Jesus said “I was not sent except to the LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL
(Matthew 15:24). Even when Jesus was sending out his disciples for
evangelical mission, he warned them to avoid preaching to the gentiles i: e
the non-Israelites (Matthew 10:5-6). However, according to the belief of
the Christian scholars, this command of not preaching to the gentiles was
later cancelled and replaced by the new command in Matthew 28:19 where the
apostles were commanded by Jesus to preach to all the nations of the world. But
should we really accept Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it as
the words actually spoken by Jesus? Bring out your Bible and answer the
following questions
QUESTION ONE: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
peter tell Cornelius and his households that it is still unlawful for the
Jews to visit the gentiles (Acts 10:28), many years after Jesus’ ascension
to heaven? Was peter not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to
all the nations?
QUESTION TWO: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
other apostles have to criticize Peter and become astonished when they
heard that some Gentiles had received the word of God through the hand of
Peter (Acts 11: 1-3, 18)? This incident took place many years after Jesus’
departure.
QUESTION THREE: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
Peter have to justify his preaching to those gentiles using his vision to
convince the other apostles instead of simply reminding them about the new
command of preaching to all the nations (Acts 11: 4-18)?
QUESTION FOUR: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
James still address his epistle to twelve tribes of Israel only i:e the
Jews, and not to the gentiles (James 1:1)?
QUESTION FIVE: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
Peter also address his epistle only to the exiles of dispersion (i.e. the
Jews) scattered throughout certain provinces and not to the gentiles (1
Peter 1:1).
QUESTION SIX: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why would these
apostles be judging only the twelve tribes of Israel in the new world and
not judging the Gentiles(Matthew19:28)?
QUESTION SEVEN: if the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Peter
and his associates still agree to limit their ministry to the people of
circumcision i.e. the Jews; leaving the work of Christianizing the gentiles
only to Paul and Barnabas (Galatians 2:7-9, Acts 15:2, 4, 12, Acts21:17-19)? QUESTION EIGHT : If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus
in Matthew 28:19 to preach the gospel to all nations of the world, why was
it that, after the book of Acts, all the letters specifically addressed to
the gentiles were written by Paul and not by the original apostles of Jesus
(Romans 1:1, 1stCorinthians 1:1, 2nd Corinthians 1:1, Galatians 1:1,
Ephesians 1:1, Philippians 1:1, Colossians 1:1, etc.).
QUESTION NINE: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Paul
repeatedly speak as if he was the only one authorized to preach the Gospel
to the gentiles(Galatians 2:8, Romans 15:15-18, Romans 11:13, 1st Timothy
2:7, Acts 9:15, 2nd Timothy 1:11 Ephesians 3:.
QUESTION TEN: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did
disciples under the authority of the apostles still preach the gospel to
none except the Jews even after the persecution that followed the killing
of Stephen (Acts 11:19)? Of course, the killing of Stephen took place after
Jesus ascension to heaven (Acts 7: 55-58).
All the questions asked above are enough to prove that Jesus and his
apostles were only commanded to preach to the Jews (i:e the Israelites) and
the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world in Matthew
28:19 is a forgery. After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles
understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even
under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In
fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were
forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the
Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20). Hellenists are the Greek-speaking
Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians
(Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts
11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their
true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott
and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm
that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel
verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts. All the
incidents mentioned in the questions asked above took place after Jesus has
ascended to heaven. They all point to the fact that the disciples knew
nothing about the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world
in Matthew 28:19. The preaching of Peter to Cornelius and his households
was an exception and one-time event. Peter’s initial response to those
gentiles was rejection (Acts 10: 25-28). We have no record that Peter
evangelized another gentile. One incident does not constitute a ministry.
In the book of Acts, we read plainly of Paul’s travels through Cyprus, Asia
Minor, Greece and Italy. But the movement of the original apostles who ate
and slept with Jesus is nowhere to be found. When Paul preached the gospel
at Rome, where were Peter and other apostles? This proves beyond any
reasonable doubt that Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it; where
the original twelve apostles were supposedly commanded by Jesus to preach
the gospel to all the nations of the world are not authentic but later
inserted into the text of New Testament. In fact, if it was already in the
divine plan, that the command of not preaching to the gentiles would later
be cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations as
spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus statement directed to that
Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR
THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS NOT SENT
EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. Besides, the fact that
Jesus later answered that Canaanite woman(Matthew 15:28) help us to know
that there was no any strong reason preventing Jesus from attending to her
in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus and his apostles were
sent only to the Israelites.
Similarly, Qur’an 61:6 and Qur’an 3:49 also confirm the truth that Jesus
was sent only to the Israelites (i:e the Jews).

Hmmmmm

Sleep dey catch me now.Tomorrow I go answer.

jesus is the author of confusion

Satanic way is straightforward

Abdulgaffar22:

Jesus said “I was not sent except to the LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL
(Matthew 15:24). Even when Jesus was sending out his disciples for
evangelical mission, he warned them to avoid preaching to the gentiles i: e
the non-Israelites (Matthew 10:5-6). However, according to the belief of
the Christian scholars, this command of not preaching to the gentiles was
later cancelled and replaced by the new command in Matthew 28:19 where the
apostles were commanded by Jesus to preach to all the nations of the world. But
should we really accept Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it as
the words actually spoken by Jesus? Bring out your Bible and answer the
following questions
QUESTION ONE: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
peter tell Cornelius and his households that it is still unlawful for the
Jews to visit the gentiles (Acts 10:28), many years after Jesus’ ascension
to heaven? Was peter not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to
all the nations?
QUESTION TWO: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
other apostles have to criticize Peter and become astonished when they
heard that some Gentiles had received the word of God through the hand of
Peter (Acts 11: 1-3, 18)? This incident took place many years after Jesus’
departure.
QUESTION THREE: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
Peter have to justify his preaching to those gentiles using his vision to
convince the other apostles instead of simply reminding them about the new
command of preaching to all the nations (Acts 11: 4-18)?
QUESTION FOUR: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
James still address his epistle to twelve tribes of Israel only i:e the
Jews, and not to the gentiles (James 1:1)?
QUESTION FIVE: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
Peter also address his epistle only to the exiles of dispersion (i.e. the
Jews) scattered throughout certain provinces and not to the gentiles (1
Peter 1:1).
QUESTION SIX: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why would these
apostles be judging only the twelve tribes of Israel in the new world and
not judging the Gentiles(Matthew19:28)?
QUESTION SEVEN: if the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Peter
and his associates still agree to limit their ministry to the people of
circumcision i.e. the Jews; leaving the work of Christianizing the gentiles
only to Paul and Barnabas (Galatians 2:7-9, Acts 15:2, 4, 12, Acts21:17-19)? QUESTION EIGHT : If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus
in Matthew 28:19 to preach the gospel to all nations of the world, why was
it that, after the book of Acts, all the letters specifically addressed to
the gentiles were written by Paul and not by the original apostles of Jesus
(Romans 1:1, 1stCorinthians 1:1, 2nd Corinthians 1:1, Galatians 1:1,
Ephesians 1:1, Philippians 1:1, Colossians 1:1, etc.).
QUESTION NINE: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Paul
repeatedly speak as if he was the only one authorized to preach the Gospel
to the gentiles(Galatians 2:8, Romans 15:15-18, Romans 11:13, 1st Timothy
2:7, Acts 9:15, 2nd Timothy 1:11 Ephesians 3:.
QUESTION TEN: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did
disciples under the authority of the apostles still preach the gospel to
none except the Jews even after the persecution that followed the killing
of Stephen (Acts 11:19)? Of course, the killing of Stephen took place after
Jesus ascension to heaven (Acts 7: 55-58).
All the questions asked above are enough to prove that Jesus and his
apostles were only commanded to preach to the Jews (i:e the Israelites) and
the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world in Matthew
28:19 is a forgery. After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles
understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even
under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In
fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were
forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the
Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20). Hellenists are the Greek-speaking
Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians
(Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts
11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their
true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott
and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm
that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel
verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts. All the
incidents mentioned in the questions asked above took place after Jesus has
ascended to heaven. They all point to the fact that the disciples knew
nothing about the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world
in Matthew 28:19. The preaching of Peter to Cornelius and his households
was an exception and one-time event. Peter’s initial response to those
gentiles was rejection (Acts 10: 25-28). We have no record that Peter
evangelized another gentile. One incident does not constitute a ministry.
In the book of Acts, we read plainly of Paul’s travels through Cyprus, Asia
Minor, Greece and Italy. But the movement of the original apostles who ate
and slept with Jesus is nowhere to be found. When Paul preached the gospel
at Rome, where were Peter and other apostles? This proves beyond any
reasonable doubt that Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it; where
the original twelve apostles were supposedly commanded by Jesus to preach
the gospel to all the nations of the world are not authentic but later
inserted into the text of New Testament. In fact, if it was already in the
divine plan, that the command of not preaching to the gentiles would later
be cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations as
spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus statement directed to that
Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR
THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS NOT SENT
EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. Besides, the fact that
Jesus later answered that Canaanite woman(Matthew 15:28) help us to know
that there was no any strong reason preventing Jesus from attending to her
in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus and his apostles were
sent only to the Israelites.
Similarly, Qur’an 61:6 and Qur’an 3:49 also confirm the truth that Jesus
was sent only to the Israelites (i:e the Jews).

.

I wish you had known better

who all these ur useless write up help?
even people in Saudi are thriving to develop dre country, and here u r, wasting ur youthful years on religious rubbish... who dis elp abegi? oju gbamitifun eee sir

The law was given to the Israelites. Jesus Christ came to fulfill the law and the Prophets_ the law that was given by Moses and all the things that the prophets said about Him in the scriptures. Think of it logically, who do think Jesus came to die for? I would say humanity. both Jews and Greeks. but He died first for the Israelites cox the law was never given to the Greeks but the Israelites. then by extension, through faith, the Greeks can also be heirs of salvation. Romans 1:16. The bible is straight forward. Of course, Jesus was sent first to the Israelites. They were under the law. and it was that law he came to fulfill. after which, by extension and by grace, the Greeks are partakers of salvation. u would notice that in almost every verse Paul talks about salvation, he makes use of First the Jews, then the Greek. So yes, Jesus died for the whole world!!!!! but first, he died so as to fulfill that law and all that the prophets said concerning Him.

You answer none of the questions cited above. You just believe that Jesus came to die for our sins: yet Deuteronomy
24:16,Ezekiel 18:20-22, Jeremiah 31:30,2nd Chronicles 25:4, 2nd Kings 14:6
and Psalms 49:7 established that THE PERSON THAT COMMITS SIN IS THE ONE WHO
WILL DIE. The doctrine which says “an innocent person must be killed in
order to earn forgiveness for those who are guilty” is not consistent with
what the Bible teaches. After the sin of the Golden Calf, God expressed His
intention to destroy the Jewish people. Moses intercedes, and asked God to
blot him out of His book (i:e to condemn him) as a means of atonement for
the sins committed by his followers. But God rejected his request and told
him that “Whoever has sinned against Me, him will I blot out of My book!”
(Exodus 32:30-33). If Jesus was truly destined to suffer and die for the
sins of all humanity, then God should have told Moses plainly that his
offer of atonement was rejected because Jesus had taken upon himself this
great task of atoning for the sins of all the generations and that if the
followers of Moses desire forgiveness for their sins, they should believe
in the future Crucifixion of Jesus. But nothing of such was recorded. On
the contrary, the request made by Moses was rejected on the basis that WHOEVER
HAS SINNED AGAINST GOD, him WILL GOD PUNISH, NOT THE INNOCENT. Furthermore, Luke
5:32 and Mark 2:17recorded a verse where Jesus said; “I have not come to
call the righteous BUT SINNERS TO REPENTANCE”. If Jesus has actually come
to die for the sinners, he would have mentioned it in this verse since he
was talking about the purpose of his coming WITH RESPECT TO THE SINNERS. Moreover,
if this baptism of repentance, for which Jesus came to invite the sinners
to observe, is sufficient to atone and wipe away our sins as stated clearly
in Acts 2:38, 3:19,Mark 1:4, Isaiah 55:6-7 and Ezekiel 33:10-20, then is
there any need again for atonement of sins through Jesus crucifixion? The
original Jesus’ disciples, before Paul came into scene, were only commanded
to warn the people with this message; Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is
at hand (Matthew 10:5-7, Mark 1:14, 15). There was no any reference of sin
atonement through Jesus crucifixion in their preaching. In fact , when
Peter was addressing the congregation of Israelites after Jesus departure,
he said to them as follows: Repent, and let everyone of you be baptized in
the name of Christ for the REMISSION OF SINS; and you shall receive the
gift of holy spirit.(Acts 2:38). You can see that Peter and the other
apostles only asked the Israelites to remit their sins by observing the baptism
of repentance. Peter did not mention remission of sins through Jesus
crucifixion in this long discussion he had with the children of Israel.
Even logically, this very doctrine cannot be true because telling the
believers that they will no longer be held responsible for all their sins
since one innocent man had already been held responsible on their behalf seems
to imply that they are now free to commit sins in as much as they believe
in this atonement sacrifice. Whereas telling the believers that, except
they repent sincerely by turning from their sinful ways, they themselves
will be held responsible for their sins would make them think twice before
committing any sin. Of course the latter is more logical and reasonable
than the former. In fact, the resurrection of Jesus make this sin atonement
doctrine to be even more illogical because if the punishment which Jesus
received in place of the sinners is a continuous one and not temporary,
then this can make the sinner to feel sorry for Jesus and become more
remorseful. This may discourage him from committing more sin. But since
according to the Christians, Jesus had been resurrected and the punishment
received by Jesus in place of the sinners had already ended, then there is
no any cause for alarm if the sinful believer in this doctrine seized this
opportunity to commit more sins. In fact, one would expect the sinners to
utilize and maximize this opportunity by committing more sins since the
punishment for those sins had already been accomplished by Jesus on the
cross in the time past. Have you now seen that atonement of sins through
Jesus crucifixion is the most illogical concept you can ever think of!

Thoughtful exposition if you ask me. However, if the gospel was meant only for the Jews, even as Jesus said that Salvation is of the Jews, the next question will be, Where does that place us - the so-called Gentiles and Pagans (and many others who have been convinced or convicted?) to become Christians?

if I knew before replying that u are a Muslim, I wouldn't have replied u. I've pointed u towards the right direction but ur texting whatever it is ur texting because u wanna dispute, not because u wanna learn. Jesus I lord! Jesus is lord!! I repeat again, Jesus is Lord!!! He who knew no sin was made sin for our sake so that we can become sons of God. lying, stealing, fornication, murder etc have all been taken care of by Jesus, if only u believe. But u are already condemned if you don't believe!!!! I repeat, give ur life to Christ today!!!! and be saved!!!!

Good work.

Oluwapresley:
if I knew before replying that u are a Muslim, I wouldn't have replied u. I've pointed u towards the right direction but ur texting whatever it is ur texting because u wanna dispute, not because u wanna learn. Jesus I lord! Jesus is lord!! I repeat again, Jesus is Lord!!! He who knew no sin was made sin for our sake so that we can become sons of God. lying, stealing, fornication, murder etc have all been taken care of by Jesus, if only u believe. But u are already condemned if you don't believe!!!! I repeat, give ur life to Christ today!!!! and be saved!!!!

You can imagine how these satanist are vast in bible passages just to cause confusion. Just ignore him

You can call me satanist or anything you want. But sooner or later, all of us will leave this world for the hereafter where the real follower of Satan will be revealed to every one. The true religious faith should not be based on emotions and subjective feelings. It should be based on evidence and facts. You answer none of those of ten questions. Yet you believed I was causing confusion .

Abdulgaffar22:
You can call me satanist or anything you want. But sooner or later, all of us will leave this world for the hereafter where the real follower of Satan will be revealed to every one. The true religious faith should not be based on emotions and subjective feelings. It should be based on evidence and facts. You answer none of those of ten questions. Yet you believed I was causing confusion .

Someone wrongly suggested that Christians should also use Islam’s Sharia law to deal with cowardly attacks on pastors.
Jesus powerful command to forgive enemies is the greatest wisdom. Islam's Sharia lack wisdom. God always punish enemies more effectively than you can.

The whole world today is truly blessed with a free spiritual learning channel, Emmanuel TV 24 hours a day, 7 days per week.
Now we have no more excuse for our ignorance of how the spirit realm on both the dark side and the light side operate in human life, thanks to Emmanuel TV.

It is frightening to hear all the personal testimonies of people from different religons that have suffered because of stepping into the dark side. Can one escape the vicious spiritual traps laid for millions of innocent people by fake pastors, competing religions, cruel governments and science ?

Emmanuel TV provide the most scientifically verifiable evidence of the highest spiritual TRUTH of creation to the world 24 HRS A DAY. Now you too can escape into true light.

Finally honest scientists have seen evolution and the Big Bang for what it always was. It was from the start A vicious SCAM to oppress the masses world wide!
Honest scientists have seen overwhelming scientifically verifiable evidence coming out of the Holy Scoan Church Nigeria and two excellent sources of study, Emmanuel TV and youtube.com

There can be no more tragic expression of human foolishness and perversity than the Jews and Muslims rejection of The Messiah. In spite of hundreds of years of waiting and studying their scriptures concerning the coming of Jesus Christ, they dismissed him and instigated his destruction.

The Jews plan failed, Jesus is risen from death. God will not be mocked !
Jesus Christ’s birth, His miracles, His mastery of satin, His cruel death, His forgiveness of his murderers and His resurrection from the grave was needed as verifiable evidence of the mystical, supernatural creation nature of God.

Jesus is the same yesterday, today and forever. On our journey to discover scientifically verifiable evidence of Jesus’ miracles, we found a very powerful, scientifically verifiable source. It is the Scoan Church on Emmanual TV and youtube.com

And as [Peter] spoke with him, he entered the house and found a large group of persons assembled;

28And he said to them, You yourselves are aware how it is not lawful or permissible for a Jew to keep company with or to visit or [even] to come near or to speak first to anyone of another nationality, but God has shown and taught me by words that I should not call any human being common or unhallowed or [ceremonially] unclean.

29Therefore when I was sent for, I came without hesitation or objection or misgivings. So now I ask for what reason you sent for me.

The Gospel was actually for Jews first before the Gentiles.

Galatians 2:8
For God, who was at work in Peter as an apostle to the circumcised, was also at work in me as an apostle to the Gentiles.

Jesus actually gave the commandment to them to preach to everyone starting from Judea, Samaria and to the outermost part of the world. Now from the scripture above, you can clearly see that God later entrusted the disciples to the Jews and Paul to the Gentiles because it will actually take a long time before they deliver the message to all the Jews before the Gentiles. That was why God called Paul to the ministry. So that he also will raise disciples so that they will concentrate on the Gentiles.

Your questions doesn't change anything.
I guess you are a muslim. There are questions you wouldn't be able to answer if i should ask you now. But its not realy important.