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What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? - Religion (2) - Nairaland

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Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by Sniper4real(m): 9:02am On Jun 27, 2021
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Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by Nobody: 9:07am On Jun 27, 2021
The man of sin is the man that the Anti christ will take over his body at his resurrection from the dead. The man of sin will die from his injuries after he is being wounded. He will be resurrected 3 days later by the devil and the son of perdition AKA the antichrist will take over his body at his resurrection. The son of perdition is Judas Iscariot. Then Jacob’s trouble begins.

2 Likes

Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by tobechi20(m): 9:07am On Jun 27, 2021
Nothing
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by bjayx: 9:08am On Jun 27, 2021
The lawless one is the anti Christ who will rule the world before the final judgment of satan comes.

2 Likes

Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by mopetiano(m): 9:08am On Jun 27, 2021
BeeBeeOoh:
Paul said something 2000-years ago and you are asking us what he meant 2000-years after??




Ogbeni! No just provoke us

LMAO , this your comment weak me.

1 Like 1 Share

Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by Ajjpsalm(m): 9:18am On Jun 27, 2021
Sin is transgressions to law
Laws are the don't of the scripture

How to abide in law gracefully ? Having Jesus as your lord and savior. And having intimacy with the holyghost.

Blessed Sunday man of God
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by Osanoghodua1: 9:22am On Jun 27, 2021
The lawless one is actually the anti-christ been spoken off here. We already have already have his agents working out laws to sweet his resign like gay, lesbian, transgender and other wicked acts which are against nature. Very soon, marriage to trees and any other objects or even one's mother and sisters will be legalized and dating married women would become legal and praying in the name of Jesus will be amended.

What is yet keeping this man of [b]sin/anti-christ/lawless one/ son [/b]of perdition is the Holyspirit. Once the Church is raptured, the Holyspirit would be taken away and the anti-christ will be unleased on the inhabitants of the Earth.

Caution: it's better we serve God with all our hearts now and don't regret later.

4 Likes 1 Share

Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by donnie(m): 9:35am On Jun 27, 2021
The lawless one, the man of sin is Edom aka Lucifer. He is the No.1 promoter of lawlessness in the earth. This is Christianity, with the pope as head, sitting in the temple as God. He heads all false abominable religions of the earth.

Sin is lawlessness but unfortunately it has been given another meaning by Christianity, headed by the Pope. Those who are not the people of the book have seized the scriptures and are today pretending to be the custodians of Truth. The law was not given the them so they have discarded it. They cannot even pretend to keep it because their power lies in thier disdain and disregards for the laws of YAH.

Why was the shabbat changed from the 7th day (YAHUAH'S day) to the 1st Day (Day of the Sungod Baal)? So, it's about the authority of Baal (Satan) on the earth over that of YAH and his people. SHALOM.

1 Like 1 Share

Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by LordReed(m): 9:36am On Jun 27, 2021
judedwriter:
The man of sin refers to an ex-president, a black man whose name starts with 'B', surname starts WITH 'O' and middle name stars with 'H'.

If you know, you know.

He will bring about lawlessness as never seen before in human history.

Conspiracy theorist spotted.

1 Like

Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by ciencee(m): 9:38am On Jun 27, 2021
Osanoghodua1:
The lawless one is actually the anti-christ been spoken off here. We already have already have his agents working out laws to sweet his resign like gay, lesbian, transgender and other wicked acts which are against nature. Very soon, marriage to trees and any other objects or even one's mother and sisters will be legalized and dating married women would become legal and praying in the name of Jesus will be amended.

What is yet keeping this man of [b]sin/anti-christ/lawless one/ son [/b]of perdition is the Holyspirit. Once the Church is raptured, the Holyspirit would be taken away and the anti-christ will be unleased on the inhabitants of the Earth.

Caution: it's better we serve God with all our hearts now and don't regret later.
May the Lord bless you for this comment.

2 Likes

Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by cardoctor(m): 9:41am On Jun 27, 2021
The scripture is self explanative.

1 Like

Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by diplomat058(m): 9:48am On Jun 27, 2021
The Peace of our Lord Jesus Christ be unto you brother. I take exception to the definition of sin as the transgression of the law. The law of human societies were not necessarily given by God. As human laws are prone to errors and fallibility. Even the law given by Moses was acknowledged to be imperfect. Jesus flouted some laws during his time, and when he was confronted l, he pointed out the loopholes of those mosaic laws. The problem many Christians are having, according to my understanding, is to take the whole of the bible as the word of God. This is wrong. If that is the case, there won't be cases of contradictions. It must be understood that the bible is a compendium of accounts, opinions, narratives, and words spoken by God. The bible include God's words, but not everything in the bible is God's words. There are times Paul gave his opinion on an issue and christians today take that opinion as the word of God. This is also wrong. Although Paul was motivated by the spirit, it was not every time that He made contributions under the influence of the spirit. Some of those contributions were made with his human wisdom, knowledge and understanding. Even there is a place he Disclaimed and said, "...now me talking, not the Lord..." We need to always take note of all these details.

Now, my rebuttal: If sin is the transgression of the law, what do we call Daniel blatant disobedience the pagan law of Babylon? What do we make of the early Christians who defied legal proscription of Christianity in their domains and went on to spread the Gospel? What do we make of the revolutionary activities of men against legalized tyranny and injustices of the land? Talk of the French revolution against the despotic Bourbon monarchy of France under Louis XVI in 1789? What do we make of the American revolution against the British colonialists? Surely, the British made laws that outlawed such insurrections. What do we make of Igbos and Yorubas in Nigeria trying to leave this apparently failed contraption of the Nigerian State? Paul and many others preached political docility to christians in order to curry leniencies from the harsh and absolutist governments of those period. This is not necessarily applicable in our time. Let's not stick to anachronism which never proceeded from the mouth of our Lord Jesus Christ.

Peace be upon us, Amen.

awitness41:


Yes, excellent DT !

Sin is the transgression of the Law.

And also, although not starting with "sin is...", 1 John 5:17 (NKJV) says "All unrighteousness is sin."
And there is one more definition of sin in James 4:17 (NKJV): "Therefore, to him who knows to do good and does not do it, to him it is sin."
If we put these together, keeping all Truth, we see that sin is the transgression of the Law, a Law which defines "all righteousness" (to which James also agrees... not doing that which we know is righteous).

That answers question #3 above, thank you.

Questions 1 and 2 are surely connected somehow...

I have to go now, but in the meantime I remember seeing you were now reading the Bible, with the intention of reading it all the way through.
May I humbly make a suggestion... or maybe it's actually a reminder of support in that endeavor ?
If one starts with the Gospels of Jesus Christ in Matthew, Mark, Luke, and, John, and reads them on endless reel for life (at least 3 chapters a week, or more), it is very helpful, because Jesus is the one who gives us proper perspective on how to discern the rest of the Bible.
For example, many false prophets preach a "mangled version" of Paul such that they have Paul disagreeing with Jesus.
The Real Paul doesn't disagree with Jesus, but their "mangled version" does.
So if we read something that seems to disagrees with Jesus, Who is right ?
The answer is obvious... Jesus is !
That's how Jesus gives us help in discerning the rest of the Bible... because as God's Son, He's never wrong !
And another reminder for encouragement: remember that one must become like a little child in Faith to enter the Kingdom of God.
Don't believe people have to the smartest in the class, or to somehow be "successful" in whatever worldly endeavor they have (like a job).
If we carry any pride about our sinful selves, it impedes our growth in the Word of God. We must forsake all for Jesus, even our "self".
You know me, I could go on, but I've got to go for now.
Thanks for your support in this post.





Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by ClemxBae(f): 9:54am On Jun 27, 2021
BeeBeeOoh:
Paul said something 2000-years ago and you are asking us what he meant 2000-years after??




Ogbeni! No just provoke us

You are already provoked �
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by phemmyfour: 10:05am On Jun 27, 2021
awitness41:
From 2 Thessalonians 2 (NKJV):

2 Now, brethren, concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him, we ask you,
2 not to be soon shaken in mind or troubled, either by spirit or by word or by letter, as if from us, as though the day of Christ had come.
3 Let no one deceive you by any means; for that Day will not come unless the falling away comes first, and the man of sin is revealed, the son of perdition,
4 who opposes and exalts himself above all that is called God or that is worshiped, so that he sits as God in the temple of God, showing himself that he is God.

5 Do you not remember that when I was still with you I told you these things?
6 And now you know what is restraining, that he may be revealed in his own time.
7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only He who now restrains will do so until He is taken out of the way.
8 And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord will consume with the breath of His mouth and destroy with the brightness of His coming.
9 The coming of the lawless one is according to the working of Satan, with all power, signs, and lying wonders,
10 and with all unrighteous deception among those who perish, because they did not receive the love of the truth, that they might be saved.
11 And for this reason God will send them strong delusion, that they should believe the lie,
12 that they all may be condemned who did not believe the truth but had pleasure in unrighteousness.

Questions:
1) If there is a lawless one, doesn't there have to be a Law ?
2) If the lawless one is also referred to as the man of sin, doesn't that mean sin equates with being lawless ?
3) Using Bible Scripture only, what is the definition of "sin"... and be exact please.

Thank you.

The lawless one does not obeys God's command. The lawless one is the Chief sinner or man of sin aka father of all lies = Satan

The law is now written in our heart, no longer the 10 commandments

This is the covenant I will make with them after that time, says the Lord. I will put my laws in their hearts, and I will write them on their minds.”


Sin is an act of disobedience to God's command

1Jn3:4
Everyone who sins breaks the law; in fact, sin is lawlessness.
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by obi4eze(m): 10:25am On Jun 27, 2021
Man of sin refers to the Antichrist.
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by ofiko123(m): 10:35am On Jun 27, 2021
Go and read the Bible and stop asking useless questions...
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by McLizbae: 10:42am On Jun 27, 2021
And then shall that [/b]Wicked[b] be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:
2 Thessalonians:2:8 (original KJV gan gan)

The Wicked is not always the Lawless and the Lawless is not always the Wicked!

That's why you should stick with the original words not the refined versions.
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by kokomilala(m): 10:48am On Jun 27, 2021
The anti-Christ. It's the Holy Spirit restraining him from launching out fully. But once the Christians are raptured - taken away- his reign will come. That's the great tribulation. By the time God begins to pour the bowls of His wrath onto the earth,on the receivers of the mark of the beast, the Christians who missed the rapture will be severely persecuted, because they'll be blamed for God's acts of vengeance on earth. So, short as that chapter is, its import is very instructive and prophetic.

3 Likes

Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by pepetua(m): 10:50am On Jun 27, 2021
My answers are
a) Yes
b) Yes
c) 1st John 3v4

any other questions?

1 Like

Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by seguno2: 11:30am On Jun 27, 2021
awitness41:
From 2 Thessalonians 2 (NKJV):

2 Now, brethren, concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him, we ask you,
2 not to be soon shaken in mind or troubled, either by spirit or by word or by letter, as if from us, as though the day of Christ had come.
3 Let no one deceive you by any means; for that Day will not come unless the falling away comes first, and the man of sin is revealed, the son of perdition,
4 who opposes and exalts himself above all that is called God or that is worshiped, so that he sits as God in the temple of God, showing himself that he is God.

5 Do you not remember that when I was still with you I told you these things?
6 And now you know what is restraining, that he may be revealed in his own time.
7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only He who now restrains will do so until He is taken out of the way.
8 And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord will consume with the breath of His mouth and destroy with the brightness of His coming.
9 The coming of the lawless one is according to the working of Satan, with all power, signs, and lying wonders,
10 and with all unrighteous deception among those who perish, because they did not receive the love of the truth, that they might be saved.
11 And for this reason God will send them strong delusion, that they should believe the lie,
12 that they all may be condemned who did not believe the truth but had pleasure in unrighteousness.

Questions:
1) If there is a lawless one, doesn't there have to be a Law ?
2) If the lawless one is also referred to as the man of sin, doesn't that mean sin equates with being lawless ?
3) Using Bible Scripture only, what is the definition of "sin"... and be exact please.

Thank you.

Yes, the law of Caesar/governments that Christ obeyed in paying taxes, as well as God’s law to love your neighbours as yourself.

Do you know any religion that does not make anyone who disobeys the two laws above as sinners
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by Christistruth00: 11:39am On Jun 27, 2021
Apostle Paul was referring to the AntiChrist
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by MrNipplesLover(m): 11:56am On Jun 27, 2021
Thank you, father.

❤❤❤❤
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by dederocs(m): 12:13pm On Jun 27, 2021
He is referring to those men of the pulpit, using the name of Christ to rip their people off... indeed who is more lawless than the criminal pastorpreneur undecided
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by daveP(m): 12:32pm On Jun 27, 2021
awitness41:
From 2 Thessalonians 2 (NKJV):

2 Now, brethren, concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him, we ask you,
2 not to be soon shaken in mind or troubled, either by spirit or by word or by letter, as if from us, as though the day of Christ had come.
3 Let no one deceive you by any means; for that Day will not come unless the falling away comes first, and the man of sin is revealed, the son of perdition,
4 who opposes and exalts himself above all that is called God or that is worshiped, so that he sits as God in the temple of God, showing himself that he is God.

5 Do you not remember that when I was still with you I told you these things?
6 And now you know what is restraining, that he may be revealed in his own time.
7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only He who now restrains will do so until He is taken out of the way.
8 And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord will consume with the breath of His mouth and destroy with the brightness of His coming.
9 The coming of the lawless one is according to the working of Satan, with all power, signs, and lying wonders,
10 and with all unrighteous deception among those who perish, because they did not receive the love of the truth, that they might be saved.
11 And for this reason God will send them strong delusion, that they should believe the lie,
12 that they all may be condemned who did not believe the truth but had pleasure in unrighteousness.

Questions:
1) If there is a lawless one, doesn't there have to be a Law ?
2) If the lawless one is also referred to as the man of sin, doesn't that mean sin equates with being lawless ?
3) Using Bible Scripture only, what is the definition of "sin"... and be exact please.

Thank you.



Let me take you back to Verse 7.


The Mystery of lawlessness is already at work.

Look around you, cant you see the grave and geometric increase of lawlessness and grave disregard for moral boundaries and basic laws across different nations. Paul used that during his time, how much more 2000+ yrs from then. So this Lawless Man is going to the Peak of these things.


It isn't a direct reference to The Law of Moses, cos i suspect you may be going down that lane. Its a general one with regards to puncturing of Moral boundaries. Thus he is naturally going to be a man of sin. He wont have such boundaries or edges. He is Full Revelation of sin when he comes.


What is stopping him, The Holy Spirit.

The Anti Christ is this man.

2) vs 10 shows he will use all unrighteous deception to gather a large following unlike never before. This is an image of that Old Serpent, The devil. The Devil is the origin of this man. We all know the identity of the devil(including the appearing as angel of light, thus the deception of even the very elect that dont stand well)


The fear is no intellectual height any man currently wields would be able to checkmate this deception (v9)


He isnt coming easy, he's coming prepared and with exactly what the minds of people desire and crave(support for success of his project of deception)


3. Scattered over all the Bible are enough references to define Sin. The book of Romans defines this very well. I think the fact that the origin of the Man of Perdition is from Devil should help with the definition!!


I hope its direct and simple as possible.


If you need a book that is well detailed about this Lawless one, i suggest Salem Kirban's What In The World Will Happen Next?




Happy Sunday

1 Like 1 Share

Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by Kinkinatus(m): 12:44pm On Jun 27, 2021
1Timothy 4:1-3 refers. Apostle Paul was writing in 2Thessalonians 2: 2,3 about apostates in the early Christian congregation. He warned the congregation at Ephesus that oppressive wolves would enter the congregation. Such oppressive wolves will not treat the congregation with tenderness and will instead try to draw away disciples from the early Christian congregation, in order to selfishly benefit. This is again illustrated in Matt 13 which talks about the weeds being imitation christians growing among the sown wheat, which are the sons of God's Kingdom.
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by benihonde(m): 1:20pm On Jun 27, 2021
Osanoghodua1:
The lawless one is actually the anti-christ been spoken off here. We already have already have his agents working out laws to sweet his resign like gay, lesbian, transgender and other wicked acts which are against nature. Very soon, marriage to trees and any other objects or even one's mother and sisters will be legalized and dating married women would become legal and praying in the name of Jesus will be amended.

What is yet keeping this man of [b]sin/anti-christ/lawless one/ son [/b]of perdition is the Holyspirit. Once the Church is raptured, the Holyspirit would be taken away and the anti-christ will be unleased on the inhabitants of the Earth.

Caution: it's better we serve God with all our hearts now and don't regret later.
God bless you for this!

2 Likes

Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by benihonde(m): 1:22pm On Jun 27, 2021
kokomilala:
The anti-Christ. It's the Holy Spirit restraining him from launching out fully. But once the Christians are raptured - taken away- his reign will come. That's the great tribulation. By the time God begins to pour the bowls of His wrath onto the earth,on the receivers of the mark of the beast, the Christians who missed the rapture will be severely persecuted, because they'll be blamed for God's acts of vengeance on earth. So, short as that chapter is, its import is very instructive and prophetic.
Oil dey your head.
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by infini771: 1:26pm On Jun 27, 2021
He will support gay marriage
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by Calitoscassius(m): 1:31pm On Jun 27, 2021
Who da hell is paul? Paul never existed it is just fairytales grin
Re: What Did Paul Mean When He Referred To The "Lawless One" Also As "Man Of Sin"? by Kobojunkie: 2:16pm On Jun 27, 2021
Nikkganc08:
Always read ur bibles properly before commenting or simply Stay away.

When Paul Referred To The "Lawless One" as "Man Of Sin", he was simply trying to buttress on the fact that the sin of the man is not big enough to be passed into law.
What sin is not big enough to be passed into what law ? God's Law or man's law? undecided

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