hisblud:

Hahah.. ok WHY? Godlike... interesting... yes they are divine beings... but as divine beings, they have thier [size=18pt]various description[/size] and this are the various description for divine beings...

angels in hebrew is refered to as malak but when angels are referred to as "gods", they are called [size=18pt] mee'2lohiym [/size]

Human (man) is aadaam but when man is referred to as "gods", they are called [size=18pt]'2lohiym[/size]

But only YHWH is referred to as [size=18pt]Elohim [/size]

Now that i have shown you that [size=18pt] Elohim is used only for YHWH, [/size] why did thomas according to your NWT referred to Yahshua as "My Lord and My God" ...

Helep me understand what the greek/hebrew means of angel and humans as gods.. godlike...

btw.. do you think i can be referred to also as "god" like moses? and if no, what qualified moses to be called a "god"?

You see why i dont like discussing with you? go and check strongs definition and stop showing that you are a babe in hebrew abeg. Do you know you ve just exposed your little knowledge here? I am even trying to help you gently, but you simply lack the teachable quality.

You do have a long way to go, I tell you. Your comments shows you dont know what you are saying at all.

Go and check what I told you to check. Your gibberish is unfruitful I see.

Emusan:

Another story, the next verse says and there is only one God. The verse you recommended used "gods" in any versions whrreas in verse 6 they used "God"

Yes, it does. why? in verse 5, we are told that their "are" those who are called gods. (the writer meant more than one god, that is why the god was pluralized).

however in verse 6, the reference is to "one" God, (dont mind the capitalization. it is still the same "theos". that is why you see one bearing "s" and the other without "s".

Did Thomas call Jesus gods or God?

Jesus is just one person, as such we dont expect the god to be pluralized.(this is as it applies to greek).

the word "god" is used as a common noun in the bible. or a title.

So you believe God put His active force inl Jesus?
if we should insert the word in that Isaiah 42:2.
Now how this inanimate force help Jesus to achived all His mission?

Do you mean verse 1 of that chapter? it fits in fine. however, meaning doesnt always fit in with the object it describes when subtituted.

when Jesus walked on top of the sea, no body was carrying him under, when the apostles spoke in tongue, no body enterred their tongue, when Jesus commanded the water to hush, no person goes to carry out the order. But what makes all these to accomplish is the holy spirit. the force behind its realization. minus the holy spirit, it wont happen.

Finally, do you agree that the word "spirit" means only force?

No.