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A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... - Religion (2) - Nairaland

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Who Are The 3 Best Teachers Of The Scripture In Nigeria? / Why You Must Never Be A Trinitarian Christian / Jehohava Witnesses, Please Explain This Scripture For Me!!!! (2) (3) (4)

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Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by seyipeters(m): 10:29am On Jan 15, 2015
He is the image of the invisible God, the
firstborn of every creature. You cant understand the nature of God with your head knowledge except God the father reveals himself to you.And without controversy great is the mystery
of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh,
justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached
unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world,
received up into glory.1Tim.3:16. For there are three that bear record in heaven,
the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and
these three are one.1John 5:7
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by CANTICLES: 11:56am On Jan 15, 2015
italo:
Jehovah's Witnesses!

Jesus is God because the Bible says so.

"In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and the word was God...


The folly of religion ..... Uv forgotten The original greek doesnt have CAPITAL LETTERS like english language

It literally reads " in d beginin was the word, and the word was towards the god, and god was the word" a translator must supply capital letters into d language in which he translates
statement
1) the word was toward the god ! : this clearly show d word WAS WITH someone ! Which no doubt refer to the Almighty God ,

2) and god was the word ..... This secon "g" has no justification to be capitalized !!

Verse 2 indicates that the word is not the Almighty God ....

Joh 1:2 " This one ( the word) was in the beginning with God "


..and the word became flesh and lived amongst us."

d Word, only begotten son became flesh NOT GOD who sent him into d world ( JOH 3:16
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by italo: 12:42pm On Jan 15, 2015
CANTICLES:


The folly of religion ..... Uv forgotten The original greek doesnt have CAPITAL LETTERS like english language

It literally reads " in d beginin was the word, and the word was towards the god, and god was the word" a translator must supply capital letters into d language in which he translates
statement
1) the word was toward the god ! : this clearly show d word WAS WITH someone ! Which no doubt refer to the Almighty God ,

2) and god was the word ..... This secon "g" has no justification to be capitalized !!

Verse 2 indicates that the word is not the Almighty God ....

Joh 1:2 " This one ( the word) was in the beginning with God "


d Word, only begotten son became flesh NOT GOD who sent him into d world ( JOH 3:16

Jehovah's witnesses and rigmarolling! grin

Let me ask you a simple question:

Who is "the first and the last."

God or Jesus?

* you go dance tire today.
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by paulGrundy(m): 2:38pm On Jan 15, 2015
CANTICLES:


The folly of religion ..... Uv forgotten The original greek doesnt have CAPITAL LETTERS like english language

It literally reads " in d beginin was the word, and the word was towards the god, and [b]g[/b]od was the word"

Koine Greek--Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεός ἦν ὁ λόγος.

Greek transliteration--En archē ēn ho Lógos, kai ho Lógos ēn pros ton Theón, kai Theós ēn ho Lógos.

Greek to English--In beginning was the Word, and the Word was with (toward) the God, and [b]G[/b]od was the Word.

http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_1:1

That's the original interlinear translation^^^. Funny thing is that you stated that the original greek does not have CAPS. But you didn't tell us that your society delibrately inserted small letters to suit their bias. grin grin grin
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by eternalifee: 3:03pm On Jan 15, 2015
CAPTIVATOR:
Welcome ... Can u try to explain this :

" For Christ did not enter into a holy place made with hands .... But he entered into heavens itself, so that he now appears before God on our behalf ." !! Heb 9:24

Pls, Did christ appear before himself ??

Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by eternalifee: 3:07pm On Jan 15, 2015
CAPTIVATOR:
Welcome ... Can u try to explain this :

" For Christ did not enter into a holy place made with hands .... But he entered into heavens itself, so that he now appears before God on our behalf ." !! Heb 9:24

Pls, Did christ appear before himself ??


EXPLANATION :
Jesus is the Word of God (John 1:1), which the Qur'an in Surah 3 (I think verse 45 or 145 - My Qur'an is not at hand right now) testifies, calling Him the "Word of God from Allah". This means He came from within the Father, just as your words come from within you. John 1:18 explains as much when it states that Jesus came from "the BOSOM of the Father" (which is why He is also called "only begotten" Son - the only One born from inside God).

This Word of God then became flesh (John 1:12), in line with God's promise and resolve to redeem and ransom us from destruction Himself by providing a Lamb to take away our debt of sin (John 1:29). So the Word of God, coming from within God, therefore being God himself, came to pay the double price (Isaiah 40:2) for our sins. Acts 20:28 supports this when it states that God bought/redeemed the Church "with HIS OWN blood".

Moreover, John 12:39-41 tells us that it was Jesus the Prophet Isaiah saw as God in Isaiah 6:1-10, when "he saw His glory and spoke of Him". The same prophet calls Him "Mighty God" (Yes, Jesus is a MIGHTY God, not a small god) in Isaiah 9:6. On His own part, the Lord identifies Himself as "the Alpha and omega, the Beginning and the End, the First and the last" (Revelations 22:13). These are titles that refer solely to God, as can be seen in Revelation 1:8.

On Jesus' appearing before God in heaven, it is because the work of salvation, atonement, redemption, propitiation of mankind before God still continues, since we (all humanity)are still in the process of accepting and being cleansed and justified by Christ's atoning work. So He still stands before God as the atonement for all who accept Him, and the still-open door for those who will repent to receive His salvation (2 John 2:1-2). But this will end when the kingdom of God fully comes (1 Corinthians 15:28). Then there shall be only "one LORD, and His name one" (Zechariah 14:9).

But let us know that we needn't understand everything about rocket science before we decide to become students of space science. So our limited knowledge of Christ's nature should not be used as a stumbling block to prevent us from opening our hearts to accept His salvation and cleansing programme. The offer is still open to us all, but it will end when we die ( Hebrews 9:27). Let us accept Him NOW, and then ask questions where we need clarifications, as we continue. Remember, you cannot boast of tomorrow (Proverbs 27:1, James 4:14,15), so you cannot spend all the day arguing over the truth, at the expense of your salvation (Deuteronomy 29:29).

Turn to Him, and he will receive you, cleanse you, and give you a new life, fit for his kingdom (Acts 2:38).
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by eternalifee: 3:10pm On Jan 15, 2015
BIBLESPEAKS:
Or rather, trinitarians should answer these questions:

If Jesus is Almighty God...

1. Then why is "God head of Christ just as Christ is head of man"? (1 Cor. 11:3)

2. Then why does Scripture consistently phrase Jesus as a separate person from God? (John 20:17; John 14:1; Mark 10:18; John 17:1-3; etc. Also in heaven, 1 Cor. 11:3; Luke 22:69; etc.)

3. Then how can Jesus have a God? Could Almighty God have a God? (Mic. 5:4; Ps. 45:6, 7; 89:26; John 20:17; Rom. 15:6; 2 Cor. 1:3; Eph 1:3; Col 1:3; Mark 15:34; John 17:1-3; Also in heaven, Rev. 1:6; 3:2, 12)

4. Then why does Scripture say he was born and is part of Creation? (Col. 1:15)

5. Then why does Rev. 3:14 say that Jesus is "the beginning of the creation of God"?

6. Then why is he subject to GOD, like we're subject to him? (1 Cor. 15:27, 28; Eph. 1:17)

7. Then why does Micah 5:2 say that Jesus' ORIGIN was “from early times”?

8. Then why does Jesus not know what God knows? (Matt. 24:36, Rev.1:1; Luke 8:45)

9. Then why is Jesus still subject to God when he is as high as he will ever be? (1 Cor. 15:27, 28)

10. Then why does Proverbs 8:22-31 show that the Messiah was CREATED / PRODUCED by God?

11. Then why is he not powerful enough to subject things to himself? (1 Cor. 15:27, Eph. 1:17, 22)

12. Then why would he have to be given any power and authority? (Mt. 28:18; 11:27; Jn. 5:22; 17:2; 3:35; 2 Pet. 1:17)

13. Then why did he have to learn anything? (Heb. 5:8; John 5:19; 8:28)

14. Then why is speaking against him not as bad as speaking against the Holy Spirit? (Mt. 12:31,32; Luke 12:10)

15. Then why did Jesus call the "Father...the only true God"? (John 17:3)

16. Then why did he need to be saved? (Heb. 5:7; John 12:27)

17. Then why did he have to be exalted to Leader and Savior? (Acts 5:31)

18. Then how could he be exalted and given a higher name than he had? (Phil. 2:9-11; Heb. 1:2-4)

19. Then why did he have to be given life in himself? (John 5:25,26)

20. Then how can the Father be greater than he? (John 14:28)

21. Then how could Jesus be tempted by Satan when God cannot be tempted with evil? (James 1:13)

22. Then why did he worship the Father? (John 4:22)

23. Then why can he not do anything on his own? (John 5:19; 6:38)

24. Then why would he pray to anybody? (Luke 22:44; John 17:1,2; Heb. 5:7)

25. Then why do John 1:18 and 1 John 4:9 say that Jesus is God's "only BEGOTTEN Son"? ASV

26. Then how can he be God's servant? (Acts 4:26,27,30)

27. Then how could he receive strength from an angel? (Luke 22:43)

28. Then how could he be a mediator between God and man? (1 Tim. 2:5)

29. Then how could he be with God (ton theon)? (John 1:1)

30. Then how can he be God's image? (Col. 1:15; Heb. 1:3)

31. Then why is he called the agency (dia) of creation and not the Originator (ek)? (1 Cor. 8:6; John 1:1-3; Prov. 8:30; Heb. 2:10; Col. 1:15,16)

32. Then why did Jesus say GOD was "good" in a way that Jesus was not? (Mark 10:18)

33. Then why does he have an archangel's voice instead of God's voice? (1 Thess. 4:16)

34. Then why is the only "worship" given to him the same given to humans? (Heb. 1:6, cf. Mt. 18:26; Rev. 3:9 - "Proskuneo"

35. Then why do many who believe this rely on a few selected, so-called 'proof-texts' instead of the context of the consistent teaching of the entire Bible?

36. Then how could he be commanded to do anything? (John 12:49; Deut. 18:18)

37. Then why did Steven see two separate entities, GOD and Jesus, and not just one God or three persons? (Acts 7:55)

38. Then how could he be seen at GOD's right hand? (Luke 22:69; Acts 7:55; Rom. 8:34)

39. Then how could Jesus be exalted (not to become God Himself, but) to the position of the "right hand OF God"? (Acts 2:33)

40. Then why would he have to receive a revelation from God? (Rev.1:1)

41. Then why is he called God's "begotten" Son before he came to earth? (John 3:16; Gal. 4:4; 1 John 4:9)

42. Then how could he have a Father? (John 20:17)

43. Then how could he come in flesh? (1 Kings 8:27; Acts 17:24,25)

44. Then why did he not come in his own name? (John 5:41-44)

45. Then why did Jesus "come down from heaven to do" God's will and not his own will? (Luke 22:42; John 6:38; John 5:30; John 8:42)

46. Then how could he appear before GOD? (Heb. 9:24)

47. Then how could he die? Can God die? Can part of God die? (Rom. 5:10; Acts 5:30; 1 Cor. 15:3; Hab.1:12; cf. 1 Tim. 6:16; Num. 23:19; Ps. 90:2; Dan. 6:25-26)

48. Then why is it that God resurrected Jesus? (Acts 2:32)

49. Then why can we see him if "no man has seen God at any time"? (John 1:18)

50. Then why is there not one clear Scripture where Jesus is called "God the Son," (equal to those declaring "God, the Father)?

51. How is it that the Jews rounded up some false witnesses to make up lies to obtain a death sentence for Jesus, but neither the Jewish officials nor even one of these false witnesses made a claim that he was God or equally God? (Matt. 26:59-67)

52. John summed up his whole Gospel by saying that it was written that we may believe "that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God." Why is there is no mention in that summary of the entire Gospel of what would be the most important thing of all - that Jesus is God? (John 20:31)

53. How could Jesus teach in the Jewish synagogues and the temple? This would never happen if any of the authorities believed he claimed to be God (or that his followers believed such a thing). - Matt. 26:55; John 7:14, 28. Matt. 4:23.

54. How could Jesus' followers teach in Jewish synagogues after Jesus' death and for the remainder of that first century (at least)? Again, this would not have been allowed if there were any suspicion that they believed Jesus to be God. Acts 9:20; 13:5, Acts 13:13-15.


If the Holy Spirit is Almighty God...

1. Then why do quotes from Trinitarians admit that the Holy Spirit is not God but rather is a force from God?

2. Then why would Jews instructed in the Old Testament scriptures and in the teachings of John the Baptist, NOT EVEN KNOW WHAT THE HOLY SPIRIT WAS? (Acts 19:2)

3. Then why isn't the Holy Spirit given equal description in the Bible?

4. Then why didn't Jesus ever teach that the Holy Spirit was God along with the Father and Son?

5. Then why does the Bible describe the Holy Spirit as an "it"? (Is. 34:16 ASV, KJV; Numbers 11:17, 25 ASV, KJV, RSV, NRSV, AT, LB, NEB, REB, NAB, JB, NJB; and Romans 8:16, 26 in the KJV.)

6. Then why does the Bible describe the Holy Spirit as a thing that can be poured out into portions? (Acts 2:17, 18, 33; Numbers 11:17, 25)

7. Then why is the holy spirit nameless and indistinguishable from all of the other holy spirits?

8. Then why did the Council of Nicaea in 325 AD disregard the Holy Spirit as a member of the Godhead when they made Jesus 'God' in 325 AD? Why did they wait until the Council of Constantinople in 381 AD to include the Holy Spirit in the formula?

9. Then wouldn't the water and blood be persons too according to Trinitarian reasoning and 1 John 5:8?

10. Then why is the Holy Spirit sandwiched between a list of QUALITIES at 2 Cor. 6:6?

11. Then why does the NT Greek Lexicon describes the Holy Spirit as "this" at Acts 2:33?

12. Then why is it that nowhere in the Bible is the Holy Spirit ever said to be an equal member of a trinity?

13. Then why is it that nowhere is it mentioned in the Bible the words, "God, the Holy Spirit," or "The Holy Spirit is God"?

14. Then why is it that there is never mentioned a vision, dream or clear description in scripture wherein God and the Holy Spirit are shown as the same person?

If the Trinity Doctrine is a Bible teaching...

1. Then why do NUMEROUS encyclopedias agree that

"... the doctrine of the Trinity was of gradual and comparatively late formation; that it had its origin in a source entirely foreign from that of the Jewish and Christian scriptures; that it grew up, and was ingrafted on Christianity"? – p. 34, The Church of the First Three Centuries, Alvan Lamson, D.D.

2. Then why do many encyclopedias, dictionaries and other sources (including Sir Isaac Newton) agree that the "Trinity was a pagan corruption imposed on Christianity in the fourth century by Athanasius"?

3. Then why does the Bible consistently identify God by singular person pronouns: "I, "Me," "He, and "Him" instead of "We", "Us", "They" or "Them"?

4. Then why does 2 Cor. 13:14 say that the Lord Jesus Christ is one individual, the Holy Spirit is another individual (whether a person or a thing), and that "GOD" IS ANOTHER DIFFERENT INDIVIDUAL?

5. Then why is there not even one Scripture which clearly defines the Trinity?

6. Then why is there not even one Scripture of a vision, dream, or CLEAR description wherein God is shown as three persons?

7. Then why is there not even one Scripture where God is described using the word "three"?



A BRIEF RESPONSE:
Jesus is the Word of God (John 1:1), which the Qur'an in Surah 3 (I think verse 45 or 145 - My Qur'an is not at hand right now) testifies, calling Him the "Word of God from Allah". This means He came from within the Father, just as your words come from within you. John 1:18 explains as much when it states that Jesus came from "the BOSOM of the Father" (which is why He is also called "only begotten" Son - the only One born from inside God).

This Word of God then became flesh (John 1:12), in line with God's promise and resolve to redeem and ransom us from destruction Himself by providing a Lamb to take away our debt of sin (John 1:29). So the Word of God, coming from within God, therefore being God himself, came to pay the double price (Isaiah 40:2) for our sins. Acts 20:28 supports this when it states that God bought/redeemed the Church "with HIS OWN blood".

Moreover, John 12:39-41 tells us that it was Jesus the Prophet Isaiah saw as God in Isaiah 6:1-10, when "he saw His glory and spoke of Him". The same prophet calls Him "Mighty God" (Yes, Jesus is a MIGHTY God, not a small god) in Isaiah 9:6. On His own part, the Lord identifies Himself as "the Alpha and omega, the Beginning and the End, the First and the last" (Revelations 22:13). These are titles that refer solely to God, as can be seen in Revelation 1:8.

On Jesus' appearing before God in heaven, it is because the work of salvation, atonement, redemption, propitiation of mankind before God still continues, since we (all humanity)are still in the process of accepting and being cleansed and justified by Christ's atoning work. So He still stands before God as the atonement for all who accept Him, and the still-open door for those who will repent to receive His salvation (2 John 2:1-2). But this will end when the kingdom of God fully comes (1 Corinthians 15:28). Then there shall be only "one LORD, and His name one" (Zechariah 14:9).

But let us know that we needn't understand everything about rocket science before we decide to become students of space science. So our limited knowledge of Christ's nature should not be used as a stumbling block to prevent us from opening our hearts to accept His salvation and cleansing programme. The offer is still open to us all, but it will end when we die ( Hebrews 9:27). Let us accept Him NOW, and then ask questions where we need clarifications, as we continue. Remember, you cannot boast of tomorrow (Proverbs 27:1, James 4:14,15), so you cannot spend all the day arguing over the truth, at the expense of your salvation (Deuteronomy 29:29).

Turn to Him, and he will receive you, cleanse you, and give you a new life, fit for his kingdom (Acts 2:38).
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by CANTICLES: 8:27pm On Jan 15, 2015
paulGrundy:


Koine Greek--Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεός ἦν ὁ λόγος.

Greek transliteration--En archē ēn ho Lógos, kai ho Lógos ēn pros ton Theón, kai Theós ēn ho Lógos.

Greek to English--In beginning was the Word, and the Word was with (toward) the God, and [b]G[/b]od was the Word.

http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/John_1:1

That's the original interlinear translation

Copy and paste, who told you its original .... Once again, the greek had no laws of upper case and lower case like we do in english language diferenciatin "g" & " G"

Adopt Uppercase:"IN THE BEGINNING WAS THE WORD AND THE WORD WAS WITH THE GOD AND GOD WAS THE WORD"

And 2 cor 4:4 will also read in upper case " ho theos THE GOD OF THIS WORLD " .Dats SATAN, ho theos !

So therefore translators discretion is advised

John 1:1 states that the word was WITH SOMEONE ! Which refers to the almighty God , Infact, Joh 1:2 Will not be necesary if Jesus is Almighty God
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by paulGrundy(m): 9:06pm On Jan 15, 2015
CANTICLES:


Copy and paste, who told you its original ....

Are you by anyway implying that the article is FORGERY?! (In your moniker BERNIMORE's voice) grin

Once again, the greek had no laws of upper case and lower case like we do in english language diferenciatin "g" & " G"

Adopt Uppercase:"IN THE BEGINNING WAS THE WORD AND THE WORD WAS WITH THE GOD AND GOD WAS THE WORD"

And 2 cor 4:4 will also read in upper case " ho theos THE GOD OF THIS WORLD " .Dats SATAN, ho theos !

So therefore translators discretion is advised

John 1:1 states that the word was WITH SOMEONE ! Which refers to the almighty God , Infact, Joh 1:2 Will not be necesary if Jesus is Almighty God

We are basically saying the same thing. I was also wondering the first lettercase of God- in that text was bothering you so much,

Convince me on why I should accept the alteration of the lowercase grin
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by CANTICLES: 10:14pm On Jan 15, 2015
italo:


Let me ask you a simple question:

Who is "the first and the last."

God or Jesus?


pen or pencil ..... That statement affirms that pen is distinct from pencil.

God or Jesus .... That statement affirms that God is different from Jesus ! " Christ seats at the right hand of God ( Jehovah) " Col 3:1

So lets look at the scripture where both of them use the same title.

Isaiah 44:6 " I am the first and the last , there is no God but me" .... Jehovah God use first and d last to denote his being the Almighty God !
BUT HOW DID JESUS, HIS SON USE IT ?

Rev 1:17 : " I am the first and the last ,... I became dead, but look! I am livin forever and ever "... Jesus used first and last to denote his glorious ressurection from d dead, he is truly the "first" ressurected to everlastin life and will be the last person whom Jehovah God His Father will raise from the dead. ! Its Jesus,who will resurect others ( Joh 5:28,29)
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by italo: 5:13am On Jan 16, 2015
CANTICLES:


pen or pencil ..... That statement affirms that pen is distinct from pencil.

God or Jesus .... That statement affirms that God is different from Jesus ! " Christ seats at the right hand of God ( Jehovah) " Col 3:1

So lets look at the scripture where both of them use the same title.

Isaiah 44:6 " I am the first and the last , there is no God but me" .... Jehovah God use first and d last to denote his being the Almighty God !
BUT HOW DID JESUS, HIS SON USE IT ?

Rev 1:17 : " I am the first and the last ,... I became dead, but look! I am livin forever and ever "... Jesus used first and last to denote his glorious ressurection from d dead, he is truly the "first" ressurected to everlastin life and will be the last person whom Jehovah God His Father will raise from the dead. ! Its Jesus,who will resurect others ( Joh 5:28,29)

Jehovah's Witness, stop fixing your lies into scripture.

Jesus said he is the first and the last. He didn't say first to resurrect.

Is Jesus also the "last" to be resurrected? grin He'd have to be for your manipulation to make sense.

Another question: "who is the eternal Father?"
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by CANTICLES: 7:24am On Jan 16, 2015
italo:


Another question: "who is the eternal Father"
!

"He that sent me is REAL" joh 7:28 ... Jesus here emphasize that the Father who sent him is a real person, so dont confuse them together .

Jesus was prophetically called " Eternal father" because he is the person through whom Jehovah God his Father will give mankind eternal life .
.... "Jesus is able to save completely those who are approaching God ( Jehovah) through him , because he is always alive to plead for them " Heb 8:25 !

..................................
Bro, Heb 9:24 posted by the op says "Christ enter into heaven and appear before God "

Whom is called " God" in this scripture ??

Op ask .... Did christ appear to another christ ??
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by vooks: 7:49am On Jan 16, 2015
Is there anybody who said that Christ appeared to himself?
How do you jump from Christ appeared before God to Christ appearing before himself?
CANTICLES:
!
Did christ appear to himself ??

Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by CANTICLES: 7:58am On Jan 16, 2015
vooks:
Is there anybody who said that Christ appeared to himself?
How do you jump from Christ appeared before God to Christ appearing before himself?

Goodmorning ..... FLASHBACK: the op ask, " did christ appear to himself" and you answered " Yes He Did" !!! Or uv forgotten ?


vooks

Yes he did
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by vooks: 8:21am On Jan 16, 2015
I talked of puny brains and used the fewest words cheesy

Walk me through your logic. Is it written anywhere that Christ appeared before himself?
Is it implied or suggested that Christ appeared before himself?
CANTICLES:


Goodmorning ..... FLASHBACK: the op ask, " did christ appear to himself" and you answered " Yes He Did" !!! Or uv forgotten ?

Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by CANTICLES: 8:37am On Jan 16, 2015
vooks:
I talked of puny brains and used the fewest words cheesy

Walk me through your logic. Is it written anywhere that Christ appeared before himself?
Is it implied or suggested that Christ appeared before himself?

Well done ..... You have started using ur common sense ( which trinity doesnt want u to use) and very soon am sure you will walk out of that brainwashin dogma of trinity.

" christ appear before God ( Jehovah Psalm 83:18)" Heb 9:24
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by CAPTIVATOR: 4:46pm On Jan 16, 2015
nice write - up, but concerning the question I asked, you said
eternalifee
On Jesus' appearing before God in heaven, it is because the work of salvation, atonement, redemption, propitiation of mankind before God still continues ...... so he still stands before God as the atonement for all who accept him




So, its clear Jesus stand before God NOT Himself , my question is : whom is that God before whom Jesus stands ??
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by vest(m): 5:51pm On Jan 16, 2015
CANTICLES:


pen or pencil ..... That statement affirms that pen is distinct from pencil.

God or Jesus .... That statement affirms that God is different from Jesus ! " Christ seats at the right hand of God ( Jehovah) " Col 3:1

So lets look at the scripture where both of them use the same title.

Isaiah 44:6 " I am the first and the last , there is no God but me" .... Jehovah God use first and d last to denote his being the Almighty God !
BUT HOW DID JESUS, HIS SON USE IT ?

Rev 1:17 : " I am the first and the last ,... I became dead, but look! I am livin forever and ever "... Jesus used first and last to denote his glorious ressurection from d dead, he is truly the "first" ressurected to everlastin life and will be the last person whom Jehovah God His Father will raise from the dead. ! Its Jesus,who will resurect others ( Joh 5:28,29)
wow! italo said and now
Re: A TRINITARIAN Should Explain This Scripture .... by RikoduoSennin(m): 7:46am On Jan 17, 2015
TRINITARIANS deny the Fact that Jesus has a God whom he answers to since the beginning of their Faith, it won't end due to Satan's continued influence on things.

Argue with reason.

All Jesus Apostles knew Jesus shared the Same Almighty God with them even though Jesus is a Mighty God himself. After all, he is not the only God is he now? But their is only one God of Gods.

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Opm Pastor And David Ibeyeome @ Logger Heads? / The Bible Is Overrated / Prayers To Crucify The Flesh Daily And Be Holy.

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