gaskiyamagana:


"How can we say we are wise, when the pen of the scribes had turns Word of God into LIE."
JEREMIAH 8:8. QUOTE ONE VERSE LIKE THIS FROM QUR'AN THAT CAST DOUBT ON ITS AUTHENTICITY LIKE JEREMIAH 8:8 ON THE BIBLE that is your true standard of identify or arguing about your so called lie.

What are you even angry about on this thread? What have I said that is NOT according to islamic injunctions?


I will post it again here:


When a Prophet Disregards the Law of his God


Prophet Mohammed by Islamic Narrative is the best Muslim and yet he seems to be above the rules of Islam.
Let me not bore you with the Special Privileges Mohammed claimed that Allah gave him alone alone but not to any other Muslim. We shall look at the Islamic Rule for Divorce and Reconciliation in Islam

Let us look at the Law of Divorce in Islam

1. If a man utters to his wife thrice the phrase "I divorce you". The divorce is considered FINAL and even if the man was Drunk or unreasonably Angry or Deceived to utter those words, the wife is considered divorced (even if she wasn't guilty of any offence).
2. According to the Law of Allah, this divorced woman can only return back to her husband AFTER she married another person AND gets her orgasm from the new husband.
3. If this new (second husband) is impotent, this wife is trapped forever in a sensless marriage provoked by the sensless divorce pronounced by the husband.

Let's Imagine that the Husband of this Loving, Responsible and Religious wife comes to his senses and the rashly divorced Wife still loves her husband and most importantly doesn't want to leave her children alone. The Law is clear:
Marry Another Man AND receive Orgasm before she can return to her husband and children.

The Question is:
Mohammed divorced at least TWO or THREE of his Wives but we shall look only at one from the lot of Bint al-Jawn, Umm Sharīk and Hafsah b Umar.


Enter Mrs Hafsa Qutham Mohammed
She was divorced in Finality by Mohammed because she couldn't keep a secret (Qur'an 66:1-5)
Mohammed had to take her back after he changed his mind. However, there was no single record that Hafsa married anyone not to talk of receiving sexual orgasm from such a man.

Note: Mohammed actually made a decree that even after his death, no one was permitted to marry his widows.

Questions :
1. Why is it that Mohammed is the only prophet above the laws of his God?
2a. Why is the Islamic law of Divorce and Remarriage hostile to a dutiful and loving Muslim Wife who was rashly divorced by her husband?
b. Why must it be the wife that must pay for the stupidity of her husband by marrying a husband she doesn't want so that she can return to her husband and children?
3. What is the logic and common sense in this law of Divorce and Reconciliation?


Mr gaskiyamagana,
Apart from my Questions,
What have I said that is NOT according to the teachings of Islam?

gaskiyamagana:

Jumping from one, muddling one topic with another as a confused or misguided unbelievers, you will not only be tired but likely to be drowned in the ocean of Islamic knowlrdge you are paddling damaged canoe of bigotry.

Are you a Shia or Sunni?

gaskiyamagana:

The answer is as answer to who is Jesus' and other prophets teacher. Hope your ignorant is somehow satisfied.

How come you escaped from Pry 6? So according to your alfa that taught you English, na to use question answer question nii abi?

Montessori school is the solution to your problem, sha drop your details make I help you out

TenQ:
To those just coming in:
No single Muslim has responded even partially to these questions.


When a Prophet Disregards the Law of his God


Prophet Mohammed by Islamic Narrative is the best Muslim and yet he seems to be above the rules of Islam.
Let me not bore you with the Special Privileges Mohammed claimed that Allah gave him alone alone but not to any other Muslim. We shall look at the Islamic Rule for Divorce and Reconciliation in Islam

Let us look at the Law of Divorce in Islam

1. If a man utters to his wife thrice the phrase "I divorce you". The divorce is considered FINAL and even if the man was Drunk or unreasonably Angry or Deceived to utter those words, the wife is considered divorced (even if she wasn't guilty of any offence).
2. According to the Law of Allah, this divorced woman can only return back to her husband AFTER she married another person AND gets her orgasm from the new husband.
3. If this new (second husband) is impotent, this wife is trapped forever in a sensless marriage provoked by the sensless divorce pronounced by the husband.

Let's Imagine that the Husband of this Loving, Responsible and Religious wife comes to his senses and the rashly divorced Wife still loves her husband and most importantly doesn't want to leave her children alone. The Law is clear:
Marry Another Man AND receive Orgasm before she can return to her husband and children.

The Question is:
Mohammed divorced at least TWO or THREE of his Wives but we shall look only at one from the lot of Bint al-Jawn, Umm Sharīk and Hafsah b Umar.


Enter Mrs Hafsa Qutham Mohammed
She was divorced in Finality by Mohammed because she couldn't keep a secret (Qur'an 66:1-5)
Mohammed had to take her back after he changed his mind. However, there was no single record that Hafsa married anyone not to talk of receiving sexual orgasm from such a man.

Note: Mohammed actually made a decree that even after his death, no one was permitted to marry his widows.

Questions :
1. Why is it that Mohammed is the only prophet above the laws of his God?
2a. Why is the Islamic law of Divorce and Remarriage hostile to a dutiful and loving Muslim Wife who was rashly divorced by her husband?
b. Why must it be the wife that must pay for the stupidity of her husband by marrying a husband she doesn't want so that she can return to her husband and children?
3. What is the logic and common sense in this law of Divorce and Reconciliation?



References are below :

Please let's make the answers short, direct and precise
Cc:
All my Friends on Nairaland:
LegalWolf Vanessa7 AntiChristian Empiree, Rash4ductluv, BabaHeekmat, aekymbahd, motayoayinde, drlateef, Thatfairguy1, MrCodeSolo , Hisbah21, atsleepboy1 , Lordmoh , OBALOLA55, x123xlolls , Lukuluku69 , mhmsadyq, Ibsaq , Herkeym001 , Sulasa07 , hakeemhakeem , abduljabbar4 ,olaalekan ,Friend22 , uthlaw , Exc2000 , AbuTwins ,Akhirastriver ,Akinbahm , Sino , KayB , youngdroly , jaggabban , ukeleh , Realismailakabir , Bami8064 Greatgr , Gaskiyamagana , compton11, Alfarouq , MrCodeSolo Satmaniac saintHot, drlateef, Donkmore Akinbahm , IMEI , FATHAT , talk2hb1 , iamrealdeji , Encyclopedia1 , aheeqilmaktoom , Bintdawood , Flanker , Raheeqilmaktoom , rolams ,honesttalk21 , Negroid001 , Nvestor02 , Coolsat, iamrealdeji

But this your question makes no sense! Just as the ones below may make no sense to you!

It's just like asking why did only Jesus have to die for everyone's sin when there are others before him!
Why would God forbid murder but send his son to be murdered, putting salvation on what he has forbidden?
Why would God personally give David many wives but allegedly promote one wife for man?
Same God that made laws protecting the second wife is the same one Christians believe instituted one wife per husband!
Why would God gave Old testament for some and New Testament for others?
Why are many laws from the Old testament (like a widow sleeping with her husband's brother to produce offspring for him) shunned today?
Why didn't Jesus get married and have kids since he was God 100% and man 100%? Was he barren? Does he have functional sex organ with potent sex cells?
Why was Enoch and Elijah not killed but vanished but John the Baptist and Jesus were?
Why would Elisha cursed 42 kids in the name of the LORD to be mauled by bears but Jesus on the other embraced kids?

AbuTwins:


But this your question makes no sense! Just as the ones below may make no sense to you!

It's just like asking why did only Jesus have to die for everyone's sin when there are others before him!
Why would God forbid murder but send his son to be murdered, putting salvation on what he has forbidden?
Why would God personally give David many wives but allegedly promote one wife for man?
Same God that made laws protecting the second wife is the same one Christians believe instituted one wife per husband!
Why would God gave Old testament for some and New Testament for others?
Why are many laws from the Old testament (like a widow sleeping with her husband's brother to produce offspring for him) shunned today?
Why didn't Jesus get married and have kids since he was God 100% and man 100%? Was he barren? Does he have functional sex organ with potent sex cells?
Why was Enoch and Elijah not killed but vanished but John the Baptist and Jesus were?
Why would Elisha cursed 42 kids in the name of the LORD to be mauled by bears but Jesus on the other embraced kids?

The questions you asked have answers if you want!


Does these questions below have answers?

Questions :
1. Why is it that Mohammed is the only prophet above the laws of his God?

ALL Muslims are to Obey Allah, Mohammed is a Man and also a Muslim. Special privileges are given to him Yet we see him breaking other rules of Allah!





2a. Why is the Islamic law of Divorce and Remarriage hostile to a dutiful and loving Muslim Wife who was rashly divorced by her husband?


In Islam, a woman cannot divorce her husband unilaterally but a man can. The Law of divorce in Islam forces a divorced faithful woman who was rashly divorced by her husband to have her orgasm for another man before she can be allowed to return home. Is this logical and sane?



b. Why must it be the wife that must pay for the stupidity of her husband by marrying a husband she doesn't want so that she can return to her husband and children?


Why shouldn't the rash husband pay for the consequence of his stupidly rash divorce of his wife?



3. What is the logic and common sense in this law of Divorce and Reconciliation?

If Allah gave this law of Divorce and Reconciliation, what is the common sense or objective of the Law?

These are the simple questions

TenQ:


The questions you asked have answers if you want!


Does these questions below have answers?

Questions :
1. Why is it that Mohammed is the only prophet above the laws of his God?

ALL Muslims are to Obey Allah, Mohammed is a Man and also a Muslim. Special privileges are given to him Yet we see him breaking other rules of Allah!





2a. Why is the Islamic law of Divorce and Remarriage hostile to a dutiful and loving Muslim Wife who was rashly divorced by her husband?


In Islam, a woman cannot divorce her husband unilaterally but a man can. The Law of divorce in Islam forces a divorced faithful woman who was rashly divorced by her husband to have her orgasm for another man before she can be allowed to return home. Is this logical and sane?



b. Why must it be the wife that must pay for the stupidity of her husband by marrying a husband she doesn't want so that she can return to her husband and children?


Why shouldn't the rash husband pay for the consequence of his stupidly rash divorce of his wife?



3. What is the logic and common sense in this law of Divorce and Reconciliation?

If Allah gave this law of Divorce and Reconciliation, what is the common sense or objective of the Law?

These are the simple questions

LOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOL - its even the audacity of a future thief to think they do not have answers. Please answer AbuTwins questions and stop dribbling around, ehn future thief Tenq

cc: sirtee15 fxmasterz future thief TenQ

LegalWolf:


LOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOL - its even the audacity of a future thief to think they do not have answers. Please answer AbuTwins questions and stop dribbling around, ehn future thief Tenq

cc: sirtee15 fxmasterz future thief TenQ

Does these questions below have answers?

Questions :
1. Why is it that Mohammed is the only prophet above the laws of his God?

ALL Muslims are to Obey Allah, Mohammed is a Man and also a Muslim. Special privileges are given to him Yet we see him breaking other rules of Allah!





2a. Why is the Islamic law of Divorce and Remarriage hostile to a dutiful and loving Muslim Wife who was rashly divorced by her husband?


In Islam, a woman cannot divorce her husband unilaterally but a man can. The Law of divorce in Islam forces a divorced faithful woman who was rashly divorced by her husband to have her orgasm for another man before she can be allowed to return home. Is this logical and sane?



b. Why must it be the wife that must pay for the stupidity of her husband by marrying a husband she doesn't want so that she can return to her husband and children?


Why shouldn't the rash husband pay for the consequence of his stupidly rash divorce of his wife?



3. What is the logic and common sense in this law of Divorce and Reconciliation?

If Allah gave this law of Divorce and Reconciliation, what is the common sense or objective of the Law?

These are the simple questions

TenQ:





Does these questions below have answers?

Questions :
1. Why is it that Mohammed is the only prophet above the laws of his God?

ALL Muslims are to Obey Allah, Mohammed is a Man and also a Muslim. Special privileges are given to him Yet we see him breaking other rules of Allah!





2a. Why is the Islamic law of Divorce and Remarriage hostile to a dutiful and loving Muslim Wife who was rashly divorced by her husband?


In Islam, a woman cannot divorce her husband unilaterally but a man can. The Law of divorce in Islam forces a divorced faithful woman who was rashly divorced by her husband to have her orgasm for another man before she can be allowed to return home. Is this logical and sane?



b. Why must it be the wife that must pay for the stupidity of her husband by marrying a husband she doesn't want so that she can return to her husband and children?


Why shouldn't the rash husband pay for the consequence of his stupidly rash divorce of his wife?



3. What is the logic and common sense in this law of Divorce and Reconciliation?

If Allah gave this law of Divorce and Reconciliation, what is the common sense or objective of the Law?

These are the simple questions

Future thief oooo 🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣

TenQ:





Does these questions below have answers?

Questions :
1. Why is it that Mohammed is the only prophet above the laws of his God?

ALL Muslims are to Obey Allah, Mohammed is a Man and also a Muslim. Special privileges are given to him Yet we see him breaking other rules of Allah!





2a. Why is the Islamic law of Divorce and Remarriage hostile to a dutiful and loving Muslim Wife who was rashly divorced by her husband?


In Islam, a woman cannot divorce her husband unilaterally but a man can. The Law of divorce in Islam forces a divorced faithful woman who was rashly divorced by her husband to have her orgasm for another man before she can be allowed to return home. Is this logical and sane?



b. Why must it be the wife that must pay for the stupidity of her husband by marrying a husband she doesn't want so that she can return to her husband and children?


Why shouldn't the rash husband pay for the consequence of his stupidly rash divorce of his wife?



3. What is the logic and common sense in this law of Divorce and Reconciliation?

If Allah gave this law of Divorce and Reconciliation, what is the common sense or objective of the Law?

These are the simple questions

Future thief oooo 🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣

LegalWolf:


Future thief oooo 🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣

The thing you and your prophet and Allah pride themselves in is what the God of Moses called an ABOMINATION!

Deu 24:1-4:
"When a man has taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favor in his eyes, because he has found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorce, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife. And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorce, and gives it in her hand, and sends her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife;Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and you shall not cause the land to sin, which the LORD your God gives you for an inheritance."


How the hadiths below is not nauseating to you can only be the wonder of satan.
Let me repost as a reminder of the topic at hand


Hadith that show that the Woman MUST have Orgasm for the Second Husband before returning to her First Husband:
Sunan an-Nasa'i 3414
It was narrated from Ibn 'Umar that the Prophet said, concerning a man who had a wife and he divorced her, then she married another man who divorced her before consummating the marriage with her, and (it was asked) whether she could go back to her first husband: "No, not until she tastes his sweetness."

Marriage. كتاب النكاح28
Book 28, Hadith 18: Book 28, Hadith 1112
Yahya related to me from Malik from Yahya ibn Said from al-Qasim ibn Muhammad that A'isha, the wife of the Prophet, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, said when asked whether it was permissible for a man to marry again a wife he had divorced irrevocably if she had married another man who divorced her before consummating the marriage, "Not until she has tasted the sweetness of intercourse."



Sunan an-Nasa'i 3407
It was narrated that 'Aishah said:
"The Messenger of Allah was asked about a man who divorced his wife, and she married another man who had a closed meeting with her then divorced her, before having intercourse with her. Is it permissible for her to remarry the first husband? The Messenger of Allah said: 'No, not until the second one tastes her sweetness and she tastes his sweetness.'"

TenQ:

The thing you and your prophet and Allah pride themselves in is what the God of Moses called an ABOMINATION!

Deu 24:1-4:
"When a man has taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favor in his eyes, because he has found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorce, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife. And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorce, and gives it in her hand, and sends her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife;Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and you shall not cause the land to sin, which the LORD your God gives you for an inheritance."


How the hadiths below is not nauseating to you can only be the wonder of satan.
Let me repost as a reminder of the topic at hand


Hadith that show that the Woman MUST have Orgasm for the Second Husband before returning to her First Husband:
Sunan an-Nasa'i 3414
It was narrated from Ibn 'Umar that the Prophet said, concerning a man who had a wife and he divorced her, then she married another man who divorced her before consummating the marriage with her, and (it was asked) whether she could go back to her first husband: "No, not until she tastes his sweetness."

Marriage. كتاب النكاح28
Book 28, Hadith 18: Book 28, Hadith 1112
Yahya related to me from Malik from Yahya ibn Said from al-Qasim ibn Muhammad that A'isha, the wife of the Prophet, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, said when asked whether it was permissible for a man to marry again a wife he had divorced irrevocably if she had married another man who divorced her before consummating the marriage, "Not until she has tasted the sweetness of intercourse."



Sunan an-Nasa'i 3407
It was narrated that 'Aishah said:
"The Messenger of Allah was asked about a man who divorced his wife, and she married another man who had a closed meeting with her then divorced her, before having intercourse with her. Is it permissible for her to remarry the first husband? The Messenger of Allah said: 'No, not until the second one tastes her sweetness and she tastes his sweetness.'"

Future thief oooo 🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣

LegalWolf:

Future thief oooo 🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣

For the last time on this thread



The thing you and your prophet and Allah pride themselves in is what the God of Moses called an ABOMINATION!

Deu 24:1-4:
"When a man has taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favor in his eyes, because he has found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorce, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife. And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorce, and gives it in her hand, and sends her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife;Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and you shall not cause the land to sin, which the LORD your God gives you for an inheritance."


How the hadiths below is not nauseating to you can only be the wonder of satan.
Let me repost as a reminder of the topic at hand


Hadith that show that the Woman MUST have Orgasm for the Second Husband before returning to her First Husband:
Sunan an-Nasa'i 3414
It was narrated from Ibn 'Umar that the Prophet said, concerning a man who had a wife and he divorced her, then she married another man who divorced her before consummating the marriage with her, and (it was asked) whether she could go back to her first husband: "No, not until she tastes his sweetness."

Marriage. كتاب النكاح28
Book 28, Hadith 18: Book 28, Hadith 1112
Yahya related to me from Malik from Yahya ibn Said from al-Qasim ibn Muhammad that A'isha, the wife of the Prophet, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, said when asked whether it was permissible for a man to marry again a wife he had divorced irrevocably if she had married another man who divorced her before consummating the marriage, "Not until she has tasted the sweetness of intercourse."



Sunan an-Nasa'i 3407
It was narrated that 'Aishah said:
"The Messenger of Allah was asked about a man who divorced his wife, and she married another man who had a closed meeting with her then divorced her, before having intercourse with her. Is it permissible for her to remarry the first husband? The Messenger of Allah said: 'No, not until the second one tastes her sweetness and she tastes his sweetness.'"

Yes, if you can answer the questions below you'll solve your favoritism problem!

1.Why would God forbid murder but send his son to be murdered, putting salvation on what he has forbidden?
2.Why would God personally give David many wives but allegedly promote one wife for man?
3.Same God that made laws protecting the second wife is the same one Christians believe instituted one wife per husband!
4.Why would God gave Old testament for some and New Testament for others?
5.Why are many laws from the Old testament (like a widow sleeping with her husband's brother to produce offspring for him) shunned today?
6.Why didn't Jesus get married and have kids since he was God 100% and man 100%? Was he barren? Does he have functional sex organ 7.with potent sex cells?
8.Why was Enoch and Elijah not killed but vanished but John the Baptist and Jesus were?
9.Why would Elisha cursed 42 kids in the name of the LORD to be mauled by bears but Jesus on the other embraced kids?
10. Why did Yahweh gave Dangote billions as a Muslim and gave you a Christian far less?

TenQ:


The questions you asked have answers if you want!


Does these questions below have answers?

Questions :
1. Why is it that Mohammed is the only prophet above the laws of his God?

ALL Muslims are to Obey Allah, Mohammed is a Man and also a Muslim. Special privileges are given to him Yet we see him breaking other rules of Allah!





2a. Why is the Islamic law of Divorce and Remarriage hostile to a dutiful and loving Muslim Wife who was rashly divorced by her husband?


In Islam, a woman cannot divorce her husband unilaterally but a man can. The Law of divorce in Islam forces a divorced faithful woman who was rashly divorced by her husband to have her orgasm for another man before she can be allowed to return home. Is this logical and sane?



b. Why must it be the wife that must pay for the stupidity of her husband by marrying a husband she doesn't want so that she can return to her husband and children?


Why shouldn't the rash husband pay for the consequence of his stupidly rash divorce of his wife?



3. What is the logic and common sense in this law of Divorce and Reconciliation?

If Allah gave this law of Divorce and Reconciliation, what is the common sense or objective of the Law?

These are the simple questions

AbuTwins:
Yes, if you can answer the questions below you'll solve your favoritism problem!

1.Why would God forbid murder but send his son to be murdered, putting salvation on what he has forbidden?
2.Why would God personally give David many wives but allegedly promote one wife for man?
3.Same God that made laws protecting the second wife is the same one Christians believe instituted one wife per husband!
4.Why would God gave Old testament for some and New Testament for others?
5.Why are many laws from the Old testament (like a widow sleeping with her husband's brother to produce offspring for him) shunned today?
6.Why didn't Jesus get married and have kids since he was God 100% and man 100%? Was he barren? Does he have functional sex organ 7.with potent sex cells?
8.Why was Enoch and Elijah not killed but vanished but John the Baptist and Jesus were?
9.Why would Elisha cursed 42 kids in the name of the LORD to be mauled by bears but Jesus on the other embraced kids?
10. Why did Yahweh gave Dangote billions as a Muslim and gave you a Christian far less?

Let's answer the questions following this rule.

I will answer ONE TWO questions, then you will answer ONE question from me until we finish!

If this is okay by you, let me know!

TenQ:


For the last time on this thread



The thing you and your prophet and Allah pride themselves in is what the God of Moses called an ABOMINATION!

Deu 24:1-4:
"When a man has taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favor in his eyes, because he has found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorce, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house. And when she is departed out of his house, she may go and be another man's wife. And if the latter husband hate her, and write her a bill of divorce, and gives it in her hand, and sends her out of his house; or if the latter husband die, which took her to be his wife;Her former husband, which sent her away, may not take her again to be his wife, after that she is defiled; for that is abomination before the LORD: and you shall not cause the land to sin, which the LORD your God gives you for an inheritance."


How the hadiths below is not nauseating to you can only be the wonder of satan.
Let me repost as a reminder of the topic at hand


Hadith that show that the Woman MUST have Orgasm for the Second Husband before returning to her First Husband:
Sunan an-Nasa'i 3414
It was narrated from Ibn 'Umar that the Prophet said, concerning a man who had a wife and he divorced her, then she married another man who divorced her before consummating the marriage with her, and (it was asked) whether she could go back to her first husband: "No, not until she tastes his sweetness."

Marriage. كتاب النكاح28
Book 28, Hadith 18: Book 28, Hadith 1112
Yahya related to me from Malik from Yahya ibn Said from al-Qasim ibn Muhammad that A'isha, the wife of the Prophet, may Allah bless him and grant him peace, said when asked whether it was permissible for a man to marry again a wife he had divorced irrevocably if she had married another man who divorced her before consummating the marriage, "Not until she has tasted the sweetness of intercourse."



Sunan an-Nasa'i 3407
It was narrated that 'Aishah said:
"The Messenger of Allah was asked about a man who divorced his wife, and she married another man who had a closed meeting with her then divorced her, before having intercourse with her. Is it permissible for her to remarry the first husband? The Messenger of Allah said: 'No, not until the second one tastes her sweetness and she tastes his sweetness.'"

Future thief oooo 🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣🤣

AbuTwins:
Yes, if you can answer the questions below you'll solve your favoritism problem!

1.Why would God forbid murder but send his son to be murdered, putting salvation on what he has forbidden?
2.Why would God personally give David many wives but allegedly promote one wife for man?
3.Same God that made laws protecting the second wife is the same one Christians believe instituted one wife per husband!
4.Why would God gave Old testament for some and New Testament for others?
5.Why are many laws from the Old testament (like a widow sleeping with her husband's brother to produce offspring for him) shunned today?
6.Why didn't Jesus get married and have kids since he was God 100% and man 100%? Was he barren? Does he have functional sex organ 7.with potent sex cells?
8.Why was Enoch and Elijah not killed but vanished but John the Baptist and Jesus were?
9.Why would Elisha cursed 42 kids in the name of the LORD to be mauled by bears but Jesus on the other embraced kids?
10. Why did Yahweh gave Dangote billions as a Muslim and gave you a Christian far less?

I am still waiting for your response!