₦airaland Forum

solite3:
Daniel 2:45 Forasmuch as thou sawest that the stone was cut out of the mountain without hands, and that it brake in pieces the iron, the brass, the clay, the silver, and the gold; the great God hath made known to the king what shall come to pass hereafter: and the dream is certain, and the interpretation thereof sure.

Who is the great God in the new testament
Titus 2:13 Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ;

GOD bless you.

CANTICLES:
The same verse accuse Jesus of being a sinner by declaring he breaks the Sabbath, do you believe that too ?

Yes. According to Pharisaic standards, Jesus broke the Sabbath.

Can you still deny that John asserted that Jesus made Himself equal with GOD?

CANTICLES:
Revelation 3:14 , Jesus is the beginning of the creation by God! Also Proverb 8:22

"All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. " Jn. 1:3

"For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:" Col. 1:16.

It is clear from the above verses that Jesus created every thing that was created. Now, if Jesus was created, did Jesus create Himself?

dolphinheart:
John was speaking to jesus?

Who said so?

It is very clear that John was narrating in Jn. 5:18. John narrated that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus because He made Himself equal with GOD.

JESUS MADE HIMSELF EQUAL WITH GOD!

dolphinheart:
no , jesus is not omnipresent!, he is not present everywhere at the same time.

I'm still shocked.

"...and, lo, I am with you alway, even unto the end of the world. Amen" Matt. 28:20. How could Jesus be with all of His people always even unto to the end of age if He was not omnipresent?

"Behold, I stand at the door, and knock: if any man hear my voice, and open the door, I will come in to him, and will sup with him, and he with me." Rev. 3:20. How can Jesus stand at the door of every man's heart constantly knocking, if He is not omnipresent?

dolphinheart:
John was speaking to jesus?

Who said so?

It is very clear that John was narrating in Jn. 5:18. John narrated that the Jews wanted to kill Jesus because He made Himself equal with GOD.

JESUS MADE HIMSELF EQUAL WITH GOD!

dolphinheart:
"in the beginning was the the word", God does not have a beginning.

The Bible did not say "in the beginning was the word formed".
The Bible says the Word was there in the beginning.

dolphinheart:
done that already!, but you don't believe that proverbs 8:22- 30 was referring to jesus, so I'll wait till you tell me about your understanding of the verses I quoted.

Fine. Let's assume Prov. 8:22-30 was referring to Jesus. 1 Cor. 1:30 also calls Jesus the wisdom of GOD.

Now, was wisdom created?

dolphinheart:
sir, what did wisdom say in proverbs 8: 22-30

Why did you dodge the question you quoted? Answer it please with "yes" or "no".

dolphinheart:
now pls kindly tell:
"And we know that the (1)Son of GOD is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know (2)him that is true, and we are in (3)Him that is true, even in [color=yellow](4)his[/color] Son Jesus Christ. This is the true GOD, and eternal life." 1 Jn. 5:20.

1.who is the "son of God" in (1)coloured blue above
2.who is "him" in (2)coloured red above
3. who is the "him" in (3)coloured green above
4.who is the "his" in (4)coloured yellow above

note , Jesus does not have a son called Jesus.
Jesus himself had told told us who the only true God is!

1. Jesus Christ
2. GOD
3. GOD
4. Jesus Christ

What ambiguity is there to that verse?

dolphinheart:
plus quote verse 5 and 6 and tell what you think the devil implied by his statement.

Reply to the contradiction I accused you of in the that post you quoted.

dolphinheart:
ill tell you, after you have told me your own view of omnipresent

Omnipresent - present everywhere at the same time.
Now, answer my question: are you saying Jesus is not omnipresent?

Beating about the bush and employing puerile logic and tactics won't really change the divine truths of the Scripture.

dolphinheart:
If you have all power, but your will is subjected to the will of another, you do not do anything with it unless that person tells you to, is the power not limited?

I don't know if you view Jesus as someone who wants to exercise arbitrary power but is being hindered, hence your bizarre notion that His power has limits.

If somebody gives me an order contrary to what I want to do, then the person is limiting me. But if the orders I receive from somebody are the same things I want to do, then I am not limited in any way. Jesus and His Father are one in will and purpose. Whatever the Father purposes to do, that is also what Jesus purposes to do.

How then is Jesus' power limited? Read Matt. 28:18 again. Does this show any limits to Jesus' power?

dolphinheart:
The verse itself has shown you that despite taking on a servant form, he still is not equal to God.

Explain.

dolphinheart:
interesting, so you believe the statements of those religious leaders who jesus himself said they do not understand what he is saying!

I'm sorry but it was John speaking in Jn. 5:18 and not religious leaders. Can't you see?

Dolphinheart,

"IN the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with GOD, and the Word was GOD." Jn. 1:1

We know that the Word is Jesus Christ. If Jesus Christ was GOD(again, this clearly shows equality with the Father), could GOD have been created?

I'm still shocked someone could say Jesus Christ was created. Something that can never be found anywhere in the Bible.

Dolphinheart,

1 Cor. 30 calls Jesus Christ the wisdom of GOD. If you say Jesus Christ was created, was wisdom created?

It's interesting that only jw's NWT uses the word "produced" in verse 22 of Prov. 8.

dolphinheart:
God’s Son, however, was “the firstborn of all creation.” He was produced, or created;

I'm shocked. Show me where the Scripture clearly says that Jesus Christ was created.

Please don't quote your jw NWT for me.

dolphinheart:
The new world translation, some other versions used "formed ", "created ", "made", "brought me fought", "possessed".

I see. You quoted JW Bible for me. I searched "Prov. 8:22 NWT" and the first result I saw was a jw site. I'm sorry but no other version of the Bible used the word "produced" in Prov. 8:22. KJV used the word "possessed". So do many others.

I suppose you read your jw Bible. I'm very sure a lot of Bible truths have been distorted in that translation, hence your distorted view of the Scripture.

dolphinheart:
pls kindly quote the verse in full and ill respond to it, the truth about the verse in in the part you cut off.

"And we know that the Son of GOD is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true, and we are in Him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true GOD, and eternal life." 1 Jn. 5:20.

What truth is here?

dolphinheart:
2.you could not state what the temptation was about, I stated it.

Satan tempted Jesus to see if Jesus would obey him i.e. fall into sin. The aim of the temptation of Jesus wasn't for Jesus to become a medium through which GOD the Father could be tested.

dolphinheart:
did you read what Satan said in verse 5 and 6, pls explain it.

satan was tempting Jesus Christ to test HIS GOD!, if Jesus carries out that temptation, who will be tested, Jesus or his father who had made the statement that the devil is using?

Is anything ambigous about matt. 4:5-6? Jesus is the Son of GOD. GOD the Son. Everybody knows that.

So, the temptation of Jesus Christ has now become "the temptation of Jesus to test GOD"?

Even if you say that Jesus was referring to GOD the Father when He used "the LORD thy GOD" in Matt. 4:7, then you mean that Jesus told Himself "Thou shalt not tempt the LORD thy GOD" because Satan wasn't tempting GOD the Father. But we know from the same verse that Jesus didn't make that statement to Himself but to Satan.

You constantly contradict both yourself and the Scripture.

dolphinheart:
what is your definition of omnipresent?

Check your dictionary. Whatever it says omnipresent means, that is my definition of omnipresent.

Now, answer the question: are you saying that Jesus is not omnipresent?

Jozzy4:
Na " ego eimi" God tell moses ? moses hear Greek ?

GOD didn't tell Moses "I AM" either. GOD didn't speak english to Moses.
What is your point?

dolphinheart:
simple answer(though still complicated) : yes!

You said that Jesus' power is limited. This in itself is a sacrilege. The Scripture will once again prove you wrong: "And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth." Matt. 28:18.

If Jesus has all the power in Heaven and in earth, how is His power limited?

Even if you employ multitudes of words, they cannot obfuscate what the Scripture clearly teaches.

dolphinheart:
3. I've shown on this thread with scriptures and explanation where Jehovah had describe jesus(more than once) as his servant,(no one has said I was wrong)

"Who, being in the form of GOD, thought it not robbery to be equal with GOD: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant... " Phil. 2:6-7

Clearly, Jesus is equal with GOD but He chose to make himself a servant. And since he obeyed GOD faithfully, He could be rightly referred to as GOD's servant. He also served humanity. So, Jesus took servanthood upon Himself. He made himself a servant.

Dolphinheart,

You implied that the Jews tried to kill Jesus because he told them that "His Father is different from theirs."

Let us see what the Bible says is the reason why the Jews tried to kill Jesus: "Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he...said also that GOD was his Father, making himself equal with GOD. " Jn. 5:18.

Here, the Bible unequivocally states that Jesus made Himself equal with GOD.

dolphinheart:
go look at the Greek words translated to "I am" and you will see it, expecially the Greek word "eimi".

Hitherto you have told many lies, and this is one of them. "I AM" translates "ego eimi" in Greek and not "eimi". This is the same name GOD proclaimed to Moses, and Jesus takes it as his name. What can that mean? He is equal to GOD the Father.

Stop using puerile logic here. Does the fact that people use "I am" today mean that "I AM" is no longer GOD's name?

Moreover, if Jesus was merely speaking of His existence before Abraham and not taking GOD's name, the Bible would have translated the correct sentence with concord. Do you notice that by the rules of concord, this sentence "before Abraham, I am" is wrong? By the rules of concord, the correct sentence is "before Abraham, I was".

But the Bible reads "I AM" because Jesus qualified himself with GOD's own name. He is equal with GOD the Father.

Dolphinheart,

You said that Jesus has a beginning and that that beginning was at the creation.

Here is what the Bible says about Christ: "...and we are in him that is true, even in his Son Jesus Christ. This is the true GOD, and eternal life." 1 Jn. 5:20

The Bible calls Jesus the true GOD, and refers to him as ETERNAL life. Jesus is eternal.

If you still think Jesus has beginning, check the meaning of the word "eternal".