freshboi88:


Biblical illiterate. I pity. JW has put Ur brain under Ur armpit

Who is a way been made for?......Jesus or Yahweh?

Frustration has set in Sorry bro

The text of Isaiah 40:3 says Yahweh NOT Jesus . stop lying

And Yahweh send Jesus his servant to accomplish that. Isaiah 42:1

How is that a rocket science for you ?

Jozzy4:

Frustration has set in Sorry bro

The text of Isaiah 40:3 says Yahweh NOT Jesus . stop lying

And Yahweh send Jesus his servant to accomplish that. Isaiah 42:1

How is that a rocket science for you ?

Shame, im taking Ur whole congregation on and this is the best u can do.

My response to @ bolded.

U have not understood Ur bible very well.

New International Version
Philippians 2:7 rather, he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.

First thing first, The one described as Mighty God cannot be a servant.

@ bolded Jesus coming to serve is because he decided to do so out of his love for u and i. The Bible tells us that he made himself a servant.

If u r good in English that should tell u, originally he isn't a servant.

New International Version
Isaiah 10:21 A remnant will return, a remnant of Jacob will return to the Mighty God.

Who is been referred to as Mighty God?

Jozzy4:


Re read the quote, this time calmly

" Isaiah called Jesus " El Gibboa" Mighty God . even humans are called El Gibboa but translators changed it. U see you have no point ? "

Do u deny the same "El Gibboa" translated Mighty God at Isaiah 9:6 was applied as to human beings ?

To avoid confusion so people won't call humans Gods, the English translators change it but the Hebrew says humans are EL GIBBOA just as Isaiah 9:6

Can u deny that ?


You are still a kid in this things , u know very little.



an Everlasting Father that has A Father that beget/produce him , yes ?
This answer will put sense into ur empty head

Are u saying the bible is Lying?

Point out the verse that that calls human beings Mighty God.....no stories !!!.....nobody cares about what u think

Show me the verse

New International Version
Isaiah 10:21 A remnant will return, a remnant of Jacob will return to the Mighty God.

Since Mighty God are humans

Who is the Mighty God Isaiah referred to verse 21

freshboi88:


Are u saying the bible is Lying?

Point out the verse that that calls human beings Mighty God.....no stories !!!.....nobody cares about what u think

Show me the verse

New International Version
Isaiah 10:21 A remnant will return, a remnant of Jacob will return to the Mighty God.

Since Mighty God are humans

Who is the Mighty God Isaiah referred to verse 21

Ezekiel 32:21

" The mighty chiefs [ in Isaiah translated as Mighty God ] shall speak of them, with their helpers, out of the midst of Sheol: ‘They have come down, they lie still, the uncircumcised, slain by the sword.’ " ESV .


Do you accept this translation as meaning of EL Gibboa?

freshboi88:


Shame, im taking Ur whole congregation on and this is the best u can do.

My response to @ bolded.

U have not understood Ur bible very well.

New International Version
Philippians 2:7 rather, he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.

First thing first, The one described as Mighty God cannot be a servant.

@ bolded Jesus coming to serve is because he decided to do so out of his love for u and i. The Bible tells us that he made himself a servant.

If u r good in English that should tell u, originally he isn't a servant.

New International Version
Isaiah 10:21 A remnant will return, a remnant of Jacob will return to the Mighty God.

Who is been referred to as Mighty God?

Philippians 2:7 again " he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness "


says NATURE of a Servant., Nature means form , its the human body that was described as having human nature.

So because Angelic sons of God dont have the NATURE OF HUMANS, they are not servant ?

Isaiah 42:1 says My servant , whom I have chosen. chosen. PAST TENSE .

He chose his servant before he even came to.the earth . so Jesus was a servant before coming to earth .


OUR GOD is not a servant. Thank God for revelation 7:9

Jozzy4:

Philippians 2:7 again " he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness "


says NATURE of a Servant., Nature means form , its the human body that was described as having human nature.

So because Angelic sons of God dont have the NATURE OF HUMANS, they are not servant ?

Isaiah 42:1 says My servant , whom I have chosen. chosen. PAST TENSE .

He chose his servant before he even came to.the earth . so Jesus was a servant before coming to earth .


OUR GOD is not a servant. Thank God for revelation 7:9

U be real OLODO!!!!!!!!!

He made himself nothing by taking the nature of a servant.

Other translations would say he Emptied Himself

For him to become nothing. It means he must have been something to make that choice

What was he before he emptied himself....that's what should get u thinking if u had a functioning brain

Jozzy4:


Ezekiel 32:21

" The mighty chiefs [ in Isaiah translated as Mighty God ] shall speak of them, with their helpers, out of the midst of Sheol: ‘They have come down, they lie still, the uncircumcised, slain by the sword.’ " ESV .


Do you accept this translation as meaning of EL Gibboa?

How is mighty chief and Mighty God the same thing nah.....u be real mumu o

New International Version
Isaiah 10:21 A remnant will return, a remnant of Jacob will return to the Mighty God.

Nah simple question I ask u here o

Who is the Mighty God in this verse? Naim u dey carry story come o

Ansa the question nah

freshboi88:


How is mighty chief and Mighty God the same thing nah.....u be real mumu o

You have a long long long way to go.

Kid, Bible wasn't written in English, in its Hebrew original language. The same word appears for both mighty chief and mighty God.

El Gibboa.

New International Version
Isaiah 10:21 A remnant will return, a remnant of Jacob will return to the Mighty God.

Nah simple question I ask u here o

Who is the Mighty God in this verse? Naim u dey carry story come o

Ansa the question nah

Yahweh.

freshboi88:


U be real OLODO!!!!!!!!!

He made himself nothing by taking the nature of a servant.

Other translations would say he Emptied Himself

Kid, define nature ? The reference was to his human body.

Isaiah 42:1 says My Servant , whom I have CHOSEN . past tense.

For him to become nothing. It means he must have been something to make that choice

What was he before he emptied himself ....that's what should get u thinking if u had a functioning brain

He was in the nature of God. This nature even humans have. Kid. And it doesnt mean they are not created , neither does it mean they are equal to God.

A begotten son was produced. Has a beginning.


OUR GOD is not a servant of anyone , neither was he begotten by anyone

Hebrews 6:13 freshboi88

"When God made his promise to Abraham, he made a vow to do what he had promised. Since there was no one greater than himself , he used his own name when he made his vow. "

NO ONE is greater than God himself.

But Jesus have a God . a servant of someone and a begotten son.


Jesus is not OUR GOD ( revelation 7:9)

This my JW people can argue ehn,no wonder why most pastors will tell you to avoid them but I give it to them as they are most times somehow right

Jozzy4:
Hebrews 6:13 freshboi88

"When God made his promise to Abraham, he made a vow to do what he had promised. Since there was no one greater than himself , he used his own name when he made his vow. "

NO ONE is greater than God himself.

But Jesus have a God . a servant of someone and a begotten son.

Jesus is not OUR GOD ( revelation 7:9)

The young man just want to prove he can't be won over, that's all.
The inconsistency is obvious!

Rozz:
This my JW people can argue ehn,no wonder why most pastors will tell you to avoid them but I give it to them as they are most times somehow right

The pastors knew Jehovah's Witnesses are not mere Churchgoers who will just join any Church, we know why we worship and we are fully competent and completely equipped to handle God's word unlike their brainwashed members who can't defend what they believe!

So they don't want you to listen to us so they don't loose their customer!

Maximus69:


The pastors knew Jehovah's Witnesses are not mere Churchgoers who will just join any Church, we know why we worship and we are fully competent and completely equipped to handle God's word unlike their brainwashed members who can't defend what they believe!

So they don't want you to listen to us so they don't loose their customer!

customers?i don't think so,we all have different views on religion matters and I think one who is right are the ones who truly have the fear of God at heart

Jozzy4:

Philippians 2:7 again " he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness "


says NATURE of a Servant., Nature means form , its the human body that was described as having human nature.

So because Angelic sons of God dont have the NATURE OF HUMANS, they are not servant ?

Isaiah 42:1 says My servant , whom I have chosen. chosen. PAST TENSE.

He chose his servant before he even came to.the earth . so Jesus was a servant before coming to earth .


OUR GOD is not a servant. Thank God for revelation 7:9

My point is centered on the @color part!

If at this your age you can't be able to distinguish the SIMPLE PART OF SPEECH in a statement, then your education is useless and speaks volumes of your Bible interpretation.

What you called PAST TENSE for your selfish interest in that verse is simply called PRESENT PERFECT TENSE which means that the action started in the past and has continued until now with LENGTH OF TIME!

So if Isaiah says "My Servant whom I have CHOSEN" it means the ACTION which is 'CHOSEN' has been achieved many years ago.

Now, since Isaiah is a prophetic statement it means He has been chosen times ago as a servant that's why Apostle Paul said "He took on a form of servant" just as scripture also mentioned that Jesus was a lamb SLAIN FROM FOUNDATION OF THE WORLD, which doesn't means He was killed at that time but a task to be achieved but CHOSEN/DECIDED many years ago.

If Jesus has already been a servant then, Apostle Paul would have been wrong to say "He took upon him the FORM of a servant"

In fact, the whole Phil 2:6-7 proves you wrong that Jesus has always been a servant because it was written plainly the FORM He existed before (GOD) and the FORM He became later (HUMAN) as servant!


The reason I had to correct your ignorance is because you keep repeating that lie of PAST TENSE which means if you can have problem with simple primary school English then your level of Bible interpretation needs to be questioned.

Thou very obvious all over your post!

Rozz:
customers?i don't think so,we all have different views on religion matters and I think one who is right are the ones who truly have the fear of God at heart

Different views on religious matters?

Jesus never said so! John 17:20-23

And the first century Christians have the same line of thought on religious matters Ma!
Romans 15:5-6, 1Corinthians 1:10; 2Corinthians 13:11; Ephesians 4:3; Philippians 2:2; 1Peter 3:8

Emusan:


My point is centered on the @color part!

If at this your age you can't be able to distinguish the SIMPLE PART OF SPEECH in a statement, then your education is useless and speaks volumes of your Bible interpretation.

What you called PAST TENSE for your selfish interest in that verse is simply called PRESENT PERFECT TENSE which means that the action started in the past and has continued until now with LENGTH OF TIME!

So if Isaiah says "My Servant whom I have CHOSEN" it means the ACTION which is 'CHOSEN' has been achieved many years ago.

Now, since Isaiah is a prophetic statement it means He has been chosen times ago as a servant that's why Apostle Paul said "He took on a form of servant" just as scripture also mentioned that Jesus was a lamb SLAIN FROM FOUNDATION OF THE WORLD, which doesn't means He was killed at that time but a task to be achieved but CHOSEN/DECIDED many years ago.

If Jesus has already been a servant then, Apostle Paul would have been wrong to say "He took upon him the FORM of a servant"


In fact, the whole Phil 2:6-7 proves you wrong that Jesus has always been a servant because it was written plainly the FORM He existed before (GOD) and the FORM He became later (HUMAN) as servant!


The reason I had to correct your ignorance is because you keep repeating that lie of PAST TENSE which means if you have problem with simple primary school English then your level of Bible interpretation needs to be questioned.

Your assumption is based on the fact that having Divine nature means someone can't be a servant.

Form means Nature in this context, we both agree , am focusing on the highlighted because it is what will expose your incompetency.

Humans are said to be sharers of this same NATURE OF GOD, Does that mean they are not his servant or are now equal to God ?

Jozzy4:

Your assumption is based on the fact that having Divine nature means someone can't be a servant.

Form means Nature in this context, we both agree , am focusing on the highlighted because it is what will expose your incompetency.

Humans are said to be sharers of this same NATURE OF GOD, Does that mean they are not his servant or are now equal to God ?

Jozzy, this one has a very deadly disease o, his own is triple times all others.

He is suffering from chronic antijw virus !

Firstly, do you agree you misinterpreted Isaiah 42:1?

Jozzy4:
Your assumption is based on the fact that having Divine nature means someone can't be a servant.

This is where you got it wrong!

NOTICE this your statement "...having Divine nature means someone can't be a servant"

It's obvious that you tune has changed!

The center point is, what He is before and after.

He was in FORM of God before taken upon the FORM OF A SERVANT.

So the two statements can't be true!

Form means Nature in this context, we both agree , am focusing on the highlighted because it is what will expose your incompetency.

Instead you should be worried about your ignorance.

Now let's substitute NATURE into Phil 2:7 and see how it exposes your ignorance.

"....and took upon him, the NATURE of a servant"

This simply means, he wasn't a servant before this time but at this time he possessed the NATURE of SERVANT

Humans are said to be sharers of this same NATURE OF GOD, Does that mean they are not his servant or are now equal to God ?

You're digressing from the main point!

The point isn't whether Jesus shares divine nature but ONLY BECAME SERVANT at certain time.

Emusan:
Firstly, do you agree you misinterpreted Isaiah 42:1?

U must be a joke
MY servant, possessive pronoun. No am not wrong. He was a servant as at when chosen. I only wanted to tackle that UNFOUNDED claim that seek to say Having divine nature means someone can't be a servant of the Most High.

This is where you got it wrong!

NOTICE this your statement "...having Divine nature means someone can't be a servant"

It's obvious that you tune has changed!

The center point is, what He is before and after.

He was in FORM of God before taken upon the FORM OF A SERVANT.

So the two statements can't be true!

If the two statements can't be true. Are human who possess divine nature EQUAL TO GOD ?

Instead you should be worried about your ignorance.

Now let's substitute NATURE into Phil 2:7 and see how it exposes your ignorance.

"....and took upon him, the NATURE of a servant"

This simply means, he wasn't a servant before this time but at this time he possessed the NATURE of SERVANT



You're digressing from the main point!

The point isn't whether Jesus shares divine nature but ONLY BECAME SERVANT at certain time.

Thank God it says " NATURE of " Nature refer to a certain form or APPEARANCE. Get schooled. The verse explains it further saying " being in the likeness of men" this is the nature it was reffering.

Not even angels have this nature of a servant . BUT it doesnt mean they are not servants.


Does having NATURE OF GOD means someone is not a servant or someone is equal to GOD ?

The trillion dollar question.

Maximus69:


Jozzy, this one has a very deadly disease o, his own is triple times all others.

He is suffering from chronic antijw virus !

The disease may obviously get him into trouble this early morning

Jozzy4:


The disease may obviously get him into trouble this early morning

Most times, after giving him hard knocks on the brain i just ignore the him.

His addicted to the word "hypocrites" as if there shouldn't be any guidance or correction simply because humans are imperfect!

Jozzy4:
U must be a joke
MY servant, possessive pronoun. No am not wrong. He was a servant as at when chosen. I only wanted to tackle that UNFOUNDED claim that seek to say Having divine nature means someone can't be a servant of the Most High.

Me a joke, coming from someone who can't distinguish between Simple Past Tense and Present Perfect Tense.

So when was He chosen?

If the two statements can't be true. Are human who possess divine nature EQUAL TO GOD?

The verse says "...ye might be PARTAKERS of the divine nature" this is different from being in FORM of God.

Thank God it says " NATURE of " Nature refer to a certain form or APPEARANCE. Get schooled. The verse explains it further saying " being in the likeness of men" this is the nature it was reffering.

Not even angels have this nature of a servant . BUT it doesnt mean they are not servants.

The problem you have is that, you don't even understand yourself.

Phil 2 was about the NATURE/FORM He existed before and the NATURE/FORM he now exists.

Which means He never EXISTED AS SERVANT but ONLY exists as a SERVANT when he became human.

Does having NATURE OF GOD means someone is not a servant or someone is equal to GOD ?

The trillion dollar question.

Like I said, you're still perambulating.

He existed in FORM/NATURE of God from beginning NOT AS A SERVANT, He only exists as FORM/NATURE of a servant when He became human.

But to your question!
ONLY GOD CAN HAVE THE NATURE OF GOD

Having God's nature means you're God just as having human nature means you're a human!

Jozzy4:

U must be a joke
MY servant, possessive pronoun. No am not wrong. He was a servant as at when chosen. I only wanted to tackle that UNFOUNDED claim that seek to say Having divine nature means someone can't be a servant of the Most High.



If the two statements can't be true. Are human who possess divine nature EQUAL TO GOD ?



Thank God it says " NATURE of " Nature refer to a certain form or APPEARANCE. Get schooled. The verse explains it further saying " being in the likeness of men" this is the nature it was reffering.

Not even angels have this nature of a servant . BUT it doesnt mean they are not servants.


Does having NATURE OF GOD means someone is not a servant or someone is equal to GOD ?

The trillion dollar question.

Only God has Gods nature u dunce!!!

The verse clearly shows a distinction between two nature's.

Gods nature and Human nature

The verse says Jesus dropped one and picked the other this making him a servant

Emusan:


Me a joke, coming from someone who can't distinguish between Simple Past Tense and Present Perfect Tense.

So when was He chosen?

U can't call someone who is not your servant . My servant . that statement long before he even came to earth point to a greater truth.

The verse says "...ye might be PARTAKERS of the divine nature " this is different from being in FORM of God.

Nope, partakers of what ? I ask paratakers of what ? DIVINE NATURE. GODS FORM, are they equal to God ?

Yeye dey smell

The problem you have is that, you don't even understand yourself.

Phil 2 was about the NATURE/FORM He existed before and the NATURE/FORM he now exists.

Which means He never EXISTED AS SERVANT but ONLY exists as a SERVANT when he became human.

Emphasis on NATURE and FORM ... Points to appearance , agreed ?

Its clear you no know nothing.

Like I said, you're still perambulating.

He existed in FORM/NATURE of God from beginning NOT AS A SERVANT, He only exists as FORM/NATURE of a servant when He became human.
[b]
But to your question!
ONLY GOD CAN HAVE THE NATURE OF GOD

Having God's nature means you're God just as having human nature means you're a human!

So clearly then those sharing the GODS NATURE are ALL EQUAL TO GOD , accepted ?

Am loving this

freshboi88:


Only God has Gods nature u dunce!!!

Then those humans sharing THE GODS NATURE ARE EQUAL TO GOD , yes ?

Emusan:


Me a joke, coming from someone who can't distinguish between Simple Past Tense and Present Perfect Tense.

So when was He chosen?



The verse says "...ye might be PARTAKERS of the divine nature" this is different from being in FORM of God.



The problem you have is that, you don't even understand yourself.

Phil 2 was about the NATURE/FORM He existed before and the NATURE/FORM he now exists.

Which means He never EXISTED AS SERVANT but ONLY exists as a SERVANT when he became human.



Like I said, you're still perambulating.

He existed in FORM/NATURE of God from beginning NOT AS A SERVANT, He only exists as FORM/NATURE of a servant when He became human.

But to your question!
ONLY GOD CAN HAVE THE NATURE OF GOD

Having God's nature means you're God just as having human nature means you're a human!

Thank u for giving that guy brain and curing his sickness

freshboi88:


Thank u for giving that guy brain and curing his sickness

kid check my replies , dont be silly

Jozzy4:
U can't call someone who is not your servant . My servant . that statement long before he even came to earth point to a greater truth.

The problem you're having is big, many translations reference Isa 42:1 with Phil 2:7

Why? Simply because it was that time when Christ became man that Isa 42 was fulfilled.

Just like I said if ordinary primary school English is difficult for you, how can you even understand scripture?

Nope, partakers of what ? I ask paratakers of what ? DIVINE NATURE. GODS FORM, are they equal to God ?

Yeye dey smell

They are PARTAKERS/SHARE, they don't exist in that FORM

But Christ exists in God's form which only God existed.

Emphasis on NATURE and FORM ... Points to appearance , agreed ?

Its clear you no know nothing.

Let me quote your own translation of Phil 2 so that it can cure your ignorance!

"who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God. No, but he emptied himself and took a slave’s form and became human"

Even your own translation says "WAS EXISTING in God's FORM" and went further to say "but emptied himself and took a SLAVE'S FORM"

Which shows the state He was and the state He is now.

So clearly then those sharing the GODS NATURE are ALL EQUAL TO GOD , accepted ? Am loving this

SHARE isn't EXISTING in that FORM

I even forgot you lack understand of basic English.

freshboi88:


Only God has Gods nature u dunce!!!

The verse clearly shows a distinction between two nature's.

Gods nature and Human nature

The verse says Jesus dropped one and picked the other this making him a servant

It was human nature that was called Nature of servant. Now you are learning.

Angels don't have human nature ( nature of a servant , But are they servants ? Question 1.

Question 2. Some humans by virtue of God sharing it , Also Possess the divine/GODS NATURE. ARE THEY EQUAL TO GOD ?

Answer both and let's see how valid your postulations are.

Emusan , laughs

Emusan:


The problem you're having is big, many translations reference Isa 42:1 with Phil 2:7

Why? Simply because it was that time when Christ became man that Isa 42 was fulfilled.

Just like I said if ordinary primary school English is difficult for you, how can you even understand scripture?

Isaiah 42:1 didn't say " my future servant "

He was servant even the present.

Grow up. The possesive MY says it all

They are PARTAKERS/SHARE, they don't exist in that FORM

But Christ exists in God's form which only God existed.

When it was shared with them, In what Nature do they exist ?

Let me quote your own translation of Phil 2 so that it can cure your ignorance!

[color=blue]"who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God. No, but he emptied himself and took a slave’s form and became human"[/Color]

Even your own translation says "WAS EXISTING in God's FORM" and went further to say "but emptied himself and took a SLAVE'S FORM"

Which shows the state He was and the state He is now.



SHARE isn't EXISTING in that FORM

I even forgot you lack understand of basic English.

Which Nature was shared with them ?

Once shared, in what form do those humans exist ?

Brain dead analogy Emusan .

Emusan

Emusan:


The problem you're having is big, many translations reference Isa 42:1 with Phil 2:7

Why? Simply because it was that time when Christ became man that Isa 42 was fulfilled.

Just like I said if ordinary primary school English is difficult for you, how can you even understand scripture?



They are PARTAKERS/SHARE, they don't exist in that FORM

But Christ exists in God's form which only God existed.



Let me quote your own translation of Phil 2 so that it can cure your ignorance!

"who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God. No, but he emptied himself and took a slave’s form and became human"

Even your own translation says "WAS EXISTING in God's FORM" and went further to say "but emptied himself and took a SLAVE'S FORM"

Which shows the state He was and the state He is now.



SHARE isn't EXISTING in that FORM

I even forgot you lack understand of basic English.

Explain the below, if the highlighted makes sense to you:

" Since the children have flesh and blood, he too shared in their humanity " Hebrews 2:14

Does Jesus sharing humanity means he existed In that form ?