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GMAT Practice



Questions
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GMAT Critical Reasoning Practice Questions
Question 1
In Los Angeles, a political candidate who buys saturation radio advertising will get
maximum name recognition.
The statement above logically conveys which of the following?
A. Radio advertising is the most important factor in political campaigns in Los
Angeles.
B. Maximum name recognition in Los Angeles will help a candidate to win a
higher percentage of votes cast in the city.
C. Saturation radio advertising reaches every demographically distinct sector of
the voting population of Los Angeles.
D. For maximum name recognition a candidate need not spend on media
channels other than radio advertising.
E. A candidate's record of achievement in the Los Angeles area will do little to
affect his or her name recognition there.

Answers and Explanations
D

An L.A. political candidate who buys saturation radio advertising will get maximum
name recognition. In other words, such advertising is sufficient for maximum name
recognition. If so, then it must be true that, as (D) says, a candidate can get such
recognition without spending on other forms of media.

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Question 2
The rate of violent crime in this state is up 30 percent from last year. The fault lies
entirely in our court system: Recently our judges' sentences have been so lenient
that criminals can now do almost anything without fear of a long prison term.
The argument above would be weakened if it were true that
A. 85 percent of the other states in the nation have lower crime rates than does
this state.
B. White collar crime in this state has also increased by over 25 percent in the
last year.
C. 35 percent of the police in this state have been laid off in the last year due to
budget cuts.
D. Polls show that 65 percent of the population in this state opposes capital
punishment.
E. The state has hired 25 new judges in the last year to compensate for deaths
and retirements.

Answers and Explanations
C
If we can show that something besides the court system may explain the increase in
crime we would weaken the argument. The author assumes that there is no other
cause. Tackle the choices, looking for another cause besides the allegedly lenient
court sentences.
(A) Does not compare one state to another. The argument's scope is the crime rate
increase in this particular state only. In (B), the fact that white collar crime is also on
the rise strengthens rather than weakens the argument. (C) presents an alternative
explanation for the increase in crime (reduction in police). As for (D), what if 65
percent of people in the state oppose capital punishment? This provides little insight
into why crime has gone up since last year. (E) tells us that numerous judges have
been replaced in the last year. It is possible that the new judges are more lenient,
but this would only strengthen the author's argument.
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Question 3
3. The increase in the number of newspaper articles exposed as fabrications serves
to bolster the contention that publishers are more interested in boosting circulation
than in printing the truth. Even minor publications have staffs to check such obvious
fraud.
The argument above assumes that
A. Newspaper stories exposed as fabrications are a recent phenomenon.
B. Everything a newspaper prints must be factually verifiable.
C. Fact checking is more comprehensive for minor publications than for major
ones.
D. Only recently have newspapers admitted to publishing intentionally fraudulent
stories.
E. The publishers of newspapers are the people who decide what to print in their
newspapers.

Answers and Explanations
E
Evidence: more newspaper articles exposed as fabrications.
Conclusion: Publishers want to increase circulation, not print the truth.
This conclusion makes sense only if we assume (E), that the publishers are the ones
who decide what to print. If (E) weren't true and this decision was up to someone
other than the publisher, the argument would fall apart.



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Question 4
Time and again it has been shown that students who attend colleges with low
faculty/student ratios get the most well-rounded education. As a result, when my
children are ready to attend college, I'll be sure they attend a school with a very
small student population.
Which of the following, if true, identifies the greatest flaw in the reasoning above?
A. A low faculty/student ratio is the effect of a well-rounded education, not its
source.
B. Intelligence should be considered the result of childhood environment, not
advanced education.
C. A very small student population does not by itself, ensure a low
faculty/student ratio.
D. Parental desires and preferences rarely determine a child's choice of a college
or university.
E. Students must take advantage of the low faculty/student ratio by intentionally
choosing small classes.

Answers and Explanations
C
The evidence says that students who attend colleges with low faculty/student ratios
get well-rounded educations, but the conclusion is that the author will send his kids
to colleges with small student populations. Since colleges can have the second
without necessarily having the first, (C) is correct.



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Question 5
All German philosophers, except for Marx, are idealists.
From which of the following can the statement above be most properly inferred?
A. Except for Marx, if someone is an idealist philosopher, then he or she is
German.
B. Marx is the only non-German philosopher who is an idealist.
C. If a German is an idealist, then he or she is a philosopher, as long as he or
she is not Marx.
D. Marx is not an idealist German philosopher.
E. Aside from the philosopher Marx, if someone is a German philosopher, then
he or she is an idealist.

Answers and Explanations

E
The question stem asks you to pick the choice from which the statement can be
derived, and that's (E). If, as (E) says, anyone who is German is an idealist except
for Marx, then all Germans except for Marx are idealists. That being the case, it
would certainly be true that, as the stimulus says, with the exception of Marx, all
German philosopher—being a subset of all Germans—are idealists. While this may
sound absurd, we're concerned with strict logic here, not content.


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GMAT Data Sufficiency Practice Questions

Directions: In each of the problems, a question is followed by
two statements containing certain data. You are to determine
whether the data provided by the statements is sufficient to
answer the question.

Answer choices

A. if statement (1) by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but
statement (2) by itself is not;
B. if statement (2) by itself is sufficient to answer the question, but
statement (1) by itself is not;
C. if statements (1) and (2) taken together are sufficient to answer the
question, even though neither statement by itself is sufficient;
D. if either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question;
E. if statements (1) and (2) taken together are not sufficient to answer
the question, requiring more data pertaining to the problem




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Question 1

Does x = y?
(1) x2
- y2
= 0
(2) (x - y)2
= 0

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Answer and Explanations

B

(1) Insufficient. It may look like the two are equal, but not necessarily. All the
statement tells us is that x2
is equal to y2
. That doesn't mean that x equals y,
because one could be negative and the other positive.
(2) Sufficient. This tells us that (x - y) (x - y) = 0. So, (x - y) = 0. The only way the
difference between the two variables can be 0 is if they are the same.







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Question 2

If R is an integer, is R evenly divisible by 3?
(1) 2R is evenly divisible by 3
(2) 3R is evenly divisible by 3

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Answer and Explanations
A
(1) Sufficient. Since the quantity 2R is divisible by 3, one of those two factors must
be divisible by 3. Since 1 isn't; R must be.
(2) Insufficient. We know that quantity 3R is evenly divisible by 3, which means
that at least one of the factors must be divisible by 3. The problem, though, is that 3
is evenly divisible by 3, making it impossible for us to determine if R is.






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Question 3

If he did not stop along the way, what speed did Bill average on his 3-hour trip?
(1) He traveled a total of 120 miles.
(2) He traveled half the distance at 30 miles per hour, and half the distance at 60
miles per hour.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Answer and Explanations
D
(1) Sufficient. With the distance known, we could plug it into the rate formula and
computer Bill's rate.
(2) Sufficient. If he covered the same distance at 30 mph as he did at 60 mph, he
must have been travelling at 30 mph for twice as long as he was at 60 mph. Given
that he travelled for 3 hours, he travelled at 30 mph for 2 hours and 60 mph for 1
hour. That comes to 120 miles total distance, and again we solve for the rate.






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Question 4

Is x + y positive?
(1) x - y is positive.
(2) y - x is negative.

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.

Answer and Explanations
E
(1) Insufficient. Pick 10 for x and 5 for y. This satisfies the statement and would
allow us to answer "yes" to the question. We can't stop here though; we have to try
different values to see if we can answer the question, "no." Try 5 for x and -10 for y.
These values satisfy statement (1) but allow us to answer the question "no."
(2) Insufficient. Try the same values. Those values allow us to answer "no" to the
question. But we need to consider other values. If we set y equal to -5 and x equal
to 10, we can answer "yes" to the question.
You could guess between (C) and (E) or you could plug in some more numbers. As it
turns out the two statements are equivalent. So they are just as insufficient together
as they are separate.



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Question 5

A shopper bought a tie and a belt during a sale. Which item did he buy at the greater
dollar value?
(1) He bought the tie at a 20 percent discount.
(2) He bought the belt at a 25 percent discount

A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Answer and Explanations
E
(1) Insufficient. Only information about the tie is given. We know nothing about the
belt.
(2) Insufficient. Only information about the belt is given. We know nothing about
the tie.
All we can determine is that a greater percentage discount was obtained on the belt.
Whether this translates into a greater dollar discount cannot be determined.





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GMAT Reading Comprehension Practice Questions

Answer the questions after reading through the passage. Base
your answers on information that is either stated or implied in
the passage.
The rich analyses of Fernand Braudel and his fellow Annales historians have made
significant contributions to historical theory and research. In a departure from
traditional historical approaches, the Annales historians assume (as do Marxists) that
history cannot be limited to a simple recounting of conscious human actions, but
must be understood in the context of forces that underlie human behavior. Braudel
was the first Annales historian to gain widespread support for the idea that history
should synthesize data from social sciences, especially economics, to provide a
broader historical view of human societies over time (although Febvre and Bloch,
founders of the Annales school, originated this approach).
Braudel conceived of history as the dynamic interaction of three temporalities. The
first of these, the evenementielle, involved short-lived dramatic "events," such as
battles, revolutions, and the actions of great men, which had preoccupied traditional
historians like Carlyle. Conjonctures was Braudel's term for the larger, cyclical
processes that might last up to half a century. The longue duree, a historical wave of
great length, was for Braudel the most fascinating of the three temporalities. Here he
focused on those aspects of everyday life that might remain relatively unchanged for
centuries. What people ate, what they wore, their means and routes of travel—for
Braudel these things create "structures" that define the limits of potential social
change for hundreds of years at a time.
Braudel's concept of the longue duree extended the perspective of historical space as
well as time. Until the Annales school, historians had taken the juridicial political
unit—the the nation-state, duchy, or whatever—as their starting point. Yet, when
such enormous time spans are considered, geographical features may have more
significance for human populations than national borders. In his doctoral thesis, a
seminal work on the Mediterranean during the reign of Philip II, Braudel treated the
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geohistory of the entire region as a "structure" that exerted myriad influences on
human lifeways since the first settlements on the shores of the Mediterranean Sea.
And so the reader is given such arcane information as the list of products that came
to Spanish shores from North Africa, the seasonal routes followed by Mediterranean
sheep and their shepherds, and the cities where the best ship timber could be
bought.
Braudel has been faulted for the imprecision of his approach. With his Rabelaisian
delight in concrete detail, Braudel vastly extended the realm of relevant phenomena;
but this very achievement made it difficult to delimit the boundaries of observation, a
task necessary to beginning any social investigation. Further, Braudel and other
Annales historians minimize the differences among the social sciences. Nevertheless,
the many similarly designed studies aimed at both professional and popular
audiences indicate that Braudel asked significant questions which traditional
historians had overlooked.





TO BE CONTINUED...

CONTINUED....


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geohistory of the entire region as a "structure" that exerted myriad influences on
human lifeways since the first settlements on the shores of the Mediterranean Sea.
And so the reader is given such arcane information as the list of products that came
to Spanish shores from North Africa, the seasonal routes followed by Mediterranean
sheep and their shepherds, and the cities where the best ship timber could be
bought.
Braudel has been faulted for the imprecision of his approach. With his Rabelaisian
delight in concrete detail, Braudel vastly extended the realm of relevant phenomena;
but this very achievement made it difficult to delimit the boundaries of observation, a
task necessary to beginning any social investigation. Further, Braudel and other
Annales historians minimize the differences among the social sciences. Nevertheless,
the many similarly designed studies aimed at both professional and popular
audiences indicate that Braudel asked significant questions which traditional
historians had overlooked.




























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Question 1

The primary purpose of the passage is to
A. show how Braudel's work changed the conception of Mediterranean life held
by previous historians.
B. evaluate Braudel's criticisms of traditional and Marxist historiography
C. contrast the perspective of the longue duree with the actions of major
historical figures
D. illustrate the relevance of Braudel's concepts to other social sciences
E. outline some of Braudel's influential conceptions and distinguish them from
conventional approaches

Answers and Explanations

E

The purpose, or main idea, of this passage is to explain Braudel's ideas and discuss
how they differ from those of traditional historians. Choices (A) and (D) focus on
details, and (B) and (C) focus on inaccurately stated details.








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Question 2

The author refers to the work of Febvre and Bloch in order to
A. illustrate the limitations of the Annales tradition of historical investigation
B. suggest the relevance of economics to historical investigation
C. debate the need for combining various sociological approaches
D. show that previous Annales historians anticipated Braudel's focus on
economics
E. demonstrate that historical studies provide broad structures necessary for
economic analysis


Answers and Explanations
D
Febvre and Bloch are mentioned only in the first paragraph. There, it's said that they
"anticipated [Braudel's] approach."









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Question 3

According to the passage, all of the following are aspects of Braudel's approach to
history EXCEPT that he
A. attempted to unify various social sciences
B. studied social and economic activities that occurred across national
boundaries
C. pointed out the link between increased economic activity and the rise of
nationalism
D. examined seemingly unexciting aspects of everyday life
E. visualized history as involving several different time frames


Answers and Explanations
C
Here, you have to find which detail is not mentioned in the passage. Choice (A) is
mentioned in the first paragraph, (D) and (E) in the second, and (B) in the third.















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Question 4

The passage suggests that, compared to traditional historians, Annales historians are
A. more interested in other social sciences than in history
B. more critical of the achievements of famous historical figures
C. more skeptical of the validity of most economic research
D. more interested in the underlying context of human behavior provided by
social structure
E. more inclined to be dogmatic in their approach to history



Answers and Explanations
D
Choice (A) is wrong because there's no indication that the Annales historians were
more interested in other social sciences than in history. Choice (E) is wrong because,
although it's clear that the Annales historians had a dogma of their own, there's no
indication that they were any more dogmatic than anyone else.








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Question 5

The author is critical of Braudel's perspective for which of the following reasons?
A. It seeks structures that underlie all forms of social activity.
B. It assumes a greater similarity among the social sciences than actually exists.
C. It fails to consider the relationship between short-term events and long-term
social activity.
D. It clearly defines boundaries for social analysis.
E. It attributes too much significance to conscious human actions.


Answers and Explanations
B
Choices (C), (D), and (E) are contradicted by the passage. Choice (A) is correct, but
it's not really a criticism. Choice (B) is the best answer.




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GMAT Practice Questions – Answers and Explanations

Directions: Choose the best answer from the five answer choices.



Question 1

A family pays $800 per year for an insurance plan that pays 80 percent of the first
$1,000 in expenses and 100 percent of all medical expenses thereafter. In any given
year, the total amount paid by the family will equal the amount paid by the plan
when the family's medical expenses total.
A. $1,000
B. $1,200
C. $1,400
D. $1,800
E. $2,200

Answer and Explanation

B

The family pays $800 per year for the plan, plus (100 percent minus 80 percent) or
20 percent of the first $1,000 in medical expenses, while the insurance company
pays 80 percent of the first $1,000, or $800. It must pay an additional $200 to
match what the family pays out. Since the $200 comes after the first $1,000 in
expenses, it must represent 100 percent of additional expenses. Therefore, there
must have been $1,000 plus $200 or $1,200 in medical expenses altogether.


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Question 2

Cheese, bologna, and peanut butter sandwiches were made for a picnic in a ratio of
5 to 7 to 8. If a total of 120 sandwiches were made, how many bologna sandwiches
were made?

A. 15
B. 30
C. 38
D. 42
E. 48


Answer and Explanation

D
We're told that cheese, bologna, and peanut butter sandwiches are made in the ratio
of 5 to 7 to 8. Every time they make 5 cheese sandwiches, they also have to make 7
bologna and 8 peanut butter. So there must be 5x cheese sandwiches (and we don't
know what x is at this point), 7x bologna sandwiches, and 8x peanut butter. How
many bologna sandwiches were made? Well, the number of bologna sandwiches
must be a multiple of 7. But only choice D is a multiple of 7.
In other words:
5x + 7x + 8x = 120
20x = 120
x = 6
7(6) = 42




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Question 3

A sink contains exactly 12 liters of water. If water is drained from the sink until it
holds exactly 6 liters of water less than the quantity drained away, how many liters
of water were drained away?


A. 2
B. 3
C. 4.5
D. 6
E. 9

Answer and Explanation
E
The key to solving this one is to focus on the quantity of water drained away, which
we will call x. We're told that x liters of water are drained away, and x - 6 liters are
left. So x (liters taken away) plus x - 6 (liters left) equals 12 (total liters in the sink).
Therefore 2x - 6 = 12, and x = 9.












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Question 4

Company C sells a line of 25 products with an average retail price of $1,200. If none
of these products sells for less than $420, and exactly 10 of the products sell for less
than $1,000, what is the greatest possible selling price of the most expensive
product?

A. $2,600
B. $3,900
C. $7,800
D. $11,800
E. $18,200

Answers and Explanations

D
Since 25 products sell at an average of $1,200, to buy one of each we'd have to
spend 25 x $1,200 = $30,000. We want to find the greatest possible selling price of
the most expensive product. The way to maximize this price is to minimize the prices
of the other 24 products. Ten of these products sell for less than $1,000, but all sell
for at least $420. This means that we can have 10 sell at $420. That leaves 14 more
that sell for $1,000 or more. So, in order to minimize the prices of these 14
products, we would want to price each at $1,000. That means that, out of the
$30,000 total that it will take to purchase one of each item, only 10($420) +
14($1,000) = $18,200 is needed in order to purchase the 24 cheapest items. The
greatest selling price of the most expensive item can thus be calculated as $30,000 -
$18,200 = $11,800.












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Question 5

In a certain game, each player scores either 2 points or 5 points. If n players score 2
points and m players score 5 points, and the total number of points scored is 50,
what is the least possible positive difference between n and m?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
E. 9

Answers & Explanations

B
The quickest solution is to pick numbers for n and m. Since n = 1 and m = 1 would
amount to 7 points, and since we want to minimize the difference between n and m,
and since 50/7 is just a bit more than 7, we'll start with values near 7.
The key is to discover what values for n, when multiplied by 2 points, will leave a
multiple of 5 as the remaining points. The solution turns out to be 5 for n (10
points), which allows for 8 for m (40 points). That's a total of 50 points, and the
positive difference between the two values is only 3.

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GMAT Sentence Correction Practice Questions

Directions: The following questions consist of sentences that are either
partly or entirely underlined.
Select the answer choice that represents the best revision of the underlined
text. Choice A duplicates the original version. If the original seems better
than any of the revisions, then select it.

Question 1
The concert this weekend promises to attract an even greater amount of people than
attended the last one.
A. an even greater amount of people
B. an ever larger amount of people
C. an amount of people even greater
D. a number of people even larger
E. an even greater number of people

Answers and Explanations

E
Notice that three choices contain the word amount and two choices contain number.
People, because they can be counted, come in numbers rather than amounts. (E) is
best because of the remaining two because the phrase an even greater amount of
people clearly refers to more people, while a number of people even larger could be
referring to bigger people.


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Question 2
Records of the first 736 British convicts deported to Australia reveal convictions for
crimes against property in all cases and they ranged from highway robbery to
forgery.
A. convictions for crimes against property in all cases and they ranged
B. convictions in all cases were crimes against property and ranging
C. the ranging of convictions for crimes against property in all cases
D. that all were convicted of crimes against property ranging
E. that all of them had convictions for crimes that were against property; the
range was



Answers and Explanations

D
(A) is awkwardly worded and the pronoun they has more than one possible
antecedent. In (B) the two verbs linked by and aren't parallel; "were convicted"
doesn't match "ranging." In choice (C), "the ranging of convictions" is awkward and
unidiomatic. Choice (E) is wordy. (D) is the best choice.











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Question 3
Scoliosis, a condition when the spine curves abnormally and throws the body out of
line, can cause heart and lung problems as well as physical deformity.
A. a condition when the spine curves abnormally and throws the body out of line
B. an abnormal curvature of the spine that throws the body out of line
C. a condition of the spine curving abnormally and in which the body is thrown
out of line
D. where the body is thrown out of line by an abnormal curvature of the spine
E. a condition of an abnormal curvature of the spine throwing the body out of
line


Answers and Explanations

B
Choices (A) and (D) are wrong because when should be used only to refer to a time,
and where should be used only to refer to a place. Choices (C) and (E) are wordy
and awkward.











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Question 4
Many of the thousands of students currently enrolled in night courses hope for the
exchanging of their drab jobs for new careers that are challenging.
A. for the exchanging of their drab jobs for new careers that are challenging
B. for exchanging drab jobs for new careers that will challenge them
C. to exchange their drab jobs with new careers that will be new and challenging
D. to exchange their drab jobs for new and challenging careers
E. to exchanging their drab jobs and find careers that will be new and
challenging.



Answers and Explanations


C
In this sentence, the students want to do something (change careers); the proper
idiom is hope to instead of hope for. So eliminate (A) and (B). The use of exchange
for is incorrect in choice (D). In choice (E), something's missing; this version of the
sentence doesn't specify what the "drab jobs" are being exchanged for. Choice (C) is
correct.







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Question 5
The public's widespread belief in the existence of UFOs and their general curiosity
about extraterrestrial life has generated considerable interest in science fiction.
A. UFOs and their general curiosity about extraterrestrial life has
B. UFOs and they are generally curious about extraterrestrial life which has
C. UFOs, as well as their general curiosity about extraterrestrial life, have
D. UFOs, as well as its general curiosity about extraterrestrial life, has
E. UFOs, as well as general curiosity about extraterrestrial life, have


Answers and Explanations

D
The original has two mistakes. First, there's a problem with subject/verb agreement.
It's also unclear what the word their refers to—public or UFOs. Logically, it would
seem the reference is to the public, but public is singular; so we would have to use
its, not their. Choice (B) is awkward. Choices (C), (D), and (E) change the sentence's
structure so that the word belief becomes the only subject—now we need a singular
verb. Only (D) contains the singular verb has.

GMAT PAST QUESTIONS


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GMAT Practice Questions

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GMAT Practice Test

GMAT Quantitative
Problem-solving
Solve these problems and indicate the best of the answer choices given. All
numbers used are real numbers.

1. If a = 3 and b = -2, what is the value of a2
+ 3ab – b2
?
A. 5
B. -13
C. -4
D. -20
E. 13

2. 34 is what percent of 80?
A. 34%
B. 40%
C. 42.5%
D. 44.5%
E. 52%

3. Jack and Kevin play in a basketball game. If the ratio of points scored by
Jack to points scored by Kevin is 4 to 3, which of the following could NOT be the
total number of points scored by the two boys?
A. 7
B. 14
C. 16
D. 28
E. 35

4. Factor the following expression: x2
+ x – 12
A. (x – 4) (x + 4)
B. (x – 2) (x + 6)
C. (x + 6) (x – 2)
D. (x – 4) (x + 3)
E. (x + 4) (x – 3)

5. The average of six numbers is 4. If the average of two of those numbers is 2,
what is the average of the other four numbers?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
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6. What is the next-highest prime number after 67?
A. 68
B. 69
C. 71
D. 73
E. 76

7. Solve: 0.25 x 0.03 =
A. 75
B. 0.075
C. 0.75
D. 0.0075
E. 7.5

8. Dean’s Department Store reduces the price of a $30 shirt by 20%, but later
raises it again by 20% of the sale price. What is the final price of the shirt?
A. $24.40
B. $32
C. $30
D. $28.80
E. $26.60

9. How many 3-inch segments can a 4.5-yard line be divided into?
A. 15
B. 45
C. 54
D. 64
E. 84

10. Sheila, Janice, and Karen, working together at the same rate, can complete
a job in 3 1/3 days. Working at the same rate, how much of the job could Janice
and Karen do in one day?
A. 1/5
B. 1/4
C. 1/3
D. 1/9
E. 1/8

11. Dave can deliver four newspapers every minute. At this rate, how many
newspapers can he deliver in 2 hours?
A. 80
B. 160
C. 320
D. 400
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12. = ÷ 8 6
2 4
A. 2
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
E. 64

13. If a = 4, b = 3, and c = 1, then =
+ +
−
) (
) (
c b a b
c b a

A. 4/13
B. 1/3
C. 1/4
D. 1/6
E. 2/7

14. What is 20% of
5
12
, expressed as a percentage?
A. 48%
B. 65%
C. 72%
D. 76%
E. 84%

15. Archie’s gas tank is 1/3 full. If Archie adds 3 gallons of gas to the tank, it will
be ½ full. What is the capacity in gallons of Archie’s tank?
A. 28
B. 12
C. 20
D. 16
E. 18

Data sufficiency
This Data Sufficiency problem consists of a question and two statements, labeled
(1) and (2), in which certain data are given. You have to decide whether the data
given in the statements are sufficient for answering the question, using only the
data given in the statements and your knowledge of mathematics and everyday
facts (such as the number of days in July or the meaning of counterclockwise).

16. Does Jonathan get paid more than Deborah?
(1) Alice gets paid more than Deborah.
(2) Jonathan makes less money than Alice.

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient. *GMATTM is a registered trademark of The Graduate Management Admission
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B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient.
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

17. Is the integer a less than the integer b?
(1) a3
< b3

(2) a2
< b2


A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient.
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient.
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

18. Is the perimeter of a given rectangle greater than 8 inches?
(1) The two shorter sides of the rectangle are 2 inches long.
(2) The length of the rectangle is 2 inches greater than the width of the

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient.
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient.
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

19. Is a an integer?
(1) a > 0
(2) 42
+ 32
= a2


A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient.
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient.
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

20. What is the value of the integer P?
(1) P is an integer multiple of 2, 4, and 5.
(2) 40 < P < 70

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient.
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient. *GMATTM is a registered trademark of The Graduate Management Admission
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C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

21. Brian is dividing 50 marbles into 3 groups. How many marbles are in the
largest of the three groups?
(1) The sum of the two smaller groups of marbles is equal to the largest
group of marbles.
(2) The smallest group contains 6 marbles.

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient.
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient.
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

22. Is b a positive number?
(1) 1,452(b) > 0
(2) –b < 0

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient.
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient.
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

23. Is x greater than y?
(1) x > 2y
(2) x – y > 0

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient.
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient.
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

24. What is the average test score of Angela, Barry, Carl, Dennis, and Edward?
(1) The average of the test scores of Barry, Carl, and Edward is 87.
(2) The average of the test scores of Angela and Dennis is 84.

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient.
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient. *GMATTM is a registered trademark of The Graduate Management Admission
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C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

25. If y is an integer, is it an odd number?
(1) y3
≥ 0
(2) y is either an odd number or a negative number

A. Statement (1) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (2) is not sufficient.
B. Statement (2) ALONE is sufficient, but statement (1) is not sufficient.
C. BOTH statements TOGETHER are sufficient, but NEITHER statement
ALONE is sufficient.
D. EACH statement ALONE is sufficient.
E. Statements (1) and (2) TOGETHER are NOT sufficient.

GMAT Verbal Ability
Critical Reasoning
For these questions, select the best of the answer choices given.

26. The latest movie by a certain director gets bad reviews before it
opens in theatres. Consequently, very few people go to the movie and the
director is given much less money to make his next movie, which is also
unsuccessful.

What can be inferred from this scenario?
A. This director makes terrible movies.
B. The general public does not pay attention to movie reviews.
C. The movie reviewers were right about the first movie.
D. Movie reviewers exert influence on the movie quality.
E. The director will not make another movie.

27. The most important determinant of success in life is education. Even children
from broken or dysfunctional homes tend to establish themselves as solid
citizens so long as they obtain a high school education. On the other hand,
children who fail to earn a high school diploma are much less likely to avoid
prison, welfare, or divorce.

Which of the following statements most effectively strengthens the above
argument?
A. A recent study demonstrated a link between education and lifetime
earnings.
B. Most federal prisoners receive a high school diploma while incarcerated. *GMATTM is a registered trademark of The Graduate Management Admission
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C. Research indicates that college graduates from abusive homes are more
likely to be arrested.
D. Individuals with heart problems are more likely to have postgraduate
education.
E. Children from functional homes are more likely to attend preschool.

28. (1) All A are B.
(2) Some B are C.

Which of the following is true?
A. All A are C.
B. No A are C.
C. Some A are C.
D. No C are A.
E. None of the above.

29. Shakespeare is the greatest writer of all time. This is because he wrote the
greatest plays, and the greatest writer is the one who composes the greatest
works.

Which of the following statements most effectively challenges the reasoning
above?
A. This argument disproves its own premise.
B. This argument uses ambiguous language.
C. This argument assumes what it claims to prove.
D. This argument introduces irrelevant evidence.
E. This argument fails to make a clear claim.

30. In the 2000 local election, only 28% of individuals between the ages of 18
and 25 voted. In the 2004 local election, however, candidates made more of an
effort to appeal to these younger voters, so turnout was slightly higher at 39%.

Which of the following pieces of information weakens the above argument?
A. The candidates for city council were ages 55, 72, and 64.
B. The turnout among voters between the ages of 35 and 44 was 42% in
2004.
C. Turnout among African-Americans between 18 and 25 decreased from
2000 to 2004.
D. The polls stayed open later on Election Day in 2000.
E. In 2004, a referendum on lowering the legal age for purchasing alcohol to
18 was on the ballot.

31. Members of Congress should not be paid. After all, members of the school
board receive no payment, and are therefore not beholden to any particular
group.
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Which of the following facts most significantly weakens the above argument?
A. Members of Congress can also serve on the school board.
B. Being in Congress is a full-time job, while school board members have
time to pursue other occupations.
C. Congress only is in session during part of the year.
D. Members of Congress typically have been successful in their prior
professional lives.
E. Members of Congress are not allowed to show favoritism to any particular
group.

32. All German cars are safe. Dale drives a German car, so his car is safe.

Which of the following arguments contains logic that closely resembles that of the
preceding argument?
A. The newest cars often get better gas mileage. Helen has a new car,
which must get better gas mileage.
B. A few of the candidates for governor are women. Dr. Lopez is a woman.
C. No brands of natural peanut butter contain preservatives. The peanut
butter in Dave’s cabinet contains preservatives.
D. Every shark has a tailfin. The hammerhead is a kind of shark and
therefore has a tailfin.
E. Some days of the week are Saturdays and Sundays. Today is neither
Saturday nor Sunday.

33. The Tigers football team usually loses when they score fewer than 30 points.
In their game against the Wildcats, they scored 24 points.

Which of the following statements would logically complete the argument with the
above premises?
A. The Tigers lost to the Wildcats.
B. The Wildcats are the best football team in the league.
C. The Wildcats probably lost to the Tigers.
D. The Tigers are not a very good football team.
E. The Tigers probably lost to the Wildcats.

34. Dr. Jacobson stood up at the recent town hall meeting and declared that
building a new shopping center at the corner of George and Vidalia Streets would
be a bad move. He cited transportation department statistics indicating that the
intersection would become overloaded with traffic, and would be very dangerous
for motorists and pedestrians alike. The mayor dismissed Dr. Jacobson’s
opinion, on the grounds that the proposed shopping center is within a block of Dr.
Jacobson’s practice.

Why is the mayor’s argument weak?
A. He does not challenge Dr. Jacobson’s argument, but merely challenges
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B. He does not acknowledge the location of his own office.
C. He fails to recognize that Dr. Jacobson would probably welcome a new
shopping center near his practice.
D. He does not support his view with statistics from the transportation
department.
E. He doesn’t realize that Dr. Jacobson is about to retire.

Sentence correction
These questions present a sentence, all or part of which is underlined. Beneath
each sentence you will find five ways of phrasing the underlined part. The first of
these repeats the original; the other four are different. If you think the original is
best, choose the first answer; otherwise, choose one of the other answers.

These questions test correctness and effectiveness of expression. In choosing
your answer, follow the requirements of standard written English; that is, pay
attention to grammar, choice of words, and sentence construction. Choose the
answer that produces the most effective sentence; this answer should be clear
and exact, without awkwardness, ambiguity, redundancy, or grammatical error.

35. If he stops to consider the ramifications of this decision, it is probable that he
will rethink his original decision a while longer.

A. it is probable that he will rethink his original decision.
B. he will rethink his original decision over again.
C. he probably will rethink his original decision.
D. he will most likely rethink his original decision for a bit.
E. he probably will rethink his decision a while longer.

36. “When you get older,” she said “you will no doubt understand what I mean.”

A. older,” she said “you will no doubt
B. older” she said “you will no doubt
C. older,” she said, “you will no doubt
D. older,” she said “you will not
E. older”, she said, “you will no doubt

37. Dr. Anderson strolled past the nurses, examining a bottle of pills.

A. Dr. Anderson strolled past the nurses, examining a bottle of pills.
B. Dr. Anderson strolled past the nurses examining a bottle of pills.
C. Dr. Anderson strolled past, the nurses examining a bottle of pills.
D. Examining a bottle of pills Dr. Anderson strolled past the nurses.
E. Examining a bottle of pills, Dr. Anderson strolled past the nurses.
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38. Karl and Henry raced to the reservoir, climbed the ladder, and then they
dove into the cool water.

A. raced to the reservoir, climbed the ladder, and then they dove into
B. first raced to the reservoir, climbed the ladder, and then they dove into
C. raced to the reservoir, they climbed the ladder, and then they dove into
D. raced to the reservoir; climbed the ladder; and then they dove into
E. raced to the reservoir, climbed the ladder, and dove into

39. Did either Tracy or Vanessa realize that her decision would be so
momentous?

A. Tracy or Vanessa realize that her decision would be
B. Tracy or Vanessa realize that each of their decision was
C. Tracy or Vanessa realize that her or her decision would be
D. Tracy or Vanessa realize that their decision would be
E. Tracy or Vanessa realize that their decision was

40. Despite their lucky escape, Jason and his brother could not hardly enjoy
themselves.

A. Jason and his brother could not hardly enjoy themselves.
B. Jason and his brother could not enjoy themselves.
C. Jason and Jason’s brother could not hardly enjoy themselves.
D. Jason and his brother could not enjoy them.
E. Jason and his brother could hardly enjoy them.


TO BE CONTINUED

CONTINUED...

41. Stew recipes call for rosemary, parsley, thyme, and these sort of herbs.

A. for rosemary, parsley, thyme, and these sort of herbs.
B. for: rosemary; parsley; thyme; and these sort of herbs.
C. for rosemary, parsley, thyme, and these sorts of herbs.
D. for rosemary, parsley, thyme, and this sorts of herbs.
E. for rosemary, parsley, thyme, and these sorts of herb.

42. Mr. King, an individual of considerable influence, created a personal fortune
and gave back to the community.

A. an individual of considerable influence, created a personal fortune and
gave back
B. an individual of considerable influence, he created a personal fortune and
gave back
C. an individual of considerable influence created a personal fortune and
gave back
D. an individual of considerable influence, created a personal fortune and
gave it back *GMATTM is a registered trademark of The Graduate Management Admission
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E. an individual of considerable influence, created a personal fortune and
then he gave it back

43. She is the person whose opinion matters the most.

A. She is the person whose opinion matters the most.
B. She is the person to whom opinion matters the most.
C. She is the person who matters the most, in my opinion.
D. She is the person for whom opinion matters the most.
E. She is the person which has her opinion matter the most.

Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the seven questions that follow.

In the United States, where we have more land than people, it is
not at all difficult for persons in good health to make money. In this
comparatively new field there are so many avenues of success open, so
many vocations which are not crowded, that any person of either sex
who is willing, at least for the time being, to engage in any respectable
occupation that offers, may find lucrative employment.
Those who really desire to attain an independence, have only to
set their minds upon it, and adopt the proper means, as they do in regard
to any other object which they wish to accomplish, and the thing is easily
done. But however easy it may be found to make money, I have no
doubt many of my hearers will agree it is the most difficult thing in the
world to keep it. The road to wealth is, as Dr. Franklin truly says, "as
plain as the road to the mill." It consists simply in expending less than we
earn; that seems to be a very simple problem. Mr. Micawber, one of
those happy creations of the genial Dickens, puts the case in a strong
light when he says that to have annual income of twenty pounds per
annum, and spend twenty pounds and sixpence, is to be the most
miserable of men; whereas, to have an income of only twenty pounds,
and spend but nineteen pounds and sixpence is to be the happiest of
mortals.
Many of my readers may say, "we understand this: this is
economy, and we know economy is wealth; we know we can't eat our
cake and keep it also." Yet I beg to say that perhaps more cases of
failure arise from mistakes on this point than almost any other. The fact
is, many people think they understand economy when they really do not.

44. Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the
passage?
A. Getting a job is easier now than it ever has been before.
B. Earning money is much less difficult than managing it properly.
C. Dr. Franklin advocated getting a job in a mill. *GMATTM is a registered trademark of The Graduate Management Admission
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D. Spending money is the greatest temptation in the world.
E. There is no way to predict changes in the economy.

45. What would this author’s attitude likely be to a person unable to find
employment?
A. descriptive
B. conciliatory
C. ingenuous
D. incredulous
E. exculpatory

46. According to the author, what is more difficult than making money?
A. getting a job
B. traveling to a mill
C. reading Dickens
D. understanding the economy
E. managing money

47. Who is the most likely audience for this passage?
A. economists
B. general readers
C. teachers
D. philanthropists
E. children

48. What is the best definition of economy as it is used in this passage?
A. exchange of money, goods, and services
B. delegation of household affairs
C. efficient money management
D. less expensive
E. luxurious accommodations

49. Which word best describes the author’s attitude towards those who believe
they understand money?
A. supportive
B. incriminating
C. excessive
D. patronizing
E. incendiary

50. This passage is most likely taken from a(n) _____.
A. self-help manual
B. autobiography
C. epistle
D. novel
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Answer Key
Quantitative
Problem-solving
1. B. Simply substitute the given values for a and b and perform the required
operations.
2. C. This problem is solved by finding x in this equation: 34/80 = x/100.
3. C. Every possible combination of scores is a multiple of 7, since the two terms of
the ratio have a sum of seven.
4. E. To solve this problem, work backwards. That is, perform FOIL on each answer
choice until you derive the original expression.
5. A. A set of six numbers with an average of 4 must have a collective sum of 24. The
two numbers that average 2 will add up to 4, so the remaining numbers must add up
to 20. The average of these four numbers can be calculated: 20/4 = 5.
6. C. Prime numbers are those that are only evenly divisible by one and themselves.
7. D. Simple Multiplication.
8. D. Multiply 30 by 0.2 and subtract this from the original price of the shirt to find
the sale price: $24. Then multiply 24 by 0.2 and add the product to the sale price to
find the final price.
9. C. There are 12 inches in a foot and 3 feet in a yard. Four and a half yards is equal
to 162 inches. To determine the number of 3-inche segments, divide 162 by 3.
10. A. If it takes 3 people 3 1/3 days to do the job, then it would take one person 10
days: 10
3
1
3 3 = × . Thus, it would take 2 people 5 days, and one day of work for two
people would complete 1/5 of the job.
11. E. There are 60 minutes in an hour, so Dave can deliver 240 newspapers every
hour. In 2 hours, then, he can deliver 480 papers.
12. C. Since 4 is the same as 22, 46 = 212. When dividing exponents with the same
base, simply subtract the exponent in the denominator from the exponent in the
numerator.
13. B. Substitute the given values and solve. Resolve the parenthetical operations
first.
14. A. Convert 20% to the fraction 1/5, then multiply by 12/5. The resulting
fraction, 12/25, must have both numerator and denominator multiplied by 4 to
become a percentage.
15. E. This problem can be solved with the following equation, in which x = the total
capacity of the tank: 3
3
1
2
1
+ = x x .

Data sufficiency
16. E. The two statements establish only that Alice is paid more than both Jonathan
and Deborah; they do not indicate which of these latter two is paid more. *GMATTM is a registered trademark of The Graduate Management Admission
CouncilTM, who does not endorse, nor is affiliated in any way with the owner or
the content in this file.
16
17. A. Since the cubes of a and b will retain the original sign (whether positive or
negative), it will be possible to assess the relative sizes of a and b.
18. A. If the two shorter sides add up to 4 inches in length, the two longer sides
must be greater than 4 inches, meaning that the perimeter will be greater than 8
inches.
19. B. The first statement only establishes that a is a positive number; it does not
require that a is an integer.
20. C. 60 is the only integer between 40 and 70 that is a multiple of 2, 4, and 5.
21. A. The first statement establishes that the larger group constitutes half of the
total amount of marbles, which means it must be equal to 25 marbles.
22. D. For (1), the fact that a positive number multiplied by b has a positive product
establishes that b is a positive number. For (2), any positive number with a negative
sign placed in front of it will become negative, indicating that b is a positive number.
23. B. It would be possible for x and y to be negative numbers and still satisfy the
conditions of (1), but it then would be impossible to satisfy (2).
24. C. As long as the sum of all five test scores can be calculated, it will be possible to
calculate the average score.
25. C. In order for (1) to be true, y must be either positive or zero. Therefore,
according to the terms of (2), y must be odd.

Verbal Ability
Critical Reasoning
26. D. The negative reviews led to the poor quality of the second movie.
27. A. This evidence would support the assertions of the given argument.
28. E. There is no way of determining whether any, some, or none of A are C.
29. C. This is an example of circular reasoning, in which the proof depends on
assumptions which themselves have not been proven.
30. E. It seems likely that this referendum could influence many young people to
vote.
31. B. Drawing an analogy between being a member of Congress and serving on the
school board is highly dubious.
32. D. The logic of this argument can be expressed as follows: All A are B. C is A,
therefore C is B.
33. E. There is no way to be certain that the Tigers lost, though it seems likely.
34. A. The mayor is essentially using an ad hominem argument, in which the
character of the opponent rather than the merits of his reasoning is attacked.

Sentence correction
35. C. The original sentence is redundant and wordy.
36. C. The syntax of the original sentence is fine, but a comma after said but before
the open-quotation mark is required. *GMATTM is a registered trademark of The Graduate Management Admission
CouncilTM, who does not endorse, nor is affiliated in any way with the owner or
the content in this file.
17
37. E. In the original sentence, the modifier is placed too far away from the word it
modifies.
38. E. The verb structure should be consistent in a sentence with parallel structures.
39. A. The singular pronoun her is appropriate since the antecedents are joined by
or. Also, the subjunctive verb form is required to indicate something indefinite.
40. B. The combination of hardly and not constitutes a double negative.
41. C. The plural demonstrative adjective these should be used with the plural noun
sorts.
42. A. This sentence contains a number of parallel structures that must be treated
consistently.
43. A. In this sentence, whose is the appropriate possessive pronoun to modify
opinion.

Reading Comprehension
44. B. The author asserts both that earning money is increasingly easy and that
managing money is difficult.
45. D. The author seems to believe that there are plenty of lucrative jobs for
everyone.
46. E. The author insists that many people who have no trouble earning money
waste it through lavish spending.
47. B. This passage is clearly intended for a non-expert adult readership.
48. C. Here, the author is speaking of money management on a personal or
household level.
49. D. The author suggests that many people who believe they understand economy
in fact do not.
50. A. It seems clear that the author is about to describe the correct means of
personal economy.


*GMATTM is a registered trademark of The Graduate Management Admission
CouncilTM, who does not endorse, nor is affiliated in any way with the owner or
the content in this file.
18
Analytical Writing Assessment

Analysis of an Issue

This writing task is designed to test your ability to present a position on an issue
effectively and persuasively. Your task is to analyze the issue presented, considering
various perspectives, and to develop your own position on the issue. In scoring your
issue essay, readers will consider how effectively you: recognize and deal with the
complexities and implications of the issue; organize, develop, and express your ideas;
support your ideas with reasons and examples; control the elements of standard
written English. You are given 30 minutes to write the response. You must not write
on any other subject than the one expressed in the prompt. You are allowed to accept,
reject, or qualify the statement made by the prompt, though you must be sure to
support whatever position you take with reasons and examples from your experience,
observation, reading, and/or academic studies. You should take a few minutes to plan
your response before typing.


Sample #1

The volunteer fire department in a rural district is in need of some new equipment.
Some members of the community believe that the fire department should hold a
fund-raising event like a carnival or a raffle. Others argue that the citizens of the
community should all be required to contribute to any equipment costs. Some
critics of this proposal say that if citizens are required to pay for new equipment
they should have the authority to vote on whether the new equipment is needed.

Sample #2

There is at present a heated debate over the role of the United States in foreign
affairs. Some experts argue that the cost and unintended consequences of American
intervention are so great that the United States should simply mind its own
business. Others assert that America’s economic and political power necessitate
foreign intervention, both to protect American interests and human rights. Another
group derides these opposing views as condescending to the people of other
countries, and suggests that the United States consult with foreign countries before
becoming involved in their affairs.

Sample #3

Although elementary education proposals have typically emphasized math and
science, there is a growing movement to restore fine arts education in the early
grades. Many education experts assert that neglecting music, dance, and painting *GMATTM is a registered trademark of The Graduate Management Admission
CouncilTM, who does not endorse, nor is affiliated in any way with the owner or
the content in this file.
19
produces students who have a great deal of knowledge but little capability of
expression. Furthermore, they argue, the creativity and free-thinking required for
the practice of the fine arts leads to innovation and progress in other areas. Critics
of these proposals argue that the United States still lags behind other countries in
science and mathematics test scores, and should focus on improving performance in
these areas before allocating extra funds to arts programs.

Sample #4

The population of the town of Cedar Grove has risen considerably in the last few
years, leading to rapid growth in the local economy. At the same time, there has
been an increasing need for housing. Many of the new residents want to live on
large tracts of land a few miles away from the city center. They argue that there are
no land restrictions forbidding this, and that they should be able to live where they
want. Other residents complain that expanding the town over a huge amount of
land will estrange residents from one another, and will force the town to spend
more money bolstering highways and infrastructure. They propose that the city
council restrict development in these far-flung areas until the terrain closer to town
has been fully populated.

Sample #5

The federal government has long struggled with the issue of income tax. Many
people feel that government programs require the collection of an income tax, and
that it makes sense to collect more tax money from the wealthier members of
society. Other people declare that is unfair to penalize individuals for being
successful, and suggest that the same amount of income tax be applied to all citizens.
These people further suggest that overtaxing the wealthiest members of society
actually has a deleterious effect on the economy for everyone, because it
discourages investment and the creation of new jobs.

Analysis of an Argument

This writing task is designed to test your critical reasoning skills as well as your
writing skills. Your task is to critique the stated argument in terms of its logical
soundness and in terms of the strength of the evidence offered in support of the
argument. In scoring your argument essay, the reader will consider how effectively
you: identify and analyze the key elements of the argument; organize, develop, and
express your critique; support your ideas with reasons and examples; control the
elements of standard written English.

You are not being asked to agree or disagree with any of the statements in the
argument. You should only consider the argument’s line of reasoning. Specifically, you
should consider: questionable assumptions underlying the argument; the extent to *GMATTM is a registered trademark of The Graduate Management Admission
CouncilTM, who does not endorse, nor is affiliated in any way with the owner or
the content in this file.
20
which the evidence presented supports the conclusion of the argument; what
additional evidence would help to strengthen or refute the argument; and what
additional information if any would help you to evaluate the argument’s conclusion.

Sample #1

Over the past few years, baseball officials have come to the realization that it is
impossible to entirely eradicate performance-enhancing drugs. Despite stringent
testing measures, many players continue to use amphetamines, steroids, and other
banned substances to improve their performance on the diamond. In light of this
failure, some players have demanded that the commissioner of baseball simply
allow all players to make use of these substances under medical supervision.
According to these players, allowing performance-enhancing drugs will eliminate
cheating and ensure that training regimens are safe.

Sample #2

When drivers visit a state office to renew their licensure, they are not tested on the
road or on the basic signs and procedures of driving. A new safety commission has
declared that in order to reduce accidents on the road, drivers should be required to
pass a comprehensive driving test every time they seek to renew their driver’s
license. They also argue that individuals over the age of 60 should be forced to
provide permission from a doctor in order to maintain their licensure.

Sample #3

According to the author of a recent editorial, most of the problems in the United
States are a consequence of the national dependence on oil. Oil consumption is
expensive, damaging to the environment, and requires the United States to do
business with some unsavory regimes. The United States should therefore impose
strict gas-mileage requirements on automobiles, effective immediately. Although
this would pose some temporary problems for the economy, in the long run it would
be the best solution to American oil addiction.

Sample #4

All college athletics programs should be discontinued immediately. Athletics
programs are extremely expensive to maintain, and waste resources and space that
could be better spent on academic pursuits. Furthermore, college athletics diminish
the role of academics in the college experience, and tend to be a distraction from the
true purpose of the university: to produce educated, informed, and productive
citizens.

Sample #5
*GMATTM is a registered trademark of The Graduate Management Admission
CouncilTM, who does not endorse, nor is affiliated in any way with the owner or
the content in this file.
21
A state government has decided that rather than maintain tollbooths and employees
to generate funds for road improvement, it would be more efficient to simply
increase the state income tax. Proponents of this plan declare that even those
individuals who do not drive on the toll road are the recipients of goods transported
there. They also suggest that money can be saved by reducing the number of state
employees and maintenance on aging toll offices.

oyewoleibk001@yahoo.com

This G-mat questions no be play o

This is to inform Nigerian Students of SHELL Student Industrial Training (IT) and Internship Program and a full guideline on
how to apply successfully.
Shell Companies in Nigeria’s Student Industrial Training Program offers Nigerian students in Higher Institutions the opportunity to gain work experience in different location.
The following are the list of eligible study courses:
1. Engineering
2. Earth Sciences (Geology, Geophysics, Geography)
3. Sciences
4. Social Sciences
5. Medical Sciences.
The program provides hands-on work experience from day one, providing students the opportunity to work directly
with inspiring and experienced
professionals. The insights and ‘ skills gained by the end of the program would be invaluable for future careers.
This Industrial Training Program is designed for students to:
Put theories and concepts into practice, Begin to build work related skills required for the business environment through
constructive feedback and supervision, Improve general business/industry understanding,
Gain additional skills in areas such as communication, team building, problem solving and analytical reasoning, Build valuable networks and contacts for
professional development, Gain insights into career options to
support choice of specialised field area to build and develop one’s career.
WHO CAN APPLY?
Eligible applicants must:
1. Be enrolled full‐time in a Higher education Institution (University or Polytechnic)
2. Have authorisation from their school to participate in the program.
HOW TO APPLY
1. All applicants should have their
personal valid email account (for
consistent communication)
2. Applicants who meet the above
requirements should apply via email, at: africarecruitment@shell.com
Email content must include:
Student’s name, Name of University/institution of higher
learning, Matriculation Number/ student ID number, Course of study, Required duration/period for internship, and Contact details,
Scanned copy of official letter/ form from higher institution.
APPLICATION DEADLINE
All applicants are expected to apply not later than 3 months before the proposed start
date.
Please note that industrial training opportunities are based on business needs and limited slots are available yearly.
http://www.shell.com.ng/aboutshell/careers-tpkg/students-and-graduates/student-industrial-training-and-internship-program.html

ThankyouJesus, I presume that's for students that are ready for IT?.

FrancisTony:
ThankyouJesus, I presume that's for students that are ready for IT?.

yeah

Does UI do pre degree?

and if yes,is the form out?

Lolu01:
Can you post things that are relevant to this thread. i.e things concerning u.i admission. These your posts are too freaking long and unecessary on this thread

GOT YOU NOW.



I WAS TRYING TO HELP OUT, THAT WILL ALL SHA, NO VEX.




ANYWAYS, QUOTE ME IF YOU NEED ANYTHING CONCERNING UI.



HI! YOU QUOTE AND SAID NOTHING?






BTW! WHATSUP?

kelechiug:
they af come again

NA Mr. FRANK PUT MY NAME FOR MERIT LIST NA,



ABI YOU DON FORGET Mr. FRANK AFTER EVERYTHING IM DO FOR US?

SPINAHDO:
Does UI do pre degree?

and if yes,is the form out?

NO.


Cc FRANCISTONY.

A BLESSED MORNING TO YOU ALL...

.

k

Seunvense:
Sent.

please I also need the gmat, samuelbisi@ymail.com

INTROVERT247:
I don't think you guys can apply for the scholarship now since you haven't resume as 100 level student.

The questions will comprises mathematics,aptitude test(verbal and quantitative) and english language. You can start practising now with gmat.

Mention me with your email if you need gmat.

please I need gmat samuelbisi@ymail.com

Great Uite!!!!!!!! Am opeola_zeal, an Eco- student of Unilorin. I will love to meet an economics student of diz prestigious uni plz... If u are one, kindly reply me back or add me on whatsapp wit 08182576589. May ur zeal for d prospect neva diminish for any reason.. Proudly Economist

@hormohtola..check ur mails...it's been sent,
@cassyrooy.....abeg small small na.....nobody will read all that

Plz friends... Full details on pols 111 and pols 113.

Jossy4luv1:
It is my pleasure to welcome you to this wonderful thread.This thread is for candidates that have chose or that will be choosing University of Ibadan as their preferred choice of institution in the 2015/16 ume..I need the help of other University of Ibadan students to make this thread a successful one..THANKS AND GOD BLESS YOU ALL

please when will supprementary list be out for this year ui Admission? I need info coz am dying here

dry thread