

"I swear by Myself, says the LORD." Jeremiah 22:5

"But hear the word of the LORD, all Jews living in Egypt: ‘I swear by my great name,’ says the LORD, ‘that no one from Judah living anywhere in Egypt will ever again invoke my name or swear, "As surely as the Sovereign LORD lives."’" Jeremiah 44:26

In all these verses YAHWEH never swear by anything other outside Himself. This next one solidify everything;

"For when God made a promise to Abraham, because He could swear by no one greater, He swore by Himself." Hebrews 6:13

No where YAHWEH ever swear with an inanimate objects or anything He created and He also urged everybody not to swear by anything outside Himself because it's only Him who can bear us witness to whatever we do.

ALLAH:
Even though Allah didn't permit anyone to swear with anything other than himself BUT Allah failed to yield his own instruction.

Narrated 'Umar:
The Prophet said, "If anybody has to take an oath, he should swear ONLY by Allah." The people of Quraish used to swear by their fathers, but the Prophet said, "Do not swear by your fathers." (Sahih Al-Bukhari, Volume 5, Book 58, Number 177)

Narrated Ibn 'Umar:
Allah's Apostle met 'Umar bin Al-Khattab while the latter was going with a group of camel-riders, and he was swearing by his father. The Prophet said, "Lo! Allah forbids you to swear by your fathers, so whoever has to take an oath, he should swear by Allah or keep quiet." (Sahih Al-Bukhari, Volume 8, Book 78, Number 641-Bold & underline mine)

This instruction is well also in line with Biblical instruction in taking oath but did Allah follow his own instruction?

And I swear by thy Lord, we will surely gather together them and the Satans: then will we set them on their knees round Hell: S. 19:68 Rodwell

"[Abraham supposedly says] I swear by GOD, I have a plan to deal with your statues, as soon as you leave." S. 21:57 Khalifa

u]By the Lord then of the heaven and of the earth,[/u] I swear that this is the truth, even as ye speak yourselves. S. 51:23 Rodwell

But nay! I swear by the Lord of the Easts and the Wests that We are certainly able S. 70:40

We can see Abraham following the instruction of Allah but who is the Lord that Allah sworn by?

Here are few verses where Allah sworn with what he supposed to create and inanimate objects.

I swear by the Book that makes manifest (the truth). S. 44:2

Qaf. I swear by the glorious Quran (that Muhammad is the Apostle of Allah) S. 50:1

I swear by the wind that scatters far and wide, S. 51:1

I swear by the heaven full of ways. S. 51:7

I swear by the Mountain, S. 52:1

I swear by the star when it goes down. S. 53:1

But nay! I swear by the falling of stars; S. 56:75

Noon. I swear by the pen and what the angels write, S. 68:1

But nay! I swear by that which you see, S. 69:38

You may want to argue that Muhammad is one who actually repeating all this as being told by Allah then that means Muhammad contradicts himself or Allah deceived Muhammad by saying no one should swear with anything other than Allah.

To swear or not to swear, that is the question –
A Translation Problem in the Quran

In other to avoid this problem some English translations contradict themselves
Here is one example

Sura 56:75
Nay, I swear by the places of the stars – Pickthall

Furthermore I call to witness the setting of the Stars, - Y. Ali

But nay! I swear by the falling of stars; Shakir

Nay, I cite as proof the shooting of the stars – Sher Ali

NAY, I call to witness the coming-down in parts [of this Quran] Muhammad Asad

I do not need to swear by the setting of the stars Muhammad Sarwar

I swear by the positions of the stars. Khalifa

No! I swear by the fallings of the stars Arberry

I swear by the shelter of the stars N.J. Dawood

So I will not swear by the positions of the stars; Palmer

It needs not that I swear by the setting of the stars, Rodwell

Moreover I swear by the setting of the stars; Sale

Rodwell, Palmer, and sarwar contradict the rest.

Emusan:

That's is ignorant because pronoun shift remains grammatical error forever and I believe you know this but you only accept it just because it appeared in Quran.

To you,your belief about me is wrong.I don't regard it as an error,it's you and your mentors that do.

Now copying Sam is a problem, no wonder Muslims want his life terminated the way they are after Ali Sina's life.

Pure lies,your mentors are running away from an open debate.All what they can do is to type their rubbish online.Ali Sina wants 'an online debate' with Dr. Zakir Naik,Imagine that, afraid of defeat,he knew he can easily manipulate his ways online,which is impossible in open debate because reasonable audience are present.There are just crooks who just post garbage online for peers like you.They are living ghosts.

Nothing like rhetorical devices in Arabic language. Rhetorical devices is a method well known generally but the Arabians can only deceive people like you that Arabic has its own rhetorical devices.

Shut it for once brother,one thing I hate is when people try to claim knowledge on a particular topic whereas they have no knowledge in that topic.What did you about Balagha in arabic? Stop displaying your ignorance,you have no knowledge whatsoever about arabic as a language.

You're attacking a straw man here!
So without facing a trouble at red sea, God should just parted red sea again
God performs miracle through people when ordinary human power can't provide solution to the problem at hand.
Joshua parted river Jordan, Elisha parted river Jordan,

Thanks for saying that.

Lazarus come out alive after four days in dead, Jesus resurrected after the third day.

Both were dead before being brought back to life,Jonah(pbuh) was alive in the belly of whale for 3days and 3nights.It's survival and not revival as the cases you mentioned.

That's why you confused miracle with ordinary communication and people like you can swallow this obvious grammatical error as a miracle.

To you it's ordinary communication and grammatical error.But to muslims,there's nothing confusing about it.

Remember in every MIRACLE ever performed by God through human,no human knowledge can comprehend or give full detail of it because the day man can be able to give detail analysis of MRACLE it's no more a MIRACLE simply because MIRACLE is a wonderful event occurring in the PHYSICAL world attributed to SUPERNATURAL powers...which means NO human knowledge can explain it...BUT what we see Arabians doing today is that they tell us that Quran is a miracle given to Muhammad and they go ahead to explain how this MIRACLE performed by Allah can be fully understood.

The next thing you will do now is to consult Arabic dictionary to give us another meaning of MIRACLE.

It's a miracle because the arabs till now failed to produce a recitation like the Qu'ran.During the time of the Prophet(pbuh),the Arabs were at their peak of their literature and yet never met the challenge of the Qu'ran which was to produce a single verse like that of the Qu'ran.Your christian brothers few years back produce some junks in English which was no way near the Qu'ran.That makes it a miracle since nobody till now can produce a recitation like it.

@first Bold-You can see the point I'm emphasising on as well details @underline statement. This people only try to cover Allah's weak knowledge which is not as it's generally accepted BUT THEY ONLY GIVE their own OPINION by bring what only themselves agreed with.

I think it will be good to use your brain,I never throw insults on personalities whom you held in high esteem.If you can't show respect regarding Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala,then I have no choice than to unfollow your thread.Will soon unfollow.

@second Bold-'No one seems...' Which means people are doing it BUT it might not up to the way Quran used it. Then what make it a MIRACLE? Since people are doing it without supernatural powers.
Lastly,most ancient and latest writer use prose in their work which also appeared in Quran BUT NONE uses GRAMMATICAL SHIFT because it's a pure grammatical error

You keep contradicting yourself.You said grammatical shift is pure grammatical error and at the same time people are doing what you claimed to be error though it may not the way Qu'ran uses it.


I don't know where I said people are doing it,what I simply said was that No one seems to quote references to support Itlifat except from the Qu'ran,not even a single reference from Hadith.That's to say,only the Qu'ran serves as a reference book for Itlifat and that makes it unique.Is it hard to comprehend?

At least it's only MOST that are words of men, the remaining ones that are God's words why this grammatical shift didn't appear after all Muhammad claimed that THE SAME God who gave the previous REVELATION is the one who gave his own so at least we suppose to see a little evidence of this GRAMMATICAL SHIFT in the previous revelation.

What's this one saying? Is Bible Injeel or Taurah? I don't have time for flogging dead horse anymore.

If the word 'ANOTHER' in my post confused you at least the word 'TRINITY' supposed to correct you. can TRINITY refer to four persons?

Asking me? Ask yourself.

Another excuse; the point is who did Allah refer to when Allah shift to third person is what is in question here?

Himself,Exalted and Glorified.The shift signifies two things:the principle of tawhīd(Oneness of Allah) and the multiplicity of viewpoints observed in Arabic.Here is an example in which Allah Subhanahu wa Ta'ala is being referred to as Allāh or rabb,a shift from first person(We) to third person and this emphasizes on tawhīd and shows multiplicity of viewpoints.The Qu'ran says Eat of the good things wherewith We have provided you and render thanks to Allāh if it is He whom you worship'(2:172)So it signifies that only Allah Subhanahu wa Ta'ala provides the different types of good things for mankind,he's the provider which has the power of providing for his slaves.Then continue to say 'Give thanks to Allah',which signifies that all forms of praises and adorations should directed to Allah[Part of Tawhid(oneness of Allah)].

Does Bible not serve as a guidance too?

Google that,don't ask me.

I'll answer this separate but remember you've agreed that Allah did SWEAR.

It will be good if you truly understand before copying and pasting.

I do read gently but it's you who didn't. My statement was 'AS IF' check again.
You said inside but see how the verse put it.
So you can see the underlined words 'WHOSEVER' this sounds as if an outsider PRAISING THE PERSON INSIDE THE fire.
You didn't understand my point, I repeat THE VOICE SOUNDS as an outsider praising the ONE INSIDE the fire.
Read very well before you comment.
The voice here sounds like THE PERSON is outside the FIRE whereas Allah supposed to be INSIDE the FIRE.

Your problem,If with those explanations you failed to comprehend then there's nothing I can do.I am sorry bro.

The point you're missing here is that you fail to notice the vocal differences in this communication.
"Blessed is he that in the fire" or another translation "Blessed is whosoever inside the fire". This is a statement of an outsider referring to the one INSIDE the fire.

Thrashed.

I put more emphasis on this to correct the notion of people like you who always claim that the prediction of Holyspirit in the book of John can't be referring to the Holyspirit because John uses HE for the Spirit whereas John supposed to use 'It'.

Stop using rubbish in explaining anything here.'It' is used for non-living,inanimate objects,animals or plants.You keep using 'it' for Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala which ought not to be so and I corrected you and you keep spewing trash saying the prediction in John used 'He' or whatever.

Nobody is talking about facial contact here BUT changing in VOCAL communication when the voice sounds like an OUTSIDER speaking.

To you.

I'm not.
Let's see who is adding up here. I'll highlight the relevant part.
2 And the angel of Jehovah appeared unto him in a flame of fire out of the midst of a bush: and he looked, and, behold, the bush burned with fire, and the bush was not consumed.
3 And Moses said, I will turn aside now, and see this great sight, why the bush is not burnt.
4 And when Jehovah saw that he turned aside to see, God called unto him out of the midst of the bush, and said, Moses, Moses. And he said, Here am I.
5 And he said, Draw not nigh hither: put off thy shoes from off thy feet, for the place whereon thou standest is holy ground.
6 Moreover he said, I am the God of thy father, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob.[/u] And Moses hid his face; for he was afraid to look upon God

These verses are self explanatory.
NOTE: The Angel appeared OUT OF THE MIDST OF THE BUSH in verse 2 and GOD ALSO CALLED him OUT OF THE MIDST OF THE BUSH unless you want to tell us that two persons appeared to Moses.

You keep dodging the question,I never talked about God's voice the angel can appeared to Moses(pbuh) and Moses(pbuh) can hear God's voice it's possible(cos it's a voice),but the angel of the Lord appeared to Moses(pbuh) in the beginning and towards the end Moses(pbuh) was afraid to look at God's face,Is God's face and angel's face the same? That's the question.

Let's see whether I keep track or you're the one who confused.
Did I say they are the same? show me.
It's not MAY BE praise is part of worship this is my first statement.

Ok

Who says prayer and praise are the same?

Emusan: So if Allah is praising himself THAT means he is WORSHIPPING himself... But people like you can quickly attack Christianity by asked who is Jesus praying to if He is God? you can see problem with Jesus' prayer that is, it's not befitting for Christ to pray if He is actually God BUT it befits Allah to PRAISE himself

Deduce from your post yourself.You haven't heard about deductive reasoning?

The funny part is that you didn't even understand what you're saying yourself.
The definition you gave says "...ONE BEING PRAISED..." Which means the person who's giving the praise is ACTUALLY praising ANOTHER PERSON.
Does this solve the problem? Let's see!
So Allah says to Allah
But the hamd never refers to the same person rather than ANOTHER PERSON being praised.
So who is Allah praising according to HAMD definition?

Let me explain what you don't understand to you.The same word is being used for Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala and humans but means entirely different thing.For example,Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala says he sends Salat on the Prophet(pbuh) and Salat has been enjoined on humans by Allah.Does that means Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala also prays like humans pray(bowing,prostating etc) for the Prophet(pbuh)? NO,SubhanAllah!!!!!!! Allah says in Surah Al-Anam 6:12 Say:To whom belongs all that is in the heaven and the earth? Say:To Allah,He has indeed prescribed mercy for himself..................So does it means Allah will show mercy to himself? SubhanAllah!!!! It simply means Allah will show mercy to his creatures,the same way meaning that whenever Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala says 'All praises be to Allah' it means Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala is instructing mankind

It also means that Allah is praising to unseen.
Quran said so.
Stop confusing yourself sir.
I resemble Allah nah.

You are not making any atom of sense mister.

But you agree that Praise may be part of worship.
Was my claim wrong?
See how an educated person misread statement, did I say praise and worship mean the same thing?
I repeat PRAISE IS PART OF WORSHIP if this is different from my previous point show me here now and let's see who lack comprehension.
You agreed that Allah did praise himself and praise is part of worship which you try to justify by bringing different meaning of praise in Arabic which it doesn't even favour you.
So what did I do wrong?

Stop lying,I haven't mentioned worship before in my first post here.You initially accused me of agreeing that praise is part of worship which I never did in my first post.

Emusan: Back to Allah swear.
Before I proceed any further I'll like to address the issue of why people swear at all,why do persons swear by appealing to God?
The purpose for swearing by God, or in God’s name,is to call him as our witness and the judge of our honesty and sincerity in what we are saying.
The implication is that if I am lying, or if I am not keeping my word, then God may hold me accountable and punish me. I.e. this is attributing superhuman knowledge (knowing my thoughts and heart) and power (to punish) to the one I'm swearing by.
Thus, properly speaking only Deity can actually be appealed to for the guarantee of my intentions and thoughts.
Therefore it is blatant idolatry, or to introduce a different term, deification, to use the name of anything else besides God in swearing.

As beautifully put your explanation is,it applied to humans as you rightly opined.As I explained to you the other time that the same word can be used for humans and Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala but doesn't basically mean the same thing.
Worship of other than Allah is prohibited,swearing an oath on other than Allah bears the same ruling. Due to the common thread between the two,the Prophet(pbuh) unified associating partners to Allah and swearing a false oath in a single sentence.
Imam Bukhari reports on the authority of Abdullah ibn Amr’ that the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) said, “Major sins include associating partners to Allah,disobeying ones parents and the swearing of false oaths.”

The oath by Allah is only for emphasis,attention and approval.Oath brings emphasis to the matter but oath itself is not the point of emphasis.
For example when Allah says in the Qur’an says By the time Indeed, mankind is in loss. Except for those who have believed and done righteous deeds and advised each other to truth and advised each other to patience
The emphasis is on the loss of mankind and the ways to counter that loss instead of “the time”.

Furthermore,in
the Qur’an after oaths are made evidences are presented and signs are mentioned.

The Qu'ran again says:By the dawn.And (by) ten nights.And (by) the even (number) and the odd.And (by) the night when it passes.Is there (not) in (all) that an oath (sufficient) for one of perception?[Surah Al-Fajr 89:1-5]

The questions that need a thoughtful respond are;
1) Does God need to swear?

Yes,The starting of a sentence with an oath attracts the attention of the listenerThe listener becomes attentive that something important is going to be mentioned.

2) If God can actually swear,what does it need to swear with?

Anything of his creatures he feels,to Him belongs His Dominion.

3) Can God swear with what He Himself created?

Why not? Allah is summoning these creations to
witness what is about to be said.The sole purpose
is to show mankind the submission and
humbleness of these creations far greater than them,so
what stops them from submitting? These creations readily stand witness and accept the words of
Allah.(Kashful Baari 2/515)

Abul Qasim said,“The taking of oath on any entity
is primarily due to two reasons:either its virtue or
its benefit.” For example,Allah takes an oath upon
Mount Sinai,this is solely dues its virtue and merit.
Whereas the oath on the fig and olive is principally
due to the immense benefit it extends.Brother Tbaba1234 did a very good job in explaining the Tafsir of Surah At-Tin which contains oaths here.
www.nairaland.com/972776/amazing-quran-season-1

4) Is it reasonable for God to be swearing by inanimate objects that can't hold Him account for His action?
If we can able to provide an accurate answer to these questions then our understanding about God will be right

According to Imam Ibn al-Qayyim,oaths taken by Allah have only one base and that is the ‘attributes of Allah’. When Allah takes the oath of ‘the star when it descends’ or of ‘Al-Tariq (the Knocker)’ or any other creation of His,the base behind them is the greatness of Allah.

Therefore it is evident that when Allah takes an oath of something,He does so of His own greatness and not of the created thing.
Similarly,when Allah takes an oath of the sun or the moon,for example He mentions them as His signs in the Qur’an:
Indeed, in the creation of the heavens and the earth and the alternation of the night and the day are signs for those of understanding[Qur’an 3:190].

By the sun and its brightness.And [by] the moon when it follows it[Qur’an 91:1-2]

. … He wrapped the night over the day that follows it quickly.The sun, the moon and the stars have all been tamed by His command… [Qur’an 7:54].


Allah mentions some of His created things as evidence of His existence and of monotheism and asks the readers of the Qur’an to ponder over these signs from Him. Then, when Allah takes an oath of these created things, He is simply taking an oath of Himself,His qualities, and His greatness.


These signs of Allah confirm the Oneness of Allah as Allah states in the Qur’an in [color=#000099]Surah Al-Anbiyaa 21:22-- Had there been within the heavens and earth gods besides Allah, they both would have been ruined. So exalted is Allah, Lord of the Throne, above what they describe.

Sale Rodwell, Palmer, and sarwar contradict the rest.

They are translations and translations depend on the understanding of the language.So far,you can't show us where the arabic text contradicts,then you can't be taken seriously.

Emusan:

Back to Allah swear.

Before I proceed any further I'll like to address the issue of why people swear at all, why do persons swear by appealing to God?
The purpose for swearing by God, or in God’s name, is to call him as our witness and the judge of our honesty and sincerity in what we are saying.

The implication is that if I am lying, or if I am not keeping my word, then God may hold me accountable and punish me. I.e. this is attributing superhuman knowledge (knowing my thoughts and heart) and power (to punish) to the one I'm swearing by.

Thus, properly speaking only Deity can actually be appealed to for the guarantee of my intentions and thoughts.

Therefore it is blatant idolatry, or to introduce a different term, deification, to use the name of anything else besides God in swearing.

The questions that need a thoughtful respond are;
1) Does God need to swear?
2) If God can actually swear, what does it need to swear with?
3) Can God swear with what He Himself created?
4) Is it reasonable for God to be swearing by inanimate objects that can't hold Him account for His action?

If we can able to provide an accurate answer to these questions then our understanding about God will be right.

Comparisons between YAHWEH and ALLAH in taking OATH

YAHWEH:
"and said, ‘By Myself I have sworn, declares the LORD, because you have done this thing and have not withheld your son, your only son,’" Genesis 22:16

"I have sworn by Myself; the word has gone out of My mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, that to Me every knee shall bow…" Isaiah 45:23

"The LORD has sworn by His right hand and by His strong arm, ‘I will never again give your grain as food for your enemies; Nor will foreigners drink your new wine for which you have labored.’" Isaiah 62:8

"I swear by Myself, says the LORD." Jeremiah 22:5

"But hear the word of the LORD, all Jews living in Egypt: ‘I swear by my great name,’ says the LORD, ‘that no one from Judah living anywhere in Egypt will ever again invoke my name or swear, "As surely as the Sovereign LORD lives."’" Jeremiah 44:26

In all these verses YAHWEH never swear by anything other outside Himself. This next one solidify everything;

"For when God made a promise to Abraham, because He could swear by no one greater, He swore by Himself." Hebrews 6:13

No where YAHWEH ever swear with an inanimate objects or anything He created and He also urged everybody not to swear by anything outside Himself because it's only Him who can bear us witness to whatever we do.

ALLAH:
Even though Allah didn't permit anyone to swear with anything other than himself BUT Allah failed to yield his own instruction.

Narrated 'Umar:
The Prophet said, "If anybody has to take an oath, he should swear ONLY by Allah." The people of Quraish used to swear by their fathers, but the Prophet said, "Do not swear by your fathers." (Sahih Al-Bukhari, Volume 5, Book 58, Number 177)

Narrated Ibn 'Umar:
Allah's Apostle met 'Umar bin Al-Khattab while the latter was going with a group of camel-riders, and he was swearing by his father. The Prophet said, "Lo! Allah forbids you to swear by your fathers, so whoever has to take an oath, he should swear by Allah or keep quiet." (Sahih Al-Bukhari, Volume 8, Book 78, Number 641-Bold & underline mine)

This instruction is well also in line with Biblical instruction in taking oath but did Allah follow his own instruction?

And I swear by thy Lord, we will surely gather together them and the Satans: then will we set them on their knees round Hell: S. 19:68 Rodwell

"[Abraham supposedly says] I swear by GOD, I have a plan to deal with your statues, as soon as you leave." S. 21:57 Khalifa

u]By the Lord then of the heaven and of the earth,[/u] I swear that this is the truth, even as ye speak yourselves. S. 51:23 Rodwell

But nay! I swear by the Lord of the Easts and the Wests that We are certainly able S. 70:40

We can see Abraham following the instruction of Allah but who is the Lord that Allah sworn by?

Here are few verses where Allah sworn with what he supposed to create and inanimate objects.

I swear by the Book that makes manifest (the truth). S. 44:2

Qaf. I swear by the glorious Quran (that Muhammad is the Apostle of Allah) S. 50:1

I swear by the wind that scatters far and wide, S. 51:1

I swear by the heaven full of ways. S. 51:7

I swear by the Mountain, S. 52:1

I swear by the star when it goes down. S. 53:1

But nay! I swear by the falling of stars; S. 56:75

Noon. I swear by the pen and what the angels write, S. 68:1

But nay! I swear by that which you see, S. 69:38

You may want to argue that Muhammad is one who actually repeating all this as being told by Allah then that means Muhammad contradicts himself or Allah deceived Muhammad by saying no one should swear with anything other than Allah.

To swear or not to swear, that is the question –
A Translation Problem in the Quran

In other to avoid this problem some English translations contradict themselves
Here is one example

Sura 56:75
Nay, I swear by the places of the stars – Pickthall

Furthermore I call to witness the setting of the Stars, - Y. Ali

But nay! I swear by the falling of stars; Shakir

Nay, I cite as proof the shooting of the stars – Sher Ali

NAY, I call to witness the coming-down in parts [of this Quran] Muhammad Asad

I do not need to swear by the setting of the stars Muhammad Sarwar

I swear by the positions of the stars. Khalifa

No! I swear by the fallings of the stars Arberry

I swear by the shelter of the stars N.J. Dawood

So I will not swear by the positions of the stars; Palmer

It needs not that I swear by the setting of the stars, Rodwell

Moreover I swear by the setting of the stars; Sale

Rodwell, Palmer, and sarwar contradict the rest.

God bless you for this post, this is realy reaveling.

lanrexlan: To you, your belief about me is wrong.

Obviously it’s not wrong because you affirmed it below.

I don't regard it as an error,

Just because Quran says so.
But I do believe that you can’t advise your child to write h/her letter in WAEC the way Quran was composed by Allah.

it's you and your mentors that do.

Yes because we know the RULES of grammatical composition like YAHWEY and also used by the writers of the Holy Bible.

Pure lies,your mentors are running away from an [size=14pt]open debate.[/size] All what they can do is to type their rubbish online. [size=14pt]Ali Sina wants 'an online debate' with Dr. Zakir Naik,[/size] Imagine that, afraid of defeat,he knew he can easily manipulate his ways online,which is impossible in open debate because reasonable audience are present.There are just crooks who just post garbage online for peers like you.They are living ghosts.

At the bolds- The astonish part is the accusation you raised against this people that they’re running away from open debate which might be as a result of what you read on Naik’s site too but check this link and see whether your accusation is genuine.

http://www.faithfreedom.org/debates/ZakirNaik.htm

Shut it for once brother,one thing I hate is when people try to claim knowledge on a particular topic whereas they have no knowledge in that topic.What did you about Balagha in arabic? Stop displaying your ignorance, you have no knowledge whatsoever about arabic as a language

I can’t stop laughing, so you who know Arabic very well what is your stand? Were you not the one who is consulting different Arabic words yet those words conflict your own claim?
You agree that Allah did pray but the meaning of prayer in Allah’s statement must has different meaning without any concrete support but just to explain away the problem of Allah being prayed.

Thanks for saying that.

You’re welcome!

Both were dead before being brought back to life, Jonah(pbuh) was alive in the belly of whale for 3days and 3nights.It's survival and not revival as the cases you mentioned.

See where your problem lies, you think I’m contrasting between miracles whereas I’m only telling you that God continues to do miracle wherever human power fails. So the miracles God performed in the past can still happen today.

To you it's ordinary communication and grammatical error.But to muslims, there’s nothing confusing about it.

Of course we’re still saying the same thing just because you read it in Quran so you don’t have problem with it even though it’s grammatically incorrect.

It's a miracle because the arabs till now failed to produce a recitation like the Qu'ran.

Yet this miracle can be fully comprehended by us today, WHAT THEN MAKES IT MIRACLE if it can be fully explained and understood?
Of course there’re many writing poetic in Arabic but no one was composed the way Quran was composed because an intelligent person and Creator can’t write in that manner. It doesn’t behove the Majesty to make such gross error.

During the time of the Prophet(pbuh),the Arabs were at their peak of their literature and yet never met the challenge of the Qu'ran which was to produce a single verse like that of the Qu'ran.

How can they produce an error when everybody knows the rules that govern grammatical composition except Allah and Muslims? No wonder they say only miracle that Quran has is that an intelligent people still believe in it.

Your christian brothers few years back produce some junks in English which was no way near the Qu'ran.

What is the name of the book?

That makes it a miracle since nobody till now can produce a recitation like it.

You keep clamouring on this but failed to use your head that people can’t write the way Quran was written simply because it contains grammatical error. No intelligent man can compose error.

I think it will be good to use your brain,

Use yours first.

I never throw insults on personalities whom you held in high esteem.

Pardon me on that.

If you can't show respect regarding Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala,then

Do you know Allah? I'm sorry, I can't have respect for what possessed Muhammad which I'm trying to let you see.

I have no choice than to unfollow your thread.Will soon unfollow.

As usual, must you unfollow?

You keep contradicting yourself. You said grammatical shift is pure grammatical error and at the same time people are doing what you claimed to be error though it may not the way Qu'ran uses it.

I see lack of simple comprehension here.
I said “Many ancient and Modern days’ writers used many form of PROSE in their work without supernatural intervention which Quran also used” and I asked a question “what make Quran a miracle since people used the same term we found in Quran even before Muhammad was born?”

And I conclude my statement with “Though many ancient and modern days’ writers used a lot of different types of Rhetorical device in their work BUT NONE of them ever use GRAMMATICAL SHIFT”
(NOTE: The grammatical shift that the Arabians try to force into rhetorical device it’s just their OWN formatting, it NEVER supported by any linguistic scholars.)

I don't know where I said people are doing it, what I simply said was that No one seems to quote references to support [size=14pt]Itlifat (grammatical shift) except from the Qu'ran,[/size] not even a single reference from Hadith.That's to say, only the [size=14pt]Qu'ran serves as a reference book for Itlifat[/size] and that makes it unique.Is it hard to comprehend?

I quite understood you but it’s you who couldn’t understand me.
@bolds-People who wrote Hadith know about grammatical rules and very intelligent that’s why they don’t want to make the same mistake that appears in the Quran so they simply follow the rules of grammatical structure and thank God that you admitted that it’s ONLY Quran this grammatical shift can be found and the Arabian ONLY did it (i.e to explain this obvious grammatical error) in their OWN OPINION don’t forget according to your source.

What's this one saying? [size=14pt]Is Bible Injeel or Taurah?[/size] I don't have time for flogging dead horse anymore.

Very funny this is what Muslims always say YET they still believe that the same Bible which is not Injeel or Taurah contains the prophesy of Muhammad. confuse fellow

Asking me? Ask yourself.

No! I’m asking myself....when you left your brain somewhere while reading.

Himself,Exalted and Glorified. The shift signifies two things:the principle of tawhīd(Oneness of Allah) and the multiplicity of viewpoints observed in Arabic.Here is an example in which Allah Subhanahu wa Ta'ala is being referred to as Allāh or rabb,a shift from first person(We) to third person and this emphasizes on tawhīd and shows multiplicity of viewpoints.The Qu'ran says Eat of the good things wherewith We have provided you and render thanks to Allāh if it is He whom you worship'(2:172)So it signifies that only Allah Subhanahu wa Ta'ala provides the different types of good things for mankind,he's the provider which has the power of providing for his slaves.Then continue to say 'Give thanks to Allah',which signifies that all forms of praises and adorations should directed to Allah[Part of Tawhid(oneness of Allah)].

Another explanation for Miracle, again why call it miracle since human can fully understand how it was constructed?
Anyhow you want to put it this still remains grammatical error forever.
Let’s see if we use the normal style of writing whether the same Oneness can still be achieved
Eat of the good things wherewith I have provided you and render thanks to ME if it is ME whom you worship'(2:172)

What is the difference? An intelligent reader can read this narration in a clear and understandable manner because the perfect pronouns were used and it doesn’t change the NARRATOR’s point.

Whereas the former mixed everything together used Third person pronoun (Allah, He) and personal plural pronoun (We) while referring to the same person.

It will be good if you truly understand before copying and pasting.

Don’t worry I know what you can do is to give it a special meaning as usual.

Your problem, if with those explanations you failed to comprehend then there's nothing I can do.I am sorry bro.

My problem or yours! Please do you encourage your child to use Qu’ranic system of writing in school?

Stop using rubbish in explaining anything here.'It' is used for non-living,inanimate objects,animals or plants.You keep using 'it' for Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala which ought not to be so and I corrected you and you keep spewing trash saying the prediction in John used 'He' or whatever.

I’ve made my intention known but it seems you want us to explore more on this.
Not that it can be used ONLY for non-living, inanimate objects, animals or plants. It can also be used for an animate (living) entity of unknown gender.
To Muslims Allah is neither a person, spirit, male nor female.
Though you claim that He should be used for Allah meanwhile He can be used for a PERSON whose gender is unknown.
(NOTE: whatever person can be classified...Muslims never believe Allah is a person)

So which pronoun is best fit for Allah?
Lastly, you didn’t correct me you can check my previous post with any of your brethren I always use He for Allah but I chose to use It because of you people whole think Bible was tampered with in rendering of Holy Spirit in John and YOU have made such claim before and I don’t know maybe you’re still confused with it up till now.

You keep dodging the question,

I didn’t dodge your question but I did enough justice to it by quoting the full verses and highlighted the necessary part but it’s shameful that you couldn’t catch it up.

I never talked about God's voice the angel can appeared to Moses(pbuh) and Moses(pbuh) can hear God's voice it's possible(cos it's a voice),

It can only be possible in Quran not in the Bible.
Why would Angel appear without having any message to deliver? After all we have many instances in the Bible where God speaks directly from heaven without any appearance of an entity.

[size=14pt]but the angel of the Lord appeared to Moses(pbuh) in the beginning and towards the end Moses(pbuh) was afraid to look at God's face,[/size] Is God's face and angel's face the same? That's the question.

The bold and underline part is where your problem lies.
Let me come to your level this time around.
The Angel of the Lord appeared to Moses.
The Angel of the Lord IDENTIFIES himself as God.
The Angel of the Lord called himself The God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob (which you erroneously said the Angel never called himself YAHWEH before)
The Angel didn’t speak in the THIRD PERSON voice RATHER He speaks directly as GOD so after the conversation what did Moses do, Moses was afraid to look at God’s face.

What you failed to notice in these verses is that The Angel never used THIRD person voice and the only VOICE which is the Angel’s simply called himself God.
So what did you expect Moses to call the Angel after the Angel called himself God?

Deduce from your post yourself.You haven't heard about deductive reasoning?

You talk about deductive reasoning but it’s unfortunate that you couldn’t apply it yourself. I alluded to Jesus’ prayer as an example NOT that I said PRAYER and WORSHIP are the same.
The reason why I use it as an example is because both PRAYER and PRAISE are directed toward a deity, so it’s illogical to find a deity PRAY to or PRAISE himself.

Let me explain what you don't understand to you.

I don’t understand or you want to continue living in lies.

The same word is being used for Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala and humans [size=14pt]but means entirely different thing.[/size]

Why must it have a different meaning on Allah’s part?
Can you show us from any Arabic dictionary where salat has a specific meaning for Allah alone?
Muhammad and his companions took those verses as literal NOT THE WAY MODERN MUSLIMS try to bend the truth because of the glaring mistake within those verses.

For example,Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala says he sends Salat on the Prophet(pbuh) and Salat has been enjoined on humans by Allah.Does that means Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala also prays like humans pray(bowing,prostating etc) for the Prophet(pbuh)? NO,

Allah doesn’t need to bow and prostrate before we call it prayer, Prayer can come in many forms.

See how this Islamic source put it Allah's Salah means that HE PRAISES HIS SERVANT BEFORE THE ANGELS,...” source: HYPERLINK "http://tafsir.com/default.asp?sid=33&tid=41879" http://tafsir.com/default.asp?sid=33&tid=41879 Q33:34
Can you still remember what PRAISE means?
So it is very glaring that the PRAYER of Allah entails glorifications of someone else particularly his servant such as Muhammad.

SubhanAllah!!!!!!! Allah says in Surah Al-Anam 6:12 Say:To whom belongs all that is in the heaven and the earth? Say: To Allah,He has indeed prescribed mercy for himself..................So does it means Allah will show mercy to himself?

This is one of internal problem we keep finding inside Qu’ran, how can a Creator prescribe mercy for himself?
Well people like you will give it another meaning because you want to justify the writer of Quran BUT the honest question someone can ask here is why the statement didn’t read directly the way you rendered it or does Allah speak in parable?

SubhanAllah!!!! It simply means Allah will show mercy to his creatures, the same way meaning that whenever Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala says 'All praises be to Allah' it means Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala is instructing mankind

So you know more than Allah. Why Allah didn’t say “I will show mercy to My creatures.”
I know this is just your own fictions to give it more meaning BUT not the actual meaning of it.
Allah shows mercy to his creature BUT why Allah couldn’t say it in a straight manner? We see in the Bible where God gives such a similar statement “For he saith to Moses, I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion.” Rom 9:15 this provided more evidence that Allah and YHWH are different.

Since the Hadith recorded that Allah also RECITES some verses, it shouldn’t be a surprise that Allah can prescribe mercy for himself or praises himself.

Narrated AbuHurayrah
Allah's Messenger said, "A thousand years before creating the heavens and the Earth, Allah RECITED Ta-Ha and Ya-Sin, and when the angels HEARD the recitation they said, 'Happy are the people to whom this comes down, happy are the minds which carry this, and happy are the tongues which utter this.” Darimi transmitted it (At-Tirmidhi Hadith, HYPERLINK "http://www.alim.org/library/hadith/TIR/660" \o "Opens external link in new window" Number 660 – taken from ALIM CD-ROM Version; bold and capital emphasis mine)

Even though this Hadith contains logical error and contradict another hadith (i.e Angels exist before the creation of heavens whereas another haidth says heavens was created before Angels)
YET we can see this hadith reporting that Allah actually recites some SURA. I know another thing you will come up with is that RECITATION here have another meaning just because it’s used for Allah BUT you can see the underline that says “...and happy are the tongues which utter this...” which means they will utter it the way Allah uttered it.

You are not making any atom of sense mister.

To you of course after I deflated your Hamd explanation!

Stop lying,I haven't mentioned worship before in my first post here.You initially accused me of agreeing that praise is part of worship which I never did in my first post.

Why can’t you apologise for accusing me that I said PRAISE and WORSHIP are the same when I didn’t say so?
You never did! but remember by using deductive reasoning, if Allah prayed, glorified, exalted himself in other word Allah is praising himself which you earlier agree with AND PRAISE is PART of worship then it means Allah is doing a kind of worship.

I know you don’t want to buy the idea that PRAISE is part of worship that’s why you used “MAY BE in your previous post” but the truth is PRAISE is actually a form of worship you can check any dictionary even Arabic

Anyone reading my post and compare it with yours can see that you didn’t refute my points rather you attacked a straw man.
Though, you try small.

lanrexlan: As beautifully put your explanation is, [size=14pt]it applied to humans as you rightly opined.[/size]

Then it means that Allah doesn’t have principle.
The purpose of comparing YAHWEH and Allah in my post is because of this so that you can see that what YHWH can’t do, He will never allow any of His creature do.

As I explained to you the other time that the same word can be used for humans and Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta'ala [size=14pt]but doesn't basically mean the same thing.[/size]

I’m still demanding for dictionaries that support this you claim that a word may have special meaning for one person.

Worship of other than Allah is prohibited, swearing an oath on other than Allah bears the same ruling. Due to the common thread between the two, the Prophet (pbuh) unified associating partners to Allah and swearing a false oath in a single sentence.
Imam Bukhari reports on the authority of Abdullah ibn Amr’ that the Prophet (Allah bless him and give him peace) said, “Major sins include associating partners to Allah, disobeying ones parents and the swearing of false oaths.”

Who prohibit them? Allah! Then Allah can’t allow his creature to elevate any objects to his level BUT Allah himself can do so just because he’s God.

This shows a clear DIFFERENCE between YHWH and Allah because Yahweh doesn’t act just because He’s the Creator BUT always make sure that whatever He does and says His creatures also do and practice.
YHWH can never swear outside of Himself Hebrew 6:13, likewise commands man not to swear by any objects either in heavens or on earth beside Him. Isaiah 65:16.
YHWH is holy and can’t defile Himself; likewise wants man to be Holy 1 Peter 1:16.
YHWH can’t lie Heb 6:18, Titus 1:2, likewise doesn’t want man to lie Colossians 3:9

So can you see the true reality that the God who spoke through all the prophets in the Bible is totally different from the one who inspired Muhammad?
In case of Allah, he can command his creature to do the right thing but act as he wants.

The oath by Allah is only for emphasis, attention and approval. Oath brings emphasis to the matter but oath itself is not the point of emphasis.

You can swallow this shit up just because you want to defend the writer of Qu’ran BUT the truth will always remain truth which means Oath has no other meaning than to bear us witness (which you later said below) and people like Yusuf Ali and Muhammad Asab use this phrase throughout their translation ’I’ or ‘I do’ call to witness. Does call to witness the same as emphasis, attention and approval?

For example when Allah says in the Qur’an By the time Indeed, mankind is in loss. Except for those who have believed and done righteous deeds and advised each other to truth and advised each other to patience
The emphasis is on the loss of mankind and the ways to counter that loss instead of “the time”.
Furthermore,in
the Qur’an after oaths are made evidences are presented and signs are mentioned.
The Qu'ran again says:By the dawn.And (by) ten nights.And (by) the even (number) and the odd.And (by) the night when it passes.Is there (not) in (all) that an oath (sufficient) for one of perception?[Surah Al-Fajr 89:1-5]

No indications that Allah is swearing here when reading Yusuf Ali translation which put it as evidence (adjuration) not oath as others inserted.
In this case you never addressed all the verses I quoted but you brought your own verses which are out of the issue at hand.

Yes, The starting of a sentence with an oath attracts the attention of the listener The listener becomes attentive that something important is going to be mentioned.

Lie. Oath is a called to a witness for affirmation of our say. I can’t tell you I’m making an oath to draw your attention rather I can only make an oath to make you have confident in what I’m saying.

Anything of his creatures [size=14pt]he feels,[/size] to Him belongs His Dominion.

@bold-that’s not how Yahweh behaves.
Even including inanimate objects that don’t have soul to bear witness

Why not? [size=14pt]Allah is summoning these creations to
Witness what is about to be said.[/size] The sole purpose
is to show mankind the [size=14pt]submission and humbleness of these creations far greater than them,[/size] so what stops them from submitting? These creations readily stand witness and accept the words of Allah. (Kashful Baari 2/515)

In fact you hit the nail on the head @bold just as Yusuf Ali uses ’call to witness’ throughout his translation.
But the question is can inanimate object witness to man?
Do you mean all the inanimate objects used by Allah are submitting and humble themselves?
How can inanimate be submissive and humble when it doesn’t possess MIND of reasoning?

Abul Qasim said,“The taking of oath on any entity
is primarily due to two reasons:either its virtue or
its benefit.” For example, Allah takes an oath upon
Mount Sinai,this is solely dues its virtue and merit.
Whereas the oath on the fig and olive is principally
due to the immense benefit it extends.Brother Tbaba1234 did a very good job in explaining the Tafsir of Surah At-Tin which contains oaths here. HYPERLINK "https://www.nairaland.com/972776/amazing-quran-season-1[/quote" www.nairaland.com/972776/amazing-quran-season-1

Whereas human can’t take an oath on these entities for their virtue and benefit only Allah can do, does it make any sense?
There is a further problem with Allah swearing by things other than himself. Swearing by something that is less than myself, I am actually weakening the value of my statement. An oath is supposed to increase the weight or seriousness of what I say, but if I swear by something less than myself, I am decreasing the weight of my claim.

According to Imam Ibn al-Qayyim, oaths taken by Allah have only one base and that is the ‘attributes of Allah’. When Allah takes the oath of ‘the star when it descends’ or of ‘Al-Tariq (the Knocker)’ or any other creation of His, the base behind them is the greatness of Allah.

The greatness of Allah as usual, did you know that the reason why we shouldn’t swear by any other thing along side of God is because we are elevating those objects to the level of deity? Something that can’t bear us witness and it’s only God who can bear man witness because God it’s self existence and can’t destroy Himself whereas all those objects can be destroyed.

Therefore it is evident that when Allah takes an oath of something, He does so of His own greatness and not of the created thing.

Nothing is great here brother rather it portrays Allah as an entity who has no principle and totally DIFFERENT from the God of all prophets (YHWH).

Similarly,when Allah takes an oath of the sun or the moon,for example He mentions them as His signs in the Qur’an:
Indeed, in the creation of the heavens and the earth and the alternation of the night and the day are signs for those of understanding[Qur’an 3:190].

Yet no single example in the Bible where Yahweh did the same thing, or the moon and the sun was created after Bible was written?

By the sun and its brightness.And [by] the moon when it follows it[Qur’an 91:1-2]
. … He wrapped the night over the day that follows it quickly.The sun, the moon and the stars have all been tamed by His command… [Qur’an 7:54].
Allah mentions some of His created things as evidence of His existence and of monotheism and asks the readers of the Qur’an to ponder over these signs from Him. [size=14pt]Then, when Allah takes an oath of these created things, He is simply taking an oath of Himself, His qualities, and His greatness.[/size]

@last underline-Since it infers that if Allah is taking an oath by what he created means ”He is simply taking an oath of Himself, His qualities, and His greatness.” Then,
[size=14pt]why is it prohibited by Allah for human not to use any created thing in oath so far it’s still the same Allah’s qualities and greatness or himself they will refer to?[/size]
Please don’t dodge this question!

You only try to address one out of other points I raised which is Allah swears by his creature while you neglected the rest.

Point One:
And I swear by thy Lord, we will surely gather together them and the Satans: then will we set them on their knees round Hell: S. 19:68 Rodwell
By the Lord then of the heaven and of the earth, I swear that this is the truth, even as ye speak yourselves. S. 51:23 Rodwell
But nay! I swear by the Lord of the Easts and the Wests that We are certainly able S. 70:40
In all these verses we can see Allah swearing by ANOTHER ENTITY, so who is THE LORD that Allah sworn by in these verses?

Second points (i.e Surah 56:75):
We can see from my post how Muslims English translators contradict themselves, is it that;
1 those verses never say Allah truly sworn by those objects as people like Muhammad Sarwar, Palmer and Rodwell translated them?
i.e I do not need to swear by the setting of the stars. Muhammad Sarwar
So I will not swear by the positions of the stars; Palmer
It needs not that I swear by the setting of the stars, Rodwell. OR

2 those objects in question mean something else with insertion of NAY as people like Pickthall, Shakir, Arberry, and Sher Ali translated them?
i.e Nay, I swear by the places of the stars – Pickthall
But nay! I swear by the falling of stars; Shakir
Nay, I cite as proof the shooting of the stars – Sher Ali
No! I swear by the fallings of the stars Arberry. OR

3 Allah truly did swear with those objects as people like Khalifa, Dawood, and Sale translated them? (Although from your reply it seems that this one is what you agree with-that Allah truly sworn but it has another meaning)

BUT what cause this mass confusion in English Qu’ran?
How can a Muslim cope with different translations when one says Allah truly sworn and the other says Allah did not swear at all?
Which translation is the correct one and which one is incorrect?

Emusan: Anyone reading my post and compare it with yours can see that you didn’t refute my points rather you attacked a straw man.
Though, you try small.



Then it means that Allah doesn’t have principle.
The purpose of comparing YAHWEH and Allah in my post is because of this so that you can see that what YHWH can’t do, He will never allow any of His creature do.



I’m still demanding for dictionaries that support this you claim that a word may have special meaning for one person.



Who prohibit them? Allah! Then Allah can’t allow his creature to elevate any objects to his level BUT Allah himself can do so just because he’s God.

This shows a clear DIFFERENCE between YHWH and Allah because Yahweh doesn’t act just because He’s the Creator BUT always make sure that whatever He does and says His creatures also do and practice.
YHWH can never swear outside of Himself Hebrew 6:13, likewise commands man not to swear by any objects either in heavens or on earth beside Him. Isaiah 65:16.
YHWH is holy and can’t defile Himself; likewise wants man to be Holy 1 Peter 1:16.
YHWH can’t lie Heb 6:18, Titus 1:2, likewise doesn’t want man to lie Colossians 3:9

So can you see the true reality that the God who spoke through all the prophets in the Bible is totally different from the one who inspired Muhammad?
In case of Allah, he can command his creature to do the right thing but act as he wants.



You can swallow this shit up just because you want to defend the writer of Qu’ran BUT the truth will always remain truth which means Oath has no other meaning than to bear us witness (which you later said below) and people like Yusuf Ali and Muhammad Asab use this phrase throughout their translation ’I’ or ‘I do’ call to witness. Does call to witness the same as emphasis, attention and approval?



No indications that Allah is swearing here when reading Yusuf Ali translation which put it as evidence (adjuration) not oath as others inserted.
In this case you never addressed all the verses I quoted but you brought your own verses which are out of the issue at hand.



Lie. Oath is a called to a witness for affirmation of our say. I can’t tell you I’m making an oath to draw your attention rather I can only make an oath to make you have confident in what I’m saying.



@bold-that’s not how Yahweh behaves.
Even including inanimate objects that don’t have soul to bear witness



In fact you hit the nail on the head @bold just as Yusuf Ali uses ’call to witness’ throughout his translation.
But the question is can inanimate object witness to man?
Do you mean all the inanimate objects used by Allah are submitting and humble themselves?
How can inanimate be submissive and humble when it doesn’t possess MIND of reasoning?



Whereas human can’t take an oath on these entities for their virtue and benefit only Allah can do, does it make any sense?
There is a further problem with Allah swearing by things other than himself. Swearing by something that is less than myself, I am actually weakening the value of my statement. An oath is supposed to increase the weight or seriousness of what I say, but if I swear by something less than myself, I am decreasing the weight of my claim.



The greatness of Allah as usual, did you know that the reason why we shouldn’t swear by any other thing along side of God is because we are elevating those objects to the level of deity? Something that can’t bear us witness and it’s only God who can bear man witness because God it’s self existence and can’t destroy Himself whereas all those objects can be destroyed.



Nothing is great here brother rather it portrays Allah as an entity who has no principle and totally DIFFERENT from the God of all prophets (YHWH).



Yet no single example in the Bible where Yahweh did the same thing, or the moon and the sun was created after Bible was written?



@last underline-Since it infers that if Allah is taking an oath by what he created means ”He is simply taking an oath of Himself, His qualities, and His greatness.”
[size=14pt]then why is it prohibited by Allah for human not to use any created thing in oath so far it’s still the same Allah’s qualities and greatness or himself they will refer to?[/size]
Please don’t dodge this question!

You only try to address one out of other points I raised which is Allah swears by his creature while you neglected the rest.

Point One:
And I swear by thy Lord, we will surely gather together them and the Satans: then will we set them on their knees round Hell: S. 19:68 Rodwell
By the Lord then of the heaven and of the earth, I swear that this is the truth, even as ye speak yourselves. S. 51:23 Rodwell
But nay! I swear by the Lord of the Easts and the Wests that We are certainly able S. 70:40
In all these verses we can see Allah swearing by ANOTHER ENTITY, so who is THE LORD that Allah sworn by in these verses?

Second points (i.e Surah 56:75):
We can see from my post how Muslims English translators contradict themselves, is it that;
1 those verses never say Allah truly sworn by those objects as people like Muhammad Sarwar, Palmer and Rodwell translated them?
i.e I do not need to swear by the setting of the stars. Muhammad Sarwar
So I will not swear by the positions of the stars; Palmer
It needs not that I swear by the setting of the stars, Rodwell. OR

2 those objects in question mean something else with insertion of NAY as people like Pickthall, Shakir, Arberry, and Sher Ali translated them?
i.e Nay, I swear by the places of the stars – Pickthall
But nay! I swear by the falling of stars; Shakir
Nay, I cite as proof the shooting of the stars – Sher Ali
No! I swear by the fallings of the stars Arberry. OR

3 Allah truly did swear with those objects as people like Khalifa, Dawood, and Sale translated them? (Although from your reply it seems that this one is what you agree with-that Allah truly sworn but it has another meaning)

BUT what cause this mass confusion in English Qu’ran?
How can a Muslim cope with different translations when one says Allah truly sworn and the other says Allah did not swear at all?
Which translation is the correct one and which one is incorrect?

God bless you for this wonderful discovery .