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Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith - Religion (8) - Nairaland

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Are We Saved By Faith Or By Water Baptism? / Submit To The Righteousness Of God- Pastor Chris / The 6th And 7th Books Of Moses (2) (3) (4)

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Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by MostHigh: 8:45am On Jul 27, 2013
Goshen360:

That's Paul who KNOWS the law in and out telling you that deep mysteries. And what Paul taught was what Christ revealed to him. The one who gives the law knows how to terminate the law and the lope holes therein. Go and learn the law very well before you trying to teach the law.

Paul never terminated anything

Paul aint no terminator

Paul fulfilled all to the end

The same Paul you claim has multiple personality

confused.com
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Tgirl4real(f): 8:47am On Jul 27, 2013
Please, where is Obadiah777?


Good morning sirs.
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by MostHigh: 9:08am On Jul 27, 2013
Goshen360: @ MostHigh and JesusisLord85,

It is my heart desire to take Moses out of you as a brother in Christ AND replace with Christ + His finished works. That's my aim. You people are upholding Mosaic too long, we look unto Jesus our mediator but the law condemns. I want to take away Judaism (religion of the law) out of you and present\replace with the reality of Christ. The law POINTS to Christ and NOW that Christ have come, what are you people still looking back. Make una no go turn to pillar of salt cheesy

Hocus pocus talk.

Magicians dust.

Take me out from where to where?

Just as you have been trying to take Paul and Yashua Ibn Joseph out of Moses as well

But guess what.

Its written already in the holy writ for all to see, they were LAWFULL to the END

AND THERE IS NOTHING YOU CAN DO ABOUT IT

Lawless man like yourself.
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by MostHigh: 9:13am On Jul 27, 2013
shdemidemi:

See bro, the bible says the law is spiritual, it is from God. There is nothing wrong with the law on its own, but the law must be applied on man. But man has a problem, he was born a sinner. His eyes, his hand, his ears, his nose, infact all his body members were made to admire and crave for sinful things. It is not the fault of man cos he inherited the nature of sin from the first man.

Remember the law is good but man is not. The law + the sin nature in man= death. We both agree the law can not make me righteous, it can only track me down whenever my sinful members do what they know how to do best.

My eyes can like to see things, it is not the fault of my eyes, it was made that way. My hand likes to feel things, it was made that way. Christ took the law away, paid the wages of my sin which is death that I may live. He imputed righteousness in me, what a friend we have in him.


Only the elect can truly temper justice with mercy just as Yashua Ibn Joseph did with the accused adulterer.

This life is all about balance
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by ckkris: 9:15am On Jul 27, 2013
MostHigh:

Hocus pocus talk.

Magicians dust.

Take me out from where to where?

Just as you have been trying to take Paul and Yashua Ibn Joseph out of Moses as well

But guess what.

Its written already in the holy writ for all to see, they were LAWFULL to the END

AND THERE IS NOTHING YOU CAN DO ABOUT IT

Lawless man like yourself.
Please Sir, kindly change this USERNAME. You know its not proper for a human being that suffers malaria to bear or use this loftiest of all titles. Thanks.
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by MostHigh: 9:24am On Jul 27, 2013
ckkris: Please Sir, kindly change this USERNAME. You know its not proper for a human being that suffers malaria to bear or use this loftiest of all titles. Thanks.

Is that all you could get from the post?

The truth hurts. And na you know where e dey pain you

Crawl back to where you came out from.

Dirty magician projecting dirty thoughts so early in the morning.
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by MostHigh: 10:08am On Jul 27, 2013
shdemidemi: For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as long as he lives. But if the husband dies, she is released from the law of her husband. 3 So then if, while her husband lives, she marries another man, she will be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from that law, so that she is no adulteress, though she has married another man.

I will help our brother out with Romans 7:2

The question from Chapter 6:1 was shall we continue in sin that grace may abound?

The analogy of marriage was used by the apostle to further buttress his point-

The woman in the analogy represents a believer

Her first husband is the sin nature

The law of her first husband represents the law of Moses

The woman must obey the law of her husband as a principle of marriage

She is bound to the laws of this first husband as long as the husband is alive.

Christ became sin, he died as the first husband

The woman is now free to marry another husband

The new husband is the risen Christ

The woman cannot live with the new husband as if she were living with the old husband because the new husband has his own laws

The new law is the law of God different from the law of condemnation , sin and death.

How does yashua become sin as you say?

Beats my imagination.

Goshen your doctrines ARE BLASPHEMOUS
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by uteh: 10:16am On Jul 27, 2013
@Goshen, pls i will like you to ask a question. Yes we are saved by grace thru faith, so what do we do with d commandments of Jesus? As given in Matt 22:37-40. Are we to ignore his sermons on d mountain -Matt 5-7. Remember b4 he started he said in Matt 5:17 dat he didnt come to destroy d law but to fulfill it. Also John 15:10,12, and also 1 John 3:22-24. If we are saved by grace do we ignore d commandments of Jesus? Would obeying his commandments mean you are walking by law and not by grace obtained thru faith?

1 Like

Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by MostHigh: 10:17am On Jul 27, 2013
Goshen360:

I have told you what Grace says in my teachings but you guy blew up everything in your fight against me. I no know wetin I do una sef. grin You just said you are not saying one can receive God's righteousness by keeping the law. What then are we saying here? The law I advocate is the LAW OF CHRIST, THE LAW OF THE SPIRIT. The law UNTO THEMSELVES for the gentiles.

Okay, lemme take it one by one with you.

Answer the question shdemidemi asked you. In Romans 7:2, what is it that BINDs a woman to her husband. Just answer simple question and we deal with this issue.

This law of Yashua you speak Where can one obtain it to read?
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by MostHigh: 4:38pm On Jul 27, 2013
shdemidemi: For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as long as he lives. But if the husband dies, she is released from the law of her husband. 3 So then if, while her husband lives, she marries another man, she will be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from that law, so that she is no adulteress, though she has married another man.

I will help our brother out with Romans 7:2

The question from Chapter 6:1 was shall we continue in sin that grace may abound?

The analogy of marriage was used by the apostle to further buttress his point-

The woman in the analogy represents a believer

Her first husband is the sin nature

The law of her first husband represents the law of Moses

The woman must obey the law of her husband as a principle of marriage

She is bound to the laws of this first husband as long as the husband is alive.

Christ became sin, he died as the first husband

The woman is now free to marry another husband

The new husband is the risen Christ

The woman cannot live with the new husband as if she were living with the old husband because the new husband has his own laws

The new law is the law of God different from the law of condemnation , sin and death.

I Agree with you.

So where can one obtain this new law?

And what are the ordinances of this new priesthood?

Seeing every priesthood MUST have ORDINANCES.
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Ayomivic(m): 5:25pm On Jul 27, 2013
@ goshen360, let me first sumarize what i understood by your teaching. You said we are not saved by observing the law but by faith in Jesus Christ. Is that correct?

And we understand faith to be believing in what we have not seen but heard . If this meaning of faith is correct, are you saying that if someone is a theif but he believes that Jesus died for him on cross, he believes in resurrection , are you saying that God would not punishe him for being a theif?

Are you saying that all the law include ten commandments should not be taken serious?

1 Like

Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Zikkyy(m): 10:29pm On Jul 27, 2013
MostHigh:

This law of Yashua you speak Where can one obtain it to read?

you are going to Sokoto to look for something that should be inside your shokoto. Your waka Just dey start grin
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Goshen360(m): 11:59pm On Jul 27, 2013
@ Bidam, Ayomivic & utah,

I will take time out to respond fully\intensively to all your worries and questions.
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Nobody: 6:18am On Jul 28, 2013
Goshen360: @ Bidam, Ayomivic & utah,

I will take time out to respond fully\intensively to all your worries and questions.
Pls do, we eagerly await your response,because it seems you are telling every one here that moral laws are abolished.
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by MostHigh: 8:35am On Jul 28, 2013
Zikkyy:

you are going to Sokoto to look for something that should be inside your shokoto. Your waka Just dey start grin

Your response is typical of you and shidedemi when your stumped

Ok another pertinent qeshun.


Goshen what is the constitution of the future Kingdom?
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Goshen360(m): 12:22pm On Jul 28, 2013
Bidam: Pls do, we eagerly await your response,because it seems you are telling every one here that moral laws are abolished.

I have asked similar question on the saints and sinner thread. Please give me\us JUST ONE scripture THAT SAYS the laws given to Moses was divided into MORAL, CEREMONIALS ETC.

I will still explain by my promise, finding quality time. Thanks.
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by okeyxyz(m): 3:40pm On Jul 28, 2013
shdemidemi: For the woman who has a husband is bound by the law to her husband as long as he lives. But if the husband dies, she is released from the law of her husband. 3 So then if, while her husband lives, she marries another man, she will be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from that law, so that she is no adulteress, though she has married another man.

I will help our brother out with Romans 7:2

The question from Chapter 6:1 was shall we continue in sin that grace may abound?

The analogy of marriage was used by the apostle to further buttress his point-

The woman in the analogy represents a believer

Her first husband is the sin nature

The law of her first husband represents the law of Moses

The woman must obey the law of her husband as a principle of marriage

She is bound to the laws of this first husband as long as the husband is alive.

Christ became sin, he died as the first husband

The woman is now free to marry another husband

The new husband is the risen Christ

The woman cannot live with the new husband as if she were living with the old husband because the new husband has his own laws

The new law is the law of God different from the law of condemnation , sin and death.

WOW!!!! WONDERFULL!!! SHOCKING!!!! MY MOUTH HAS TORN(IYANNU grin grin)

Bros, So you know all this spiritual principles?? You know that christ became the Law of Moses(sin & death) and died, and by dying has put this Law to Death so that we shall no longer define our moralities based on it?

So why do you still continue to define sin according to how this same law(of Moses) defined sin?? Why not follow liberty(in the Risen Christ) like I've always argued?? Why do you still follow/worship that model of christ who walked with his twelve disciples? This is why you guys still think that celibacy is holy because that christ was celibate(as recommended by the Law of Moses). Whereas, Paul expressly stated: We don't recognize that christ anymore, we don't follow him. He was the Law(of sin) and anybody who follows him is still a sinner.
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by shdemidemi(m): 3:50pm On Jul 28, 2013
My brother, I am not defining sin from law of Moses. Apart from the law, God has created every man with a conscience to know right from wrong, encouraging se.xual immorality is obeying the demands of our flesh. I will leave it at that bro, I hope you understand what I mean.
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by MostHigh: 5:50pm On Jul 28, 2013
shdemidemi: My brother, I am not defining sin from law of Moses. Apart from the law, God has created every man with a conscience to know right from wrong, encouraging se.xual immorality is obeying the demands of our flesh. I will leave it at that bro, I hope you understand what I mean.

So why did your master not just teach ONLY from conscience to conscience

wHY DID HE HAVE TO REFERENCE THE WRITTIN WORD AT ALL?


You can be exactly as the master is but not greater.

Lawlessness is Death.
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by MostHigh: 5:59pm On Jul 28, 2013
Goshen360:

I have asked similar question on the saints and sinner thread. Please give me\us JUST ONE scripture THAT SAYS the laws given to Moses was divided into MORAL, CEREMONIALS ETC.

I will still explain by my promise, finding quality time. Thanks.

You should change your name to show me show me.

grin
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Nobody: 9:15pm On Jul 28, 2013
More grease to your elbow, Most High!

It's good that some christians can see that Goshen is nothing but a proud pharisee
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Goshen360(m): 9:33pm On Jul 28, 2013
MostHigh:

You should change your name to show me show me.

grin


grin grin grin
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Nobody: 11:43pm On Jul 28, 2013
MostHigh:

So why did your master not just teach ONLY from conscience to conscience

wHY DID HE HAVE TO REFERENCE THE WRITTIN WORD AT ALL?


You can be exactly as the master is but not greater.

Lawlessness is Death.
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Goshen360(m): 4:22am On Jul 29, 2013
@ Bidam, Ayomivic & utah and EVERYONE This post\reply might be long for you to read but please, it's very important we treat this subject and ask questions rather than fighting ourselves.

Goshen360: @ Bidam, Ayomivic & utah,

I will take time out to respond fully\intensively to all your worries and questions.

Bidam: Pls do, we eagerly await your response,because it seems you are telling every one here that moral laws are abolished.

I promised to discuss this response in details and intensively. Here I come. Before I proceed, I will like to appeal to my brothers in Christ on this subject of law and grace. I have noticed we have formed a segregation group because this topic is greatly diving us and I want to humbly treat it deeply using scriptures. I expect each person to search and see if what the other person is teaching is right or wrong before we openly criticize and allow this particular subject (grace & law) to divide us. That was the way of the Bereans WITH OPEN MIND not with a sealed or already made up mind. That's not the way to learn. Hence, everyone's teaching on this forum is subject to other people's scrutiny. That being said, kindly search the scriptures and if you find any contrary 'interpretation' to what I'm going to say here and please present it, I do not claim final authority in the teachings of the word on this forum - the sacred scriptures is our common ground. Now, let get into the word!

I'm going to deal with this subject from the questions that arose from the three above mentioned people (Bidam, utah and Ayomivic) and my response\questions to them as quoted below:

Ayomivic: @ goshen360, let me first sumarize what i understood by your teaching. You said we are not saved by observing the law but by faith in Jesus Christ. Is that correct?

And we understand faith to be believing in what we have not seen but heard . If this meaning of faith is correct, are you saying that if someone is a theif but he believes that Jesus died for him on cross, he believes in resurrection , are you saying that God would not punishe him for being a theif?

Are you saying that all the law include ten commandments should not be taken serious?

uteh: @Goshen, pls i will like you to ask a question. Yes we are saved by grace thru faith, so what do we do with d commandments of Jesus? As given in Matt 22:37-40. Are we to ignore his sermons on d mountain -Matt 5-7. Remember b4 he started he said in Matt 5:17 dat he didnt come to destroy d law but to fulfill it. Also John 15:10,12, and also 1 John 3:22-24. If we are saved by grace do we ignore d commandments of Jesus? Would obeying his commandments mean you are walking by law and not by grace obtained thru faith?

Bidam: I actually quoted the Pauline letters which you love to quote so much as per fulfilling the law,which wan con be error for this matter again? Ok,here are the scriptures once again.

we do not nullify the Law through faith, “on the contrary, we uphold the Law”( Romans3:31)

What law is paul referring to here?

Romans 8:4

New International Version (NIV)

4 in order that the righteous requirement of the law might be fully met in us, who do not live according to the flesh but according to the Spirit.


And this was my interpretation of the scripture above in blue "Those who have been made righteous by faith and have thus received the holy Spirit are now able to fulfill the requirements of the Law" or do you have a contrary opinion? please share in line with this scripture so i could be edified.
I also went ahead to capture the Law a christian should fulfill,which Paul was talking about by quoting these verses of scripture in Romans 13:8-10.

Romans 13:8-10

New International Version (NIV)


8 Let no debt remain outstanding, except the continuing debt to love one another, for whoever loves others has fulfilled the law. 9 The commandments, “You shall not commit adultery,” “You shall not murder,” “You shall not steal,” “You shall not covet,”[a] and whatever other command there may be, are summed up in this one command: “Love your neighbor as yourself.” 10 Love does no harm to a neighbor. Therefore love is the fulfillment of the law
.
.

So we are [b]commanded
to love one another as love is the fulfillment of the LAW .Please show me where i teach error abeg

To start with, the Old Covenant is ONLY between God and national Israel ONLY and NOT with the church. The other nations were not part of that first covenant. This covenant and the people of Israel is a SHADOW AND TYPE of the church and the new covenant that is to come and has come. Israel is a type and shadow of the church while the old covenant is a type and shadow of the new.

New Living Translation (©2007)
That first covenant between God and Israel had regulations for worship and a place of worship here on earth. Hebrews 9:1

This Old covenant is ratified and binded between God and Israel BY THE LAW. Establishing a constitution for the national Israel.

New International Version (©2011)
the people of Israel. Theirs is the adoption to sonship; theirs the divine glory, the covenants, the receiving of the law, the temple worship and the promises.

King James Bible (Cambridge Ed.)
Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises;

Romans 9:4


Now, to make this teaching easy. If there is anyone here on this forum that knows any scriptures where God gave LAW (singular, because the whole 613 lawS were taken a ONE or as a WHOLE package, some were not treated with special preference) to the church, let him or her produce such scripture here and let others look into it.

That being said, I challenged many people on this forum in the past including Olaadegbu, Frosbel, Enigma, Ihedinobi, Image123, Bidam, Alwaystrue, and some others to produce just ONE single scriptures that tells us that the entire 613 lawS of God given to Moses was divided into CEREMONIAL, MORAL etc. There's NONE OF THEM THAT CAN PRODUCE ONE SCRIPTURE TO MY CHALLENGE. Anyway, THERE IS NO SCRIPTURE THAT MADE SUCH DISTINCTIONS. When the reference to THE LAW is made in the NT, it is reference to the WHOLE and NOT some being giving a special preference.

Now, many times here, it looks as if Paul, prolific NT teacher is sometimes saying we are to obey the law of Moses and sometimes, he appears we are not under obligation to obey the laws of laws under the Mosaic system. Such examples are scriptures quoted by Bidam and Co to justify keeping or obedience to the laws of Moses. Take for example:

New International Version (©2011)
Do we, then, nullify the law by this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law. Romans 3:31


This statement appears contradictory to this:

King James Bible (Cambridge Ed.)
Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.

New Living Translation (©2007)
So we are made right with God through faith and not by obeying the law.

Romans 3:28


AND THIS,

New Living Translation (©2007)
Yet we know that a person is made right with God by faith in Jesus Christ, not by obeying the law. And we have believed in Christ Jesus, so that we might be made right with God because of our faith in Christ, not because we have obeyed the law. For no one will ever be made right with God by obeying the law." Galatians 2:16


Now, it will appear as if Paul is confusing folks here and that's the root of our fight on this forum. Some taking side with 'obeying the law' using some scriptures and some taking side with 'grace\faith without obedience to the law'. What then is the interpretation?

First, if we understand that the first covenant was between God and Israel who is a natural branch and a type of the new coming Church and that covenant was binded and ratified by the LAW to enforce the covenant. Then the problem is solved.

New Living Translation (©2007)
When the LORD finished speaking with Moses on Mount Sinai, he gave him the two stone tablets inscribed with the terms of the covenant, written by the finger of God. Exodus 31:18

King James Bible (Cambridge Ed.)
And the LORD said unto Moses, Come up to me into the mount, and be there: and I will give thee tables of stone, and a law, and commandments which I have written; that thou mayest teach them. Exodus 24:12.

I don't want to quote too many scriptures. What I'm trying to establish here is, BY THE LAW, THE OLD COVENANT BETWEEN GOD AND ISRAEL WAS RATIFIED and becomes a national constitution by which they live with themselves and with God. In which we also find laws of tithing, purification, atonement, etc. That was the constitution given to them by God to establish a covenant; the signature being the BLOOD of lamb and bulls.

to be continue
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Goshen360(m): 4:27am On Jul 29, 2013
Now, if you understand that basic concept. Now, let's go into the NT. The NT did not take effect until after the death of Christ. The blood of Christ being the signature to both parties (God and the church). God is the SAME God that had been announcing the coming of the NT or NC to Israel because Israel HAD BROKEN THE LAW AND VIOLATED THE COVENANT.

New International Version (©2011)
"The days are coming," declares the LORD, "when I will make a new covenant with the people of Israel and with the people of Judah. It will not be like the covenant I made with their ancestors when I took them by the hand to lead them out of Egypt, because they broke my covenant, though I was a husband to them," declares the LORD. "This is the covenant I will make with the people of Israel after that time," declares the LORD. "I will put my law in their minds and write it on their hearts. I will be their God, and they will be my people. No longer will they teach their neighbor, or say to one another, 'Know the LORD,' because they will all know me, from the least of them to the greatest," declares the LORD. "For I will forgive their wickedness and will remember their sins no more." Jeremiah 31:31-34
and this was fulfilled in Hebrews 8.

Unknowing to Israel, God was making this covenant ratified BY THE GIVING OF THE LAW in order to bind them to Himself as their husband, hence, you read, thou shall not commit adultery, thou shall not commit fornication, thou shall love the Lord thy God etc. Can someone who is not married commit adultery? Obviously as we by the Spirit of God understand today, God becomes Israel's husband by the covenant in the old covenant and they are both BINDED BY THE LAW, hence, you read above, "because they broke my covenant, though I was a husband to them".

So, what is God going to do? He had to divorce Israel and marry the new bride, the church because by law, any wife that commits adultery\fornication while her is alive is guilty and the husband have a ground to divorce as explained by Christ himself also. But every time God want to divorce Israel, she repents and God takes her back until the time for the New Covenant came and the fullness of time draws near. God had to come in the person of Christ by the flesh AND DIE. Death is the ONLY solution that ends a godly marriage or a covenant or an existing law because a dead person can not be alive to an existing law to obey it or to a covenant or to a marriage. This is what the Apostle Paul revealed in Romans 7:1-6,

1Do you not know, brothers and sisters—for I am speaking to those who know the law—that the law has authority over someone only as long as that person lives? 2For example, by law a married woman is bound to her husband as long as he is alive, but if her husband dies, she is released from the law that binds her to him. 3So then, if she has sexual relations with another man while her husband is still alive, she is called an adulteress. But if her husband dies, she is released from that law and is not an adulteress if she marries another man.

4So, my brothers and sisters, you also died to the law through the body of Christ , that you might belong to another, to him who was raised from the dead, in order that we might bear fruit for God. 5For when we were in the realm of the flesh,a the sinful passions aroused by the law were at work in us, so that we bore fruit for death. 6But now, by dying to what once bound us, we have been released from the law so that we serve in the new way of the Spirit, and not in the old way of the written code.


From verse one established a reference to the law and people to whom the knowledge of the law pertains - Israel. From verses 4 establishes an Apostolic doctrine that death had terminated the old contract that existed between the old covenant\marriage which was ENFORCED BY LAW and the signature being of the blood of animals. The constitution\covenant is therefore null and void. This is where the NT comes to play - it is the gospel of the DEATH, BURIAL AND RESURRECTION of Christ. The new groom (the resurrected Christ) is now introduced and married the new bride (the church). That's why Christianity is not like other dead religion; the resurrection of Christ is what our faith is glorified upon.

Now, under a new constitution or covenant,(remember the new covenant, God said is NOT going to be like the Old. That's why I often say, the NT is completely different from the OT) the new bridegroom gives law to the bride as pertains the new covenant NOT according to the Old law. It is called the law of the Spirit of Life which God says I will put "my law in their heart" as we read in Jeremiah. People still think it is law of Moses God was talking about when God already said the new covenant will NOT be like the old. Paul called it the LAW OF THE SPIRIT - meaning, as the written law of Moses was a GUIDE under the old covenant, so also the Holy Spirit will be a GUIDE in the heart of the believers and LEAD us.

to be continue
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Goshen360(m): 4:49am On Jul 29, 2013
Under this new covenant, we find the new groom 'importing' certain laws from the old covenant into this new. Does that mean the new new bride (the church) is married or under the old agreement that was terminated by death? Of course not! This is why Paul will often quote the law and still tell you\us as the new covenant bride that we are not under the law. That is, we are not under the old covenant ratified by the law. It does not mean the new bride can go commit adultery because she is not under the old covenant. Those were things the old bride (Israel) did that made God terminated the marriage and covenant in order to make a new one. Hence, the explanation to the quote of Bidam:

New International Version (©2011)
Do we, then, nullify the law by (or because of) this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law. Romans 3:31


Why the above quote? Because the source is quoted from the law of God given to Moses; it was first given under the regime of Moses. Paul is not saying here we should obey the Mosaic and in Galatians saying we should not obey the Mosaic because anyone that will obey the Mosaic, must obey the whole just as it wasn't differentiated that some are moral and some are ceremonial. To break one is to break the whole - that's what the law says because it was given as a whole. One means everything and everything means one.

It is like when a country e.g Nigeria under a particular regime make a constitution and under another regime they amend that constitution, taking away somethings from the old and importing somethings from the old into the new. Does the old constitution have power over the new even though some things were imported from the old to the new? Do people under the new obey the old constitution as though it was the new one while the new is in effect? Can people under the new constitution be judged and punished according to the old constitution? Certainly not! This is revelation of what the new testament\covenant is to the old - an importation from the old does not mean we are under that old marriage or covenant but as God deem it fit, He imports things from the old into the new agreement. Hence, a reference to the old does not place us under that old covenant which was enforced by the law but by grace and the signature being the blood of Christ, the mediator of the new covenant.

New International Version (©2011)
in order that the righteous requirement of the law might be fully met in us, who do not live according to the flesh but according to the Spirit. Romans 8:4


What is the 'righteous requirement' of the law? The context of Romans 8 simply says it is Christ and faith in what God did in\through Christ. Therefore, we can read,

GOD'S WORD® Translation (©1995)
Christ is the fulfillment of Moses' Teachings so that everyone who has faith may receive God's approval.

New Living Translation (©2007)
For Christ has already accomplished the purpose for which the law was given. As a result, all who believe in him are made right with God.

Romans 10:4


By what Christ did, the righteous requirement of the law is fully met in us, righteousness is imputed unto us. We believe it and it works for us. Well, I'm tired for now. It's sleep o'clock. That's how far I can go for now. God bless you all.
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Enigma(m): 5:03am On Jul 29, 2013
Goshen360: ....
That being said, I challenged many people on this forum in the past including Olaadegbu, Frosbel, Enigma, Ihedinobi, Image123, Bidam, Alwaystrue, and some others to produce just ONE single scriptures that tells us that the entire 613 lawS of God given to Moses was divided into CEREMONIAL, MORAL etc. There's NONE OF THEM THAT CAN PRODUCE ONE SCRIPTURE TO MY CHALLENGE. Anyway, THERE IS NO SCRIPTURE THAT MADE SUCH DISTINCTIONS. When the reference to THE LAW is made in the NT, it is reference to the WHOLE and NOT some being giving a special preference.....

1. I don't know what you are talking about here.

2. I don't know when you posed this your "challenge" to me!

3. I don't see how you could have posed your "challenge" to me when I never told you about any division into moral law and ceremonial law etc

4. Anyone who knows how vigorously I have challenged the modern teaching on "tithing" (since 2005 here and long before elsewhere) will tell you that I have often made distinctions between certain things (including statements of Jesus Christ) that applied to people who were under the law but not to Christians.

5. Your effort is good, but I think your understanding of the application of the Old and New Testaments for the Christian is in the end simplistic and flawed. {Your use of the Constitution as an example is also flawed: even if an old Constitution no longer applies, you forget that rules may be copied from it in exactly the same and identical wording into the new Constitution}

6. Your intention is good and the ultimate point you wish to make is good but your manner of approach on some detail is weak if not even wrong. Specifically, when you truly understand the Romans 13 passage that Bidam quoted, you will see where you are missing some things.

7. Finally, if you throw any "challenge" to me on this thread, I will not honour it.

2 Likes

Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Goshen360(m): 5:26am On Jul 29, 2013
^ Egbon yi, e o ti sun ni? Abi e sese n ji ni? cheesy

Anyway, I was referring to the thread frosbel opened one time calling me to answer if the moral laws were abolished. If you visit that thread, you will see what I'm talking about. Can't remember if I mentioned your name there but I remember you participated in that thread.

Also, I wanted to reply on the other thread where you cautioned the calling of other as Judaizer and you said, you are happy to be called so if obeying the law will make you one. Honestly, I wondered at that statement because I knew you were never advancing or promoting the mosaic laws to be enforced on Christians. So I don't and will never refer you as such.

This subject of those who tried to enforce the mosaic law on Christians is one of this real cause the Spirit of God, that replaced the written law as a guidance inner code is not effective working in believers and all I see every where I go is bondage to the law by exalting the mosaic system. The more reason sin abound is people fuel sin via the law and the Spirit silenced. The more we open people law, the more they sin.

Our fight is not that that the law is bad, Paul said, if not for the law, I would not have known what covetousness, adultery etc is. But where the law leads me and stop, the Spirit of God in me takes over. That is our fight! I do not intend calling you to any challenge except you want to join contribute so we can reason together, if not, remain blessed in the Lord.
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Enigma(m): 5:36am On Jul 29, 2013
Bawo ni, Goshen.

Just waking up, really.

I'm not sure I know that frosbel's thread you are referring to; he has too many anyway ...... In any case, I will search for it.

Yes, the point is this: I have never said that the law (Old Testament) applies to Christians. On the other hand, I will argue that some of the very same laws and rules of the Old Testament apply to Christians** ---- even under the New Testament. This is what Paul and the other apostles taught.

This is also reflected in the point I made to you about your example with Constitutions. Go and take Nigeria's current Constitution (1999) and see how much and what percentage of it is exactly the same as the old Constitution (1979) --- and even previous Constitutions, granted to a lesser extent!

Sometimes when people talk about "grace" without balancing scriptures properly, they eventually give a false impression of the true doctrine of grace and what Jesus Christ and the apostles taught. You too have to be careful about that!

** PS I notice that another thing that people have been missing in all this discussion of "law" and "grace" is how the Lord Jesus Christ Himself explained or "re-interpreted" some of the Old Testament rules and laws; the key point being that He showed the true intent and purport of those rules and laws. Well, that true intent and purport remains till today ---- even under the era of "grace". Again, when you study and understand this, you will be more cautious in your approach, at least I hope so!
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Nobody: 6:16am On Jul 29, 2013
Enigma: Bawo ni, Goshen.

Just waking up, really.

I'm not sure I know that frosbel's thread you are referring to; he has too many anyway ...... In any case, I will search for it.

Yes, the point is this: I have never said that the law (Old Testament) applies to Christians. On the other hand, I will argue that some of the very same laws and rules of the Old Testament apply to Christians** ---- even under the New Testament. This is what Paul and the other apostles taught.

This is also reflected in the point I made to you about your example with Constitutions. Go and take Nigeria's current Constitution (1999) and see how much and what percentage of it is exactly the same as the old Constitution (1979) --- and even previous Constitutions, granted to a lesser extent!

Sometimes when people talk about "grace" without balancing scriptures properly, they eventually give a false impression of the true doctrine of grace and what Jesus Christ and the apostles taught. You too have to be careful about that!

** PS I notice that another thing that people have been missing in all this discussion of "law" and "grace" is how the Lord Jesus Christ Himself explained or "re-interpreted" some of the Old Testament rules and laws; the key point being that He showed the true intent and purport of those rules and laws. Well, that true intent and purport remains till today ---- even under the era of "grace". Again, when you study and understand this, you will be more cautious in your approach, at least I hope so!


Well said.

Even when I was a christian, this was the best explanation for the old and new testament. Clearly, Jesus and Paul were aware of the old testament laws. Jesus and Paul didnt preach about throwing away the old testament laws but to explain and interpret them in a consistent manner to the topic of salvation.

The problem is that people do not understand the most important thing about law
-A law is only as good as its interpretation.

For instance- the old law was "an eye for an eye". Jesus came to explain and interprete this law with regards to salavation- that forgiveness is also part of "an eye for an eye". You see, if someone causes harm to you, harming the person n retaliation is not the only way to repay the person back. One can use mediation to show the person why harming others is bad and how he has harmed you has affected you. This same person can pay you some compensation after you have shown him the gentle Jesus way of turning the other cheek with wisdom. Is that not an "eye for an eye"? The person nullifies the harm he caused to you by using his/her own effort to compensate for that harm.


However, Goshen with his high and mighty attitude will preach as if he is the ultimate authority on scriptures. Calling people "judaizers" and saying that the old laws have gone becuase of grace. Then, he will change mouth after a huge backlash. See how he is now saying that we should all come together and reason out the scriptures after starting the thread like an all knowing preacher. Mtchew.


I am happy that people are finally seeing through this guy's shenanigans.

Good morning all! A bright new day

4 Likes

Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Enigma(m): 6:24am On Jul 29, 2013
^^^ You dis guy, I "propheSIZE" say you go become "pastor" one day! grin


EDIT

@Goshen

I have quickly skimmed through the frosbel thread you referred to: as far as I can see I only made two posts on the thread and only one was even on the thread topic (the other was a little non thread-relevant observation).

In honesty, if you posed a "challenge" to me on that thread, I didn't see it and haven't even seen it yet!
Re: Righteousness Of The Laws Of Moses Vs Righteousness Of Grace Of Christ By Faith by Nobody: 6:28am On Jul 29, 2013
Enigma: ^^^ You dis guy, I "propheSIZE" say you go become "pastor" one day! grin



grin grin

Na testimony be dat!!


He was a atheist and now he is a pastor...SOMEBODY SHOUT HALLELUYAH!!!!

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