The sixth commandment is "Thou shalt
not kill." Atheists claim that God
violated His own commandment in
ordering the destruction of entire cities,
just to allow the Jews to have a homeland in the Middle East. The Bible
confirms that God ordered the killing of
thousands of people. Isn't this an open
and shut case for the hypocrisy of the
God of the Bible?

IS ALL KILLING THE SAME?
One thing you have to love about
atheists is their extreme appreciation for the King James Version (KJV) translation. The KJV was translated in the early 17th century using an archaic form of modern English. In the last 400 years,the English language has changed significantly. Unfortunately, the vast majority of those who read the KJV (both believers and unbelievers) are unqualified to know what the text means in many instances because of word meaning changes. In attempting to demonstrate the contradiction of God's commands to Israel and the sixth commandment, atheist cite the KJV translation, "Thou shalt not kill."

However, like English, Hebrew, the
language in which most of the Old
Testament was written, uses different
words for intentional vs. unintentional
killing. The verse translated "Thou shalt
not kill" in the KJV translation, is
translated "You shall not murder" in
modern translations - because these
translations represents the real meaning of the Hebrew text.The Bible in Basic English translates the phrase, "Do not put anyone to death without cause."
The Hebrew word used here is ratsach,
which nearly always refers to intentional killing without cause (unless indicated otherwise by context). Hebrew law recognized accidental killing as not
punishable. In fact, specific cities were
designated as "cities of refuge," so that
an unintentional killer could flee to
escape retribution. The Hebrew word
for "kill" in this instance is not ratsach,
but nakah, which can refer to either
premeditated or unintentional killing,
depending upon context. Other Hebrew
words also can refer to killing. The
punishment for murder was the death
sentence. However, to be convicted,
there needed to be at least two
eyewitnesses. The Bible also prescribes that people have a right to defend themselves against attack and use deadly force if necessary.

IS GOD KILLING JUSTIFY ?
To answer the question whether God
breaks His own commandments, we
need to determine if God committed
murder (i.e., killed people without cause)
1. The Bible is quite clear that God has
killed people directly (the most
prominent example being the flood) and indirectly (ordered peoples to be killed).
2. If God ordered or participated in the
killing of innocent people, then He would be guilty of murder. Let's look at two of the most prominent examples.

THE FLOOD.
According to the Bible, God killed every
human except Noah, his wife, his sons,
and their wives in the flood. Were any of these people killed unjustly? The Bible says specifically that all people (except Noah and his family) had become corrupted. Not only had all people become corrupted,but they were
continually plotting evil! Is it possible
that an entire culture can become
corrupted? You bet! Recent history proves the point rather well. When the
Nazis took over Germany before WWII,
opposition was crushed and removed.
When they began their purging of the
undesirables (e.g., the Jews), virtually the entire society went along with the plan. So, the Bible indicates that no
innocent people were killed in the flood.

GOD ORDER KILLING.
What about when God ordered Joshua
and his people to kill every man, woman and child in Canaan?What crime
could be so great that entire populations of cities were designated for destruction? God told Moses that the nations that the Hebrew were replacing were wicked.
How "wicked" were these people? The
text tells us that they were burning their
own sons and daughters in sacrifices to
their gods. So we see that these people
were not really innocent. For these
reasons (and others), God ordered the
destruction of the peoples whom the
Israelites dispossessed.

WHAT ABOUT THE CHILDREN AND OTHER
"INNOCENT"
Surely God could have spared the
children! People tend to assume that
children are innocent, even if their
parents are doing bad things. The
assumption is unfounded. For example,
Palestinian Muslim children are officially
taught in grammar school to hate their
Jewish neighbors. They are so well
indoctrinated that some of them give up
their lives in suicide bombings as
children. Corruption literally does
breed corruption, which is why God did
not want the Hebrews tainted by the
other corrupt cultures of the Middle East.
Surely there must have been other
innocent adults in those cities who were
destroyed with the wicked! There actually
is an example of a time when God was
asked if He would destroy the innocent
along with the wicked. Prior to destroying
Sodom and Gomorrah, Abraham asked
God if He would destroy the righteous
along with the wicked. God replied
that He would spare the entire city for 50
righteous people. Abraham kept
reducing the possible number of
righteous people, asking God if He would
destroy the entire city along with those
number of righteous people. God's
reply in each case was that He would not
destroy the righteous along with the
wicked. The lowest number Abraham
asked about was ten righteous people,
although the answer would likely be the
same with as few as one righteous
individual. How do we know this? God
sent two angels to warn the four
righteous people in Sodom to flee before
He destroyed the city. It is quite
convenient that such details are usually
left out of atheistic sites complaining
about the "evil" perpetrated by God. In
fact, God saved certain people from
being killed in cities such as Jericho.

CONCLUSION
The commandment "Thou shalt
not kill" is really not as general
as the King James version would
indicate. The commandment
actually refers to premeditated,
unjustified killing - murder.
Although God ordered the
extermination of entire cities, He did so
in righteous judgment on a people
whose corruption had led to extreme
wickedness, including child sacrifice. Did
God destroy the righteous along with the
wicked? In an exchange with Abraham,
God indicated that He would spare the
wicked to save the righteous. He
demonstrated this principle by saving
righteous people from Sodom and
Jericho prior to their destruction. The
charge that God indiscriminately
murdered people does not hold to to
critical evaluation of the biblical texts.

Interesting.....

You are an immoral chap.

menesheh:
You are an immoral chap.

stay mute.

Murder is to kill someone without cause.

musKeeto:
Murder is to kill someone without cause.

and...

God makes the rules. He doesn't take orders.

Like in Military you(subjects,creatures) take orders no questions asked

malvisguy212:
and...

So when you kill someone for a cause, it's called....

malvisguy212:
and...

Stop been dishonest , Nice write up which you copied and paste from http://www.godandscience.org/apologetics/notkill.html

Next time , include the source .