₦airaland Forum

tctrills:
Thanks for that added scripture it adds some light to what I have been telling you.
Most importantly Jesus Christ now processes all power and by definition it makes him Almighty.

Does 1 Corinthians 15:27 say that Jesus possesses all the powers? Please read carefully.

Steep:
According to you those who will inherit the earth are either not humans or the earth will not become God's kingdom right?

Matthew 5:5 Blessed are the meek: for they shall inherit the earth.

Uncle show me where in the bible that Jesus is a man in heaven with flesh and blood.

tctrills:
I am not sure you have been following my write ups.
I did not say Jesus was an Almighty God, I said he is Jehovah. But now, he is clearly an Almighty God.
Almighty means having all power right? So read
Matthew 28:18-20

18 And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.

Can you please explain 1 Corinthians 15:27 in relation to Matthew 28:18

Steep:
What of if I show you a verse that calls Jesus a man even in heaven, what will you do?

Show me please...a place that shows Jesus is in heaven as a man in flesh and blood as against 1 Corinthians 15:50.

Steep:
My friend stop playing games.
What is this below?

1 Corinthians 15:21 For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead.

15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.

I highlighted earlier but you skipped it only to be asking stupid questions.

Mr Michael explain what you understand in vv 21 and 22.

Verse 21 clearly shows that Jesus on earth came to die for men making resurrection possible for men.
So now is Jesus still a man in heaven?

AntiChristian:
Yes, the servant said it. Or the servant lied that the fire came from heaven?

So did the servant see God doing that or he assumed it was God since he saw the fire coming from above?

AntiChristian:
God sent the fire in Job 1:16.

Was it God that said that or Job's servant?

Venerable612:
You don’t research bro.

You pray - and God helps you understand the truth.

You shall know the truth - and the truth shall set you free!!!

So please define Trinity as you understand it.

Steep:
According to the Bible Jesus is a man

I'm asking in respect to the context in 1 Corinthians 15:27, 28

tctrills:
Isaiah 9.6 called Jesus Christ the mighty God.

John 1.1 The word was God.

Hebrews 1:8
But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: A sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.

John 20:28

28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.

So is Jesus the Almighty God according to John 20:17 and John 14:28?

Steep:
You do not know what Trinity is.
Many people have explained it to you yet you remain adamant.
The Trinity describes the being of God.
Jesus is equally God with the Father and the Holy Spirit but humanly, Jesus is less than the father.

So is Jesus a human in heaven according to 1 Corinthians 15:27,28

Maximus692:
Please are you one of JWs?

Yes

AntiChristian:
But God was directly responsible!

How

Steep:
Read from 21.


1 Corinthians 15:21 For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead.

15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.

15:23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.

15:24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.

15:25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.

15:26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.

15:27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him.

15:28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.

Also read Hebrews 2, and psalm 8.

These chapters are speaking of the Adamic dominion and glory.

The first Adam was given power and dominion and glory but he failed and brought death, then God made another Adam, Jesus to restore all that Adam lost. Christ must reign in his humanity until all things are put under his adamic authority and power, after this christ in this adamic dominion, authority glory and power be subject to the Father, and the adamic kingdom handed over to the father.

Scriptures must agree and explain scripture.

Is is not clear from verse 28 that the son is subjected to someone?
How come he is equal to the one he is subjected to?
Please you guys should do more research on Trinity to save further arguments.

AntiChristian:
OP said otherwise!

Op is saying God was not responsible for the calamity that befell Job.

phemmyfour:
It never did

It attributes same prowess to Jesus like the Father.

Equality was the wrong word you chose

I and my Father are one is different from "I am equal to my father"

I and my Father are one means:
We are in sync
We do not contradict ourselves
I can stand in the gap for the father

Your explanation is correct. But unfortunate it does not agree with the Trinity doctrine that says both the Father and Son are coequals.
Please again do your research.

Steep:
Do you believe in the physical resurrection of Jesus?

How does that relate

AntiChristian:
Who tempted/Tested Job? Satan or God?

Who sent fireball to him in Job 1:16? Satan or God?

How was Job lured by his own desires when it was claimed that Job was righteous /blameless/shunned evil in Job 1:1.

Kindly expatiate as i am ignorant?

If you have read those passages from the bible, the answer should be clear that Satan did all of that.

Steep:
Philippians 2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:


Jesus was made a little lower than the angels

Hebrews 2:9 But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honour; that he by the grace of God should taste death for every man.

The only reason Jesus is lower in authority than the father is in his humanity.

Explain 1 Corinthians 15:28

Venerable612:
I pray you find understanding and purpose 🙏.

Shallom ✌️

Lol.... You need to do more research on the Trinity doctrine.

Steep:
The answer to your question is that Jesus, the Father and the holy Spirit has different roles.
The father is the authority of God, he ordains and determines what and what will happen

The word exercises the father's authority and fulfills the father's plan

The holy Spirit brings empowerment


The creation for example was design, planned and ordained by the father but came to being through the agency of the Son speaking them into existence and the holy Spirit enables them to be.

Salvation was the father's design and plan but was fulfilled by the Son and enabled by the Spirit.

The authority of the Son to act and reign as the Christ was derived from the Father, and the Sons kingdom was established to save mankind but would at the end be subject to the Father.

So between the Son and the father, who has more authority?

Steep:
Jesus is equally God with the Father but he is less than the father in authority

If he is less than the father in authority that simply means that he is not the almighty God and cannot be equal to God

Crosby24:
Applying what his father command him how's this related to our discussion

It clearly shows that Jesus served the Father and not the other way round. Jesus is never equal to the Father.

Venerable612:
Again, it does not.

See Philippians 2:6-7. I did the favour of copying the AMPLIFIED VERSION, as it explains things more in lay men terms.

“ Philippians 2:6-17

Amplified Bible
6 who, although He existed in the form and unchanging essence of God [as One with Him, possessing the fullness of all the divine attributes—the entire nature of deity], did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped or asserted [as if He did not already possess it, or was afraid of losing it];

7 but emptied Himself [without renouncing or diminishing His deity, but only temporarily giving up the outward expression of divine equality and His rightful dignity] by assuming the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men [He became completely human but was without sin, being fully God and fully man].”

So it is clearly there that Jesus did not even grasp to be equal to God.
Read 1 Corinthians 11:3

Crosby24:
Of course you know he leads his disciples by example washing their feet

Explain John 14:31

tctrills:
Anyway let's stop going round in circles. It's ok to disagree.

Ok

tctrills:
I dont get what you are trying to say but I don't think it's my role to prove that time exist even if you don't have a clock.

Can there be time without any reference?
Please do research

tctrills:
That's not my job here. Get more understanding of time and you would be on my side.

Lol....you would the greater understanding would not explain.

tctrills:
Your opinion but I you are wrong.

Prove me wrong

Crosby24:
Brother the Bible is not an ordinary book you need a revelation knowledge, how will he knows the sign without knowing the day? Also greatness in the bible is not defined by the world standard, Jesus said the greater among you will be the one to serve.the attributes that define almighty God as greater is service and when Jesus was here on earth he served, connect the dot.

So who was Jesus serving while on earth?

tctrills:
You even if you don't have a standard of measurement, time does not cease to exist.

For there to be time, it must be measured. Time cannot exist on its own. It must be in relation to something.

tctrills:
Yes both should be measured by a standard but they exist irrespective of whether we measure them or not.

If there are no standards then they don't exist.