₦airaland Forum

Eccl9:10 says,
You cannot undo what you have done here on earth! So, while you have life, do what will profit your soul

Truthseeker10:
According to the verse below, is there suffering in Hell?

According to the verse below, is there suffering in Hell?

Mat 13:42:
"And he shall cast them into the furnace of fire, where there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth."

Mat 13:50:
"And they shall cast them into the furnace of fire, where there will be weeping and gnashing of teeth."

Mat 24:51:
"And he shall separate him, and he shall place his portion with the hypocrites, where there shall be weeping and gnashing of teeth.""

naptu2:
The Niger Bridge was recently rehabilitated and barriers were placed on the bridge to create a median.

Some people claimed that the bridge was a two-lane road and that the median would create traffic jams. They claimed that nobody would be able to pass the bridge if a vehicle broke down on it. This is not true.

The bridge is actually a four-lane bridge and vehicles are able to go past any broken down vehicle on the bridge. This video illustrates that point.

A minibus broke down on the bridge and a large truck was able to go past it without problems.


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lpEB82wz0HI?si=6nIgycdsVLTLe-35

What if a trailer broke down on this bridge, would another trailer be able to pass?


I don't think so!

Sensiblerealist:
My take is that to what ends and until when will this continue?
This is to say that at then end, the useless leaders will still com and sit to negotiate depending on the cards each side holds.
Cuz Russia is a nuclear power, the rubbish NATO alliance can do absolute nothing more than they have done already. It's more like a stalemate but people are losing their lives daily and being driven into despair as to when the next bombs will drop. But Russia being a larger military and economy still has leverage which she has been using all along

There is no more NATO Alliance because everyone knows that NATO is America AND Trump is Pro-Putin because he likes Strong-men like Putin and Kim of North Korea.


The problem is the imperial tendency of Putin:
I am bigger than you amd I have Nuclear technology, therefore, I can annex your land.

If Putin did not annex Cremia in 2014, this would not happen. But Cremia was annexed, Ukraine has to look for protection from NATO.


Now, Ukraine whether we like it or not is becoming a world power.

Putin CANNOT use Nuclear Weapons because it will open the floodgate for EVERY Nation to openly work towards acquiring their own.

Strong nations should never bully weaker and smaller nations

Sensiblerealist:
Make this Zelensky dude gree for this tyrant. If person don pass you, he pass you. The whole NATO thing Noor dey work and USA get limit very dem fit go for the matter or else, Russia sef go show them she elsewhere.
They should stop this shii do people can rebuild their lives

If you read the news , it would look like Putin is advancing into both Oleshky amd Kherson city but no.

Both Oleshky and Kherson city were occupied by Putin in 2022. Ukraine liberated Kherson city (March 2022) but Russia is still occupying Oleshky. Putin is threatening both cities because of the Ukrainian pressures causing the Humanitarian crises.

For Oleshky Putin cannot feed his hostages.
For Kherson, the roads to it pass through Oleshky making it difficult for Ukrainians to bring in supplies to it.

doffman:
You unbelievers will remain in your repetition mode for years seh 🤣 Only God can deliver you o .


Oya read :

Exodus 35:2
Six days work shall be done, but on the seventh day you shall have a Sabbath of solemn rest, holy to the Lord. Whoever does any work on it shall be put to death.

Gbam, lobatan 🤣
Your agbakooo book say they should Kpai u guys ahaaaa

The one who invoke Mohammed in his Tashahud is the idolater.

Domy you DAILY invoke Mohammed in your Tashahud?

You pray to Mohammed!

Shior!

dofman:
Unbeliever , Pele ; so glad I bursted you ahaaa

You can start crying now . Lolz

You pray towards a god domicioin the Kaaba. Isnt the Kaaba not yhe house of your god?


The one who worships an idol of the kaaba calling others Disbelievers because they wouldn't join him to worship his idol and his chief priest.

Ohyoudidnt:
For the upteenth time here is the answer again.Jesus said Moses permitted divorce for the hardness of your hearts. He did not say God permitted it, and he did not say Moses and not God. No verse says that. I've now answered it more than once, and each time you've asked it again as if I hadn't.

You haven't given a text that separates Deut 24:4 from verses 1 to 3. And you haven't said whether Jesus ever claimed Moses acted without God. That is refusing to answer, not looking for the truth.

So. whats your argument about since morning? Just to occupy space!?

So, if I get you correctly
1. You agree that Moses (not God) permitted the law of divorce for the Isrealites because they were heard hearted according to Jesus.

2. You also admitted that Moses claimed in Deut 24:4 that remarrying a divorced woman after she has been defiled by another man is both an ABOMINATION and a SIN to God

3. You admitted that Moses did not tell LIES against God wrt Deut 24:4.

4. You also agree that some words and actions of Moses in the Torah were not directed by God.


THEREFORE, LOGICALLY , if the four above are TRUE and Moses had not lied against God in Deut 24:4, then Deut 24:4 is from God and not from Moses.

If you do not agree with the above conclusion then the BURDEN is on YOU to present an explicit proof that Deut 24:4 is from Moses and not from God as in Deut 24:1-3



NOTE:
Whether Deut 24:4 is from Moses or directed by God as long as it is TRUE is a problem for Islam.
If Deut 24:4 is a true statement from Moses, it still makes the remarriage of a defiled divorced former wife is an ABOMINATION and a SIN to God.

It is still BAD for Islam and it is understandable because Allah is not YHWH

Ohyoudidnt:
Meanwhile you haven't answered what Exodus 21:10 to 11 and 1 Corinthians 7:15 do to your spiritual union.

Exodus 21:7-11 Is a Civil Law that regulates the legal and material obligations of a man who takes a female Hebrew servant as wife or concubine;
1 Corinthians 7:15 addresses a mixed-faith marriage in which the unbelieving spouse deserts.

Whether acknowledged or not, spiritual union remains between the married even when divorced.

In Exodus, the Civil law is that at worst , if such a servant is divorced, she must be set free to go back to jer family.

In Corinthians , if the Unbelieving spouse exists the marriage, then the Believing woman is under no bondage not to remarry.

Notwithstanding, the spiritual union is unbroken. In fact, only DEATH dissolves a marriage union.

1 Corinthians 7:39:
“A wife is bound to her husband as long as he lives. But if her husband dies, she is free to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord.”

Ohyoudidnt:
You demand answers from me, but only answered some of mine, so credit where it's due. You say a man who marries a divorced woman can't escape adultery. But the main questions are still untouched. What do Exodus 21:10 to 11 and 1 Corinthians 7:15 do to your spiritual union? What text splits verse 4 from verses 1 to 3, when all you've done is assert the second part is God's? And did Jesus say Moses acted without God? Yes or no, and quote the verse.

"If you are truthful" is not how a person asks a question, and you call my case an argument from silence while yours rests on Matthew 19:8 not mentioning God.
My case isn't from silence. I gave you Numbers 20:7 to 12, Exodus 33:7 to 11, Leviticus 1:1, Deut 5:31 and Matthew 15:4. I never said Moses was always directed by God. So show me your cases where he acted unilaterally. Each one needs its own text, and when Moses departs from God's instruction, as in Numbers 20, God answers with a rebuke. Nothing like that follows the divorce provision.
On your question, Jesus said Moses permitted divorce because of hard hearts. He did not say God permitted it, and he did not say Moses and not God.
Mutah gets its own post once the divorce debate is done. It doesn't replace these questions.

You are unfortunately just repeating yourself while dodging reason.

I have asked you a simple question to force you to think and not just repeat the same questions over and over.










PLEASE ANSWER THIS QUESTION IF YOU ARE INDEED TRUTHFUL ABOUT THIS DISCUSSION

Did Jesus claim that
God permitted Divorce for the children of Israel
OR that
Moses permitted divorce for the children of Israel?

Your answer shows if you are being OBJECTIVE in your quest.

Over to you!

Ohyoudidnt:
I see, so as it's pronounce in daily obligatory prayers people die in droves. Obviously you are not serious.

The name is dangerous only when chanted amongst non Muslims.


Wery dangerous in the Aeroplane or in the Market

Ohyoudidnt:
You say I smuggled in a clause. It sat inside a yes or no question, so you were free to say no. You said no, so now give the verse that says Moses acted without God. Moses acted unilaterally many times is not that verse. When Moses departs from God's instruction, the Torah says so and God answers, as in Numbers 20:7 to 12 where he strikes the rock and is rebuked. Nothing like that follows the divorce provision, and Deut 24:4 sits beside it calling the return an abomination before the LORD.
Now your question. Jesus said Moses permitted divorce because of hard hearts. I never said he said God permitted it. But Moses permitted it is not Moses and not God. Those last words are yours, so quote the sentence where Jesus says them. In Mark 10:5 he says Moses wrote this precept for you, and in Matthew 15:4 he credits another Mosaic command to God.
Even if you were right, it would show a concession in one age and a stricter ideal in another. It wouldn't show a different author for Quran 2:230.
Two questions are still waiting. What do Exodus 21:10 to 11 and 1 Corinthians 7:15 do to your spiritual union, and can those spouses remarry? Answer them in your next post, or say plainly that you have no answer.

You are promoting argument from silence.

If that is the case:
Did Allah cancel Mutah for you MUSLIMS?
It is a YES or NO Question!



It seems your take is that Moses was ALWAYS directed by God for his actions and speech!

What if I show you that Moses many times acted unilaterally without God in the Torah: will it suffice for you?

What if I show you that Moses's unilateral actions were NOT always sanctioned by God as per your argument? will it also suffice for you?



1. You admitted that Moses was not telling lies in Deut 24:4
2. You also recognised that Jesus said that "Moses permitted Divorce" for the children of Israel because of their hard heartedness Mat 19:8




PLEASE ANSWER THIS QUESTION IF YOU ARE INDEED TRUTHFUL ABOUT THIS DISCUSSION

Did Jesus claim that
God permitted Divorce for the children of Israel
OR that
Moses permitted divorce for the children of Israel?

Ohyoudidnt:
E

You don't even see you contradicting your lie. Did you not say the praise of Allah is said as a precursor to your allegations of terror. Obviously you are not aware of your own statements

Its all about your kind.

Their conscience is dead so much that they relish mixing Allah's name with EVIL actions like Murder and Terrorism.

A chant of Allahu-akba is usually followed up with evil

Ohyoudidnt:
Can you stay focused and stop shaking like a worm in salt.

Its all about your kind.

Their conscience is dead so much that they relish mixing Allah's name with EVIL actions like Murder and Terrorism.

You smuggled in this
that Moses gave the divorce provision under God's authority?

You fail to understand that Moses acted unilaterally many times in the Torah!


No sir! Moses (and not God) gave the lawn according to Jesus statement

Ohyoudidnt:
Now that's a false choice. I take Moses and Jesus at their word, and neither of them is lying. In Deut 24:4 Moses says a first husband may not take his former wife back after another marriage, and he calls it an abomination before the Lord. In Matthew 19:8 Jesus says Moses permitted divorce because of hard hearts, though it wasn't so from the beginning. One is a limit on a return, and the other is a concession set against God's original design, so they don't collide. For one of them to be a lie you'd need a third claim that neither of them makes, that Moses gave the divorce law with no authority from God. That claim is yours.
Jesus doesn't say it either. He says Moses permitted it, and in Mark 10:5 that Moses wrote you this precept. In Matthew 15:4 he credits a Mosaic command to God. A concession given because of the people's hearts is a changed ruling for a changed situation, and you accept that between Moses and Jesus. So you've answered your own question. Both spoke truly, and a later ruling that differs from an earlier one doesn't prove a different author, which is what I've said about 2:230.
If there's a sentence you don't understand, quote it and I'll put it more simply. If you can't name one, the questions still stand.
So here's a yes or no for you. Do you accept that Moses and Jesus both spoke truly, and that Moses gave the divorce provision under God's authority? If yes, your claim of a different source for Quran 2:230 is gone. If no, point me to the verse that says Moses acted without God.
Two questions are also still waiting. What do Exodus 21:10 to 11 and 1 Corinthians 7:15 do to your spiritual union, and can those spouses remarry?

Now you are coming closer to the truth

1. You admitted that Moses was not telling lies in Deut 24:4
2. You also recognised that Jesus said that "Moses permitted Divorce" for the children of Israel because of their hard heartedness Mat 19:8


Did Jesus claim that
God permitted Divorce for the children of Israel
OR that
Moses permitted divorce for the children of Israel?

Ohyoudidnt:
Where's the Allahu Akbar statement in the few weeks ago incident? Detailed official findings covering the weapon, sequence, motive, radicalization history, confession, and prevention by crew/passengers contain no mention of the co-pilot (or anyone) shouting Allahu Akbar or any verbal declaration during the attack, or similar religious slogans as part of the incident

A Muslim will argue just for the sake of remaining in the argument.

The 911 jihadisits did it in the name of Allah.
Boko haram will slaughter human beings in the name of Allah
Even Fulani Kidnappers will kidnap in the name of Allah.


Who is this Allah?
Could it be satan!?

Ohyoudidnt:
No, Moses isn't lying about God in Deut 24:4, and I never said he was. You said he unilaterally gave the divorce law with no revelation, meaning apart from God, and that is the claim I've been asking you to support. Yes, you told me the Torah is a compilation of chronicles and different kinds of law, and I accept that. I never said every verse is God's word. I said you haven't shown where Moses' authority stops, and you haven't.
Your first post said Moses permitted divorce because of hard hearts and that it wasn't God's plan, which is what Jesus says in Matthew 19:8. Unilaterally and no revelation only came later, when you were pressed, and no verse backs them. Verse 4 deals with a case that starts with her already divorced, so it only makes sense inside the same speech as verses 1 to 3. If Moses speaks truly about God in verse 4, his word counts in that speech. You even split it yourself, saying the second part of Moses' is God's, with no text for the split.
Now look at how the Torah and its readers applied it. Verse 2 says she departs and becomes another man's wife, and the text attaches no penalty to that. Jewish law reads verse 4 as barring one thing only, her return to the first husband after another marriage, and reads the get as freeing her to marry any other man (Mishnah Gittin 9:3). That differs from Quran 2:230 on the return itself, and I'm not hiding it. But it has the same shape, a restriction on reunion with one husband and freedom to marry anyone else. Your rule says every man who marries a divorced woman commits adultery. The Torah you call partly God's, as its own people applied it, says the opposite. So either Jesus overrode that, which is the changed ruling you accept between Moses and Jesus, or your rule has no support in the passage you're leaning on. Either way, a difference in rulings doesn't show a different source for Qur'an 2:230.
Jesus doesn't call Moses a liar either. In Mark 10:3 he asks what Moses commanded, and in 10:5 he says Moses wrote this precept.
I answered your yes or no. Now answer mine. What do Exodus 21:10 to 11 and 1 Corinthians 7:15 do to your spiritual union, and can those spouses remarry?

If I said I understand your position, it would be a lie.


1. You admitted that Moses was not telling lies in Deut 24:4
2. You recognised that Jesus said that "Moses permitted Divorce" for the children of Israel because of their hard heartedness Mat 19:8:

So, if Moses was not telling lies in Deut 24:4 , was Jesus the one telling Lies in Mat 19:8: that Moses gave the law BUT it wasn't so from the Beginning with God.


So, back to you. If Moses wasn't being untruthful in Deut 24:4, was Jesus the one speaking LIES and Falsehood that Moses gave the law against the beginning as designed by God?


So, over to you!

Ohyoudidnt:
Too bad you don't speak for everyone even if it is your wish to.

It is not me.

A plane was almost turned into a bomb like 911 a few weeks ago.


I can never understand and reconcile HOW your people could be slaughtering a human being while shouting Allahu Akbar!


Do you think this is normal?

themanderon:
It certainly doesn't leave a trail in peace and tolerance wherever it goes. Rather it leaves a trail of sorrows tears and blood. Look at the middle east, an also look at the gradual deterioration in the western world caused by the Muslim Islamic invasion.
Islam my dear is not of God. It is from the fiery pit of hell that's why horrors trail it wherever it goes. How can you call a religion that calls for the killing of infidels peaceful and tolerant? Do those words now have a different meaning?

How can slaughtering a human being be done while shouting Allahu Akbar

Ohyoudidnt:
Do I just take your word for it or this claim of yours is statistically backed. Calling Allah great has no such effect that I know

If someone just shouted Eriwo ya in an Aeroplane, I wouldn't panic

If anyone just shouted Hallelujah in an Aeroplane, I wouldn't panic!

HOWEVER,
If someone just shouted Allahu Akbar in an Aeroplane, my heart would skip a beat because the next thing could be a BOMB EXPLOSION.



Unfortunately, it is what it is!
Unfortunately!

Ohyoudidnt:
I haven't fled. I've answered every post of yours, and I'm still on Deut 24 where you started. What I won't do is chase a new topic each time you hit a question you can't answer. First it was retribution, now Mutah, and before that Zayd and paradise. That isn't a deal, it's a pile of side issues, and answering them all at once is how a debate never finishes. One topic at a time, and divorce first because you started it.
You offered to apply my answer to my query. Fine, that already helps.

Mutah was an example of laws propagated by Allah and Mohammed without understanding. And we will come back to that.

Zayd was an example of Muslims shamelessly passing their wives around even up to the wobes of their sons.

Retribution is an example of misapplied law of Moses

Ohyoudidnt:
You said Deut 24:4 is God's because Moses said so, so you accept a prophet's word about God as a witness. Then Moses' own statement that the Lord commanded him the statutes and judgments covers the whole speech, including the verses before 24:4. That's your own rule, and it's why your split between verse 4 and verses 1 to 3 still has no text behind it.

Is it true that I told you that the Torah is a compilation of Chronicles, and Several kind of Laws?

Meaning that NOT every verse in the Torah is the word of or from God. But you chose to ignore this by insisting that EVERY WORD in the Torah is from God.
1. Jesus said: Moses permitted Divorced because the children of Israel were heard hearted Deut 24:1-3
2. But Moses stated that If a Woman be Divorced and defiled by another man, it is an ABOMINATION and SIN to God.

Except your point is that Moses LIED against God.

So,
Do you think Moses LIED against Hod in Deut 24:4 ?

Please respond without multitudes of words

Ohyoudidnt:
So finish the divorce debate. Where is the text that puts Deut 24:4 on God's side and verses 1 to 3 on Moses'? What do Exodus 21:10 to 11 and 1 Corinthians 7:15 do to your spiritual union, and can those spouses remarry? Why should an innocent divorced woman never remarry, and why is that better than 2:230? And why does a different ruling prove a different author when you accept it between Moses and Jesus? Answer those, and Mutah and retribution will each get their own post in turn.

1. Deut 24:1-3 is modality for Divorce.
Jesus said: This permission was given by Moses
Mat 19:8:
"He said to them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so."

2. Deut 24:4 Moses explained that in the case of Divorce, a man cannot remarry his former Wife who has been defiled by another man BECAUSE it is both a SIN and an ABOMINATION to God


So, my question again is,
Is Moses telling LIES against God?



So, simple question that requires
A YES or NO plus one or two sentences of explanation if need be!



I wait for your response

Ohyoudidnt:
And those that read the Quran themselves then revert to Islam are not of the people that find it hard to believe? We all mustn't think the same way and cannot equally be right or wrong in our convictions.

A sudden shout of Allahu Akbar by a TRUE faithful in public is enough to make one's heart race in FEAR!

You never know what is about to happen: someone may be tired of this life and is prepared for his virgins in jannah

themanderon:
It certainly doesn't leave a trail in peace and tolerance wherever it goes. Rather it leaves a trail of sorrows tears and blood. Look at the middle east, an also look at the gradual deterioration in the western world caused by the Muslim Islamic invasion.
Islam my dear is not of God. It is from the fiery pit of hell that's why horrors trail it wherever it goes. How can you call a religion that calls for the killing of infidels peaceful and tolerant? Do those words now have a different meaning?

It is a cult society of organised crime in the name of religion.

Ohyoudidnt:
Look at your last two posts. In the one you said the case is decided and called me obstinate. In the second you pasted the retribution post you'd already posted earlier, unchanged, as if my answer on 2:178 didn't exist. I answered it. You skipped the answer and repeated the question. That isn't someone who's winning, it's someone who won't read the reply.
If the case is decided, it shouldn't take you long to show it. You say my case is an argument from silence, but your claim that Moses acted without God rests on Matthew 19:8 not mentioning God, which is silence. I gave you Exodus 33:7 to 11, Exodus 34, Leviticus 1:1, Deut 5:31 and Matthew 15:4. You answered none of them.
And these are still open. What text puts Deut 24:4 on God's side and verses 1 to 3 on Moses', in one speech? What do Exodus 21:10 to 11 and 1 Corinthians 7:15 do to your spiritual union, and can those spouses remarry? Why should an innocent divorced woman never remarry, and why is that better than Qur'an 2:230? And why does a different ruling prove a different author when you accept it between Moses and Jesus?
A man sure of his ground answers four questions in four lines. If you're ashamed of where they lead, pasting the same post twice won't shelter you. Retribution may get its own thread from me once you've answered these, but I'm not letting you swap topics to avoid them.

BTW, I didn't argue from silence, I argued from the words of Jesus wrt Moses from the Bible. So. it isn't my argument!

I know you want to flee. Simce you refused to take my submission, I have given you the answer by using your EXACT rue on you. Isnt that fairness?

Moses said:
Deu 24:4:
"Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and you shall not cause the land to sin , which the LORD your God gives you for an inheritance."

You insist that I should provide evidence that this is from God.

I now flip it back tyo you, since you refused to listen to common sense
1. Allah ordered Mutah for you Muslims in Qur’an 4:24
2. There exist zero evidence that Allah cancelled Mutah in the Quran
3. Mohammed claimed that Allah has cancelled Mutah till the day of resurection

Is this true? Should we believe Mohammed's word about Allah?

After you answer this question , we can apply your answer to your query and then go back to the law of retribution

Ohyoudidnt:
Give me the verse for the retribution claim and the error you see, in its own post.

The Wisdom Of Allah's Law Of Retribution (A BAD copy Of the Law Of Moses)?

In the Bible at the time of Moses when the Law of Retribution was in Effect, the Law of an Eye for an Eye was applied as a means of enacting equity in justice for offences.
It is interesting to note that Jesus CANCELLED this Law of Retribution of Moses in Mat 5:38-42:

But as we a know, Mohammed COPIED everything that fancies him from the Jews, Christians, Folklores etc.

He made the mistake of Copying the Law of Retribution and Attributed it to Allah as Usual by putting it in the Qur'an.

Unfortunately, Mohammed or Allah misapplied it in a TERRIBLE format.

Qur'an 2:178
"O you who have believed, prescribed for you is legal retribution for those murdered -
the free for the free,
the slave for the slave, and
the female for the female.
But whoever overlooks from his brother anything, then there should be a suitable follow-up and payment to him with good conduct. This is an alleviation from your Lord and a mercy. But whoever transgresses after that will have a painful punishment."

Let us apply these laws.
1. If I as a Free Muslim man killed the slave of Ohyoudidnt or Expanse2020 then Allah require that I should present my slave for execution.

2. If I as a Free Muslim man killed the Female slave of Ohyoudindnt or Expanse2020, then Allah require that I should present my Female slave for execution.

3. If I, as a Free Muslim man, killed another Free Muslim, then, I am liable to be killed also (this is fairly representative of the Law of Moses in Retribution)

However, According to Tafsir Ibn Kathir Qur'an 2:178-179
He said that, all Muslim scholars agree that
The Muslim is not killed for the disbeliever (whom he kills).)



Questions :
1. What is the Equity if my innocent slave would be killed because I killed the slave of my neighbour?
2. Why is it that as a Muslim I can get away with murder if the person I killed is NOT a Muslim?
3. Why is equity in gender of execution important to Allah?
4. What is the Wisdom with respect to murder in Allah's Law of Retribution

Ohyoudidnt:
I already mentioned the tablet. Are we meant to think Moses had no more contact with God after receiving it? Exodus 33:7 to 11 has him; Moses, speaking with the Lord face to face, Exodus 34 records further terms, and Leviticus 1:1 says the Lord spoke to him from the tent of meeting. Not every word dictated and Moses acted independently of God are two different claims. You've argued the first and assumed the second. Matthew 19:8 says he permitted divorce because of hard hearts, nothing about doing it apart from God. You called it man versus God as clear as night and day, yet you set Deut 24:4 from that same Torah against Quran 2:230 as God's abomination. I need you to squarely address this as you haven't thus far. Show me the text that puts verse 4 on God's side and verses 1 to 3 on Moses'.
Look at your last three posts. I asked about Deut 24, you gave me retribution, then a hypothetical about Muhammad pbuh and Allah, then Zayd and a rant about paradise. You still haven't said what Exodus 21:10 to 11 and 1 Corinthians 7:15 do to your spiritual union, why an innocent divorced woman should never remarry, or why a different ruling proves a different author when you accept it between Moses and Jesus.
On Quran 2:178 I'll say this much. It doesn't tell a man to hand over his own slave for execution, and female for female didn't limit executing a man for killing a woman. The Muslim and non-Muslim point is a real dispute, since Ibn Kathir reports the majority view and Abu Hanifa differing. That is criticism of a ruling, not proof of plagiarism or divine error. It doesn't replace the divorce questions.
Answer those first.

Sorry for your tantrums.
The case is decided: you could fight Jesus if you can!
Being unreasonably OBSTINATE doesn't help you. Argument from silence is no argument my dear!


Let me flip this on you using exactly the same rule you are trying to impose on me.


1. Allah gave you permission to do mutah in the Qur'an Qur’an 4:24
2. Mohammed claimed that Allah has forbidden it BUT not in the Qur'an

Sahih Muslim 1406 d
Sabra al-Juhani reported on the authority of his father that while he was with Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) he said: O people, I had permitted you to contract temporary marriage with women, but Allah has forbidden it (now) until the Day of Resurrection. So he who has any (woman with this type of marriage contract) he should let her off, and do not take back anything you have given to them (as dower).

Can we trust that Allah truly canceled mutah from the words of Mohammed?

If it is YES,

then can we trust that Deu 24:4: is from God?

Deu 24:4:
"Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and you shall not cause the land to sin , which the LORD your God gives you for an inheritance."








And I noticed that all these was just to avoid answering the law of retribution according to Allah.

Ohyoudidnt:
And I replied who? Why would I reply let's see the depth of your logic as presented

I made a simple statement

Islam is a religion of Peace and Tolerance

but people find it hard to believe

Ohyoudidnt:
Give me the verse for the retribution claim and the error you see, in its own post.

The Wisdom Of Allah's Law Of Retribution (A BAD copy Of the Law Of Moses)?

In the Bible at the time of Moses when the Law of Retribution was in Effect, the Law of an Eye for an Eye was applied as a means of enacting equity in justice for offences.
It is interesting to note that Jesus CANCELLED this Law of Retribution of Moses in Mat 5:38-42:

But as we a know, Mohammed COPIED everything that fancies him from the Jews, Christians, Folklores etc.

He made the mistake of Copying the Law of Retribution and Attributed it to Allah as Usual by putting it in the Qur'an.

Unfortunately, Mohammed or Allah misapplied it in a TERRIBLE format.

Qur'an 2:178
"O you who have believed, prescribed for you is legal retribution for those murdered -
the free for the free,
the slave for the slave, and
the female for the female.
But whoever overlooks from his brother anything, then there should be a suitable follow-up and payment to him with good conduct. This is an alleviation from your Lord and a mercy. But whoever transgresses after that will have a painful punishment."

Let us apply these laws.
1. If I as a Free Muslim man killed the slave of Ohyoudidnt or Expanse2020 then Allah require that I should present my slave for execution.

2. If I as a Free Muslim man killed the Female slave of Ohyoudindnt or Expanse2020, then Allah require that I should present my Female slave for execution.

3. If I, as a Free Muslim man, killed another Free Muslim, then, I am liable to be killed also (this is fairly representative of the Law of Moses in Retribution)

However, According to Tafsir Ibn Kathir Qur'an 2:178-179
He said that, all Muslim scholars agree that
The Muslim is not killed for the disbeliever (whom he kills).)



Questions :
1. What is the Equity if my innocent slave would be killed because I killed the slave of my neighbour?
2. Why is it that as a Muslim I can get away with murder if the person I killed is NOT a Muslim?
3. Why is equity in gender of execution important to Allah?
4. What is the Wisdom with respect to murder in Allah's Law of Retribution

Ohyoudidnt:
TenQ, you said Moses unilaterally gave the law and did not get a revelation for divorce. Civil tells you the class of a law, not where it came from. Deut 5:31 has God telling Moses to teach Israel His commandments, statutes and judgments. Exodus 21:1 introduces the judgments Moses set before them, and Jesus in Matthew 15:4 credits Exodus 21:17 to God. I'm not saying every word was dictated or handed down in the tablet. I'm saying you can't just assume civil law was Moses' own idea. Matthew 19:8 says he permitted divorce because of hard hearts, nothing about doing it apart from God.
Deut 24 now. Verse 4 says abomination before the LORD. Verses 1 to 3 are how she got to another man in the first place. If verse 4 is God and verses 1 to 3 are only Moses, show me the text that draws that line. Is Moses lying about the LORD there, or speaking for Him? If he's speaking for Him, why are 1 to 3 unauthorised?
And your spiritual union. Exodus 21:10 to 11 sets a wife free if her husband takes another wife and starves her of food, clothing or marital rights. 1 Corinthians 7:15 says a believer isn't bound when the unbeliever leaves. So what happens to the union there, and can they remarry?
On Quran 2:230, yes it's a real hardship if both want to reunite, and no, I haven't called it the best possible rule. The third divorce is final, that's the point. You picked the comparison with Deut 24:4, and you used my test, that an innocent person shouldn't pay for another's act. So why is your rule better when an innocent divorced woman can't remarry without adultery being charged?

Enough repeating your weeping over nothing. The Torah is NOT a DICTATION unlike the Qur'an. If it was a dictation, your argument may hold some water but sorry it isn't.

Ohyoudidnt:
Finally, a different ruling doesn't prove a different author. You accept that between Moses and Jesus. And dumb isn't an argument for unjust.

It is a ruling by man versus a ruling by God. It is clear as Night and Day.


If Mohammed gives you his Ruling and Allah (later through Mohammed) then give you his ruling, which one do you follow?

Ohyoudidnt:
Bro I am still observing this as the report comes from one source and no other so it's not well understood.
So far it only seems like a means to call back Trump and the US to do something his initial coming and withdrawing left unfinished. It smirks more political against the faith of the ruling pair seeking reelection.

No one mentioned sny name yet the witches cry injustice!

SMH!

Ohyoudidnt:
Provide me with independent information as this from once source appears biased and far from clear.

It seems you do not believe that Islam is both a religion of Peace and Tolerance!

Did you read what I wrote?

[quote author=Expanse2020 post=140931936][/quote]Until you open your eyes to see that the one LAH that Decieved Mary the mother of Jesus and the Apostles of Jesus and the Disciples of Jesus with both the Jews and Romans is the Ultimate Deciever.


Until you see that the one who promised to remove words satan cast into the Qur'an is satan himself who have made you his success story.


You can await your women from the inhabitants of hell with tight frontal passages unfortunately in Hell.

dofman:
This casted unbeliever just they beg for my attention after he has been tutored and bursted .



TenQ confession after severe drilling 🤣

Who is your God ?

“
1. YES, Jesus the ETERNAL WORD who became Human is my God
2. YES, I worship Jesus the ETERNAL WORD who became Human
[/b]”

Said by : TenQ



Show us where Jesus said I am a God and you should worship him .


Then TenQ japa




How can unbeliever understand things nah 🤣

The one who worships an idol of the kaaba calling others Disbelievers because they wouldn't join him to worship his idol and his chief priest.


Shior.



A sacrifice to Hubal is the sacrifice to Allah.



The one who worships a god with two hands on the same side calling others Disbelievers.


And he doesn't know that LAH is Shaitan himself

r

Igodomigodo419:
Hello Nairalanders!

I seriously need help and a bit of advice right now. I've been a silent and observant Nairalander for a long time now.

My marriage is barely 6 months old. Got married to the girl of my dreams. I honestly didn't envisage marriage at this stage of my life but it happened because my wife sacrificed a lot for me, and for us to be living as man and wife.

I really love my wife so much, during our courtship, i flirted with girls online which at some point she caught me, and forgave me. But i still didn't learn my lesson, subsequently, this bad habit of mine of flirting with random girls online continued, even despite her catching me again, she still kept on trusting and forgiving me. Now we are married and still, I'm still in the habit of texting and flirting with random girls.

The one that broke her was this particular lady i was flirting with online, she caught feelings for me and even went as far as posting my Pictures with hers on her tiktok page, my wife saw it online and confronted me. I begged her for forgiveness and was trying to reassure her that it was just an online flirting.. She believed me again and trusted me one more time, but now this girl i flirted with online saw my marraige pictures online (ofcos i told her i was single), and now she'has messaged my wife via Facebook and exposed our chat of us flirting to her.

My wife called me from my office and confronted me of the chat (esp the part i told her i was not married). My wife has been crying ever since and i honestly don't know what to do.

I've begged her, but she's having none of it again. Please i love my wife so much and she's currently pregnant.

I'm ashamed of myself and devasted too. I really need all the encouragement and advice right now.

I will be reading your comment,😭🥺

1. You don't love your wife
2. You are a thoroughly immature boy in a man's skin
3. You need to go for treatment or deliverance for this your sickness
4. After your treatment and healing, come back for advice.


Now, you need only chastisement not help