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Christians believe that it is only the sacrificial blood of Jesus that can take away our sins i:e it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins(Hebrews 10:4): yet Leviticus 16:21-30 says "the GOAT will carry on itself all the sins of Israelites to a remote place and the man shall release the goat in the wilderness......Then before the LORD, you will be clean from all your sins”. But Christian scholars usually proclaim that animal sacrifices could only “cover” sins; they could not take them away; but when Jesus shed his own blood, then the sins were taken away. But is there any indication whatsoever in the verse quoted above that the sins of Israelites were only covered and not completely taken away? God says: “Then before the LORD, you will be CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS”. To insist and proclaim that there is a difference between “take away of sins” and “clean from all sins” is only an attempt to resolve an obvious and irreconcilable contradiction between Hebrews 10:4andLeviticus 16:21-30. The only way to resolve this contradiction is when the term “take away of sins” in Hebrews 10:4implies complete removal of humanity sinful nature; and NOT achieving divine forgiveness for already committed sins. However, complete removal of humanity sinful nature by blood of Jesus is impossible as nobody can be completely free from committing minor sins; “If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us(1 John 1:”. Besides, if removal of humanity sinful nature is compulsorily required for salvation and the ONLY WAY to achieve this is by shedding of Jesus’ blood on the cross, then how did old Testament saints like Abraham, Moses, Ezekiel, Joshua, Jeremiah etc and their sincere followers managed to have eternal life? The blood of Jesus can never remove their sinful nature because these people have already lived and died before the alleged crucifixion. Again, their already committed sins have been forgiven through animal sacrifices in the book of Leviticus when God Almighty declare as follows; THEN BEFORE THE LORD, YOU WILL BE CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS (Leviticus 16:30). There is no any indication in this very verse that their sins is only temporarily erased and then would permanently taken away by blood of Jesus. Therefore, if some set of people among the children of Adam, who live and die before Jesus arrival, can attain salvation, righteousness and reconciliation back to God, then is there need again for just and merciful God to curse and condemn an innocent soul on the cross before another set of people among the children of the same Adam can attain similar triumph?
Again, Christians believe that divine forgiveness and remission of sins can ONLY be obtained by shedding of blood (Hebrews 9:22): yet in 2nd Chronicles 7:14, God Almighty says “If My people, who are called by My name will humble themselves, and pray and seek My face, and turn from their wicked ways, then I will hear from heaven, and I will FORGIVE THEIR SINS and will heal their land.”. Again in Isaiah 55:7,God Almighty declares; let the wicked forsake their ways and the unrighteous their thought. Let them turn to the LORD; He will have mercy on them, and to our God, for he will FREELY PARDON. Furthermore, in Ezekiel 33: 10-16,God says; “Son of man, say to the Israelites; this is what you are saying: our offenses and sins weigh us down, and we are wasting away because of them. How then can we live? Say to them: as surely as I live declares the sovereign Lord, I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from their ways and live. Turn! Turn from your evil ways! Why will you die, people of Israel? Therefore, son of man say to your people… if someone one who is wicked REPENTS, that person’s former wickedness will not bring condemnation… And if I say to the wicked person, you will surely die, but they then turn from their sins and do what is just and right…follow the decree that gives life, and do no evil--that person will surely live: they will not die. NONE OF THE SINS that person has committed will be remembered against them. They have done what is just and right; they will surely live”. You can see that God did not ask the wicked sinners to shed any blood before their sins can be forgiven in all these verses. What He actually wants from them is sincere repentance from their sinful ways. Christians generally insist that the absolute need for vicarious blood sacrifice is rooted in the Torah, and cite as proof Leviticus 17:11 which says: “For the life of the flesh is in the blood, and I have given it to you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls; for it is the blood that makes an atonement for the soul.” But does this verse clearly teach that blood is the ONLY means God has provided to make atonement? Certainly not! In the Torah, blood sacrifices were not the only path to atonement; there were other ways to achieve forgiveness. For example, INCENSE served to atone for the people in Numbers 16:46-47, and GIVING CHARITY is described in Exodus 30:15-16 and Numbers 31:50 as "MAKING ATONEMENT FOR YOUR SOUL"– the same expression used in Leviticus 17:11. In fact, King Solomon prophesied that the Jewish people would earn forgiveness for their sins in the land of their enemies by sincere repentance and prayer where they could not have access to blood atonement sacrifices; "If they RETURN TO YOU WITH ALL THEIR HEART AND WITH ALL THEIR SOUL in the land of their enemies who have taken them captive, and PRAY TO YOU TOWARD their LAND which You have given to their fathers, the CITY which You have chosen, and the HOUSE which I have built for Your name; then hear their prayer and their supplication in heaven Your dwelling place, and maintain their cause, and FORGIVE Your people who have sinned against You and ALL THEIR TRANSGRESSIONS which they have transgressed against You…” (I Kings 8:46-50). All these facts prove that Hebrew 9:22 is WRONG by asserting that without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins. Again, when Daniel advised the King Nebuchadnezzar on how he would atone for his sins and his iniquities, he did not ask the King to shed any blood. Read what he asked the King to do:"Therefore, O king, let my counsel be acceptable unto you, and break off your sins by PRACTICING RIGHTEOUSNESS, and your iniquities by SHOWING MERCY TO THE POOR(Daniel 4:27)". Hence, if; 1.animal sacrifice is sufficient to atone for our sins 2.shedding of blood is not the only way to earn divine forgiveness and 3. there is no way forJesus blood to remove the sinful nature of the past and present generations, then there is no need for Jesus to die on the cross. And if there is no need for Jesus to die on the cross, then he must have escaped death on the cross as stated clearly in Qur'an 4:157-158.

Christians believe that omnipotent God of love and mercy must curse and condemn His only beloved and innocent son on the cross of Calvary before they can secure eternal life:yet condemnation of righteous and innocent person is strictly forbidden in the Bible (Matthew12:7,proverb17:15,exodus23:7,psalm34:22).The doctrine of an only beloved and innocent son who was under the CURSE (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) and condemnation of His own merciful and omnipotent Father is self contradictory and repugnant to human mind. Before the advent of Christianity, nobody would believe that such a doctrine can even exist. It is totally foreign and contradictory to our logical reasoning for God of love, mercy and justice to curse an innocent and righteous soul for any reason whatsoever. This is the reason why the message of atonement through Jesus crucifixion was a stumbling block to the Jews and foolishness to the gentiles during the lifetime of Jesus’ apostles ( 1st Corinthians 1:23). But Paul, being very cunning, quickly fabricated some verses to solve this problem of logical contradiction inherent in this very doctrine. One of these verses is as follows: The natural man does not receive the things of the spirit, for they are foolishness to him; he cannot understand them because they are spiritually discerned ( 1st Corinthians 2:14). This is the reason why many Christians see no logical problem again with the idea of “an innocent and beloved son who was under the curse and condemnation of his own merciful Father”. But why would God of reason and rationality (Isaiah 1:18) ask a natural man to believe and accept a true spiritual doctrine that cannot be understood and completely foolish to his logical reasoning especially when that reasoning is the ONLY INSTRUMENT at his disposal to recognize that true spirituality in the midst of many fake spiritualities? If there is only one spirituality in the entire world of human being, then Paul may be right in his claim. But there are many spiritualities like Christianity, Islam, Hinduism, Buddhism, Judaism, Confucianism, Jainism, Zoroastrianism, Baha’ism, Taoism and Sikhism. Since each of these spiritualities is claiming to be on the right path, it is now left for any natural man to use the only instrument (his logical reasoning) given to him by God to recognize the true spirituality in the midst of many fake spiritualities. This is exactly the reason why God must design the true spirituality in such a way that all its basic and fundamental doctrine is not in conflict with the basic logical reasoning He bestowed upon a natural man. A fundamental true spiritual doctrine may support or be neutral to basic logical reasoning bestowed upon natural man, but they will never in conflict with each other. How could true spirituality designed by God and basic logical reasoning originated from the same God be in conflict with each other? Have you now seen how Paul gets it wrong by asserting that “the natural man does not receive the things of the spirit, for they are foolishness to him”? Is true spirituality not meant to be accepted and embraced by natural man? Now that it is foolishness to him; how is he going to accept and embrace it? To see further that Paul is wrong in his claim; suppose you are invited by a friend to accept a faith that is very rich in spirituality. But among the fundamental doctrine you must embrace without question is that you have to believe that God MUST commit an act of lying in order to achieve a particular greater purpose(May He be Exalted).Now answer the following questions;1. Would you just accept such faith because of its spiritual richness or reject it because of its foolishness to your logical reasoning? 2. Would you not ask about the actual connections that exist between that greater purpose and the act of lying that must be committed by God before the purpose can be achieved? 3. Would you not ask why All- knowing and Omnipotent God decided, at first instance, to give preference for such irrational way of lying to achieve a particular greater purpose over many rational ways He can design and create from His infinite knowledge and unlimited power to achieve that greater purpose? 4. Would you just accept that the way of such a lying God is higher and complex than your own way of doing things? Now ponder over these four questions cited above and then tell me the difference between this imaginary faith which proclaim that God MUST commit an act of lying to achieve a particular greater purpose and the Christian faith which also proclaim that God MUST curse (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) and condemn an innocent and righteous soul on the cross of Calvary to achieve a particular greater purpose-like solving the problem of sin with humanity or rescuing the humanity from the grip of Satan. Therefore, if you reject this imaginary faith because of its foolishness to your logical reasoning, then you must also reject Christianity since the two faiths are telling us the exact opposite of what we naturally know about God through our logical reasoning. As God is naturally known to always TELL THE TRUTH and never to commit an act of lying for any greater purpose; He is also naturally known to always BLESS THE INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL and never to curse the same soul for any greater purpose. It is now clear that even if there are some spiritual benefits in the inner rooms of a true faith, there is still need for the logical reasoning to take us to the main door of those inner rooms at first encounter. But as we have pointed above, the doctrine of a merciful, omnipotent and All-knowing God who cursed and condemned his only beloved and innocent son on the cross of Calvary for a particular greater purpose is totally in conflict with what we know naturally about God through our logical reasoning; yet this is one of the fundamental doctrine you must embrace wholeheartedly for you to become a serious and devoted Christian. Therefore, there is need for God to send another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an was revealed to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an 4:157-158). This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked for the cup of suffering and death to be taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44. Honestly, the fact that the Holy Qur’an is the only religious book on earth that remove this negative and bad impression about God from the minds of the general humanity is a very great indicator that the book could never have come from no other person except God Himself.

Just one verse from Jesus is enough to destroy all your baseless assertion.Jesus said; I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (MATTHEW 15:24). If the command of not preaching to the gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled in accordance with the divine plan,then Jesus statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES. stylishly, you divert our attention from the main topicl of the post.This question still remain unanswered: WHY WOULD GOD ALLOW A LIAR TO IMPERSONATE HIM FOR GOOD 23 YEARS AND STILL ALLOW THE WORD OF SUCH IMPERSONATOR TO BE PROTECTED FROM DESTRUCTION SINCE 1430 YEARS AGO TILL TODAY? YET HE DID NOT EVEN ALLOW HANANIAH TO LIVE FOR JUST ONE YEAR(Jeremiah 28:1-17).We have already read that a liar can impersonate Jesus( Matthew 24:4-5,23-24).Again we have read how God dealt with Hananiah, the impersonator of God. Therefore, relying on these two facts, we can say conveniently that; whenever there is contradiction between the word of Jesus in the Bible and word which appear to be coming directly from God's mouth,then it is better to give preference for the words that appear to be coming directly from God's mouth over the words reported to have said by Jesus. The reason is that Jesus can be impersonated (Matthew 24:4-5,24) while God can not be impersonated (Jeremiah 28:1-17,Psalm 101:7) for long period of time. Therefore when a verse which appear to be coming directly from God's mouth says; Qur'an is from God (Qur'an 2:40-41) and the same Qur'an says Jesus was sent only to the Israelites (Qur'an 61:6, 3:49) and Jesus himself also testified to this fact in Matthew 15:24:Is not better to reject supposed word of jesus in Matthew 28:19 and similar verses like it especially when those words contradicts the original words first uttered by the same Jesus

Question one: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did peter tell Cornelius and his households that it is still unlawful for the Jews to visit the gentiles (Acts 10:28), many years after Jesus’ ascension to heaven? Was peter not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations?
Question two: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did other apostles have to criticize Peter and become astonished when they heard that some Gentiles had received the word of God through the hand of Peter (Acts 11: 1-3, 18)? This incident took place many years after Jesus’ departure.
Question three: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did Peter have to justify his preaching to those gentiles using his vision to convince the other apostles instead of simply reminding them about the new command of preaching to all the nations (Acts 11: 4-18)?
Question four: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did James still address his epistle to twelve tribes of Israel only i:e the Jews, and not to the gentiles (James 1:1)?
Question five: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did Peter also address his epistle only to the exiles of dispersion (i.e. the Jews) scattered throughout certain provinces and not to the gentiles (1 Peter 1:1).
Question six: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why would these apostles be judging only the twelve tribes of Israel in the new world and not judging the Gentiles(Matthew19:28)?
Question seven: if the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Peter and his associates still agree to limit their ministry to the people of circumcision i.e. the Jews; leaving the work of Christianizing the gentiles only to Paul and his followers (Galatians 2:7-9, Acts 15:2, 4, 12, Acts 21:17-19)?
Question eight: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the gospel to all nations of the world, why was it that, after the book of Acts, all the letters specifically addressed to the gentiles were written by Paul and not by the original apostles of Jesus (Romans 1:1, 1stCorinthians 1:1, 2nd Corinthians 1:1, Galatians 1:1, Ephesians 1:1, Philippians 1:1, Colossians 1:1, etc.).
Question nine: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Paul repeatedly speak as if he was the only one authorized to preach the Gospel to the gentiles(Galatians 2:8, Romans 15:15-18, Romans 11:13, 1st Timothy 2:7, Acts 9:15, 2nd Timothy 1:11, Ephesians 3:.
Question ten: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew 28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did disciples who were under the authority of the apostles still preach the gospel to none except the Jews even after the persecution that followed the killing of Stephen(Acts 11:19)? Of course, the killing of Stephen took place after Jesus ascension to heaven (Acts 7: 55-58).
All the questions asked above are enough to prove that Jesus and his apostles were only commanded to preach to the Jews (i:e the Israelites) and the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world in Matthew 28:19 is a forgery. After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek-speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts. All the incidents mentioned in the questions asked above took place after Jesus has ascended to heaven. They all point to the fact that the apostles knew nothing about the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world in Matthew 28:19. The preaching of Peter to Cornelius and his households was an exception and one-time event. Peter’s initial response to those gentiles was rejection (Acts 10:25-28). We have no record that Peter evangelized another gentile. One incident does not constitute a ministry. In the book of Acts, we read plainly of Paul’s travels through Cyprus, Asia Minor, Greece and Italy. But the movements of the original apostles, who walked, talked, prayed, ate and slept with Jesus are nowhere to be found. When Paul and his followers preached the gospel at Rome, where were Peter and other apostles? This proves beyond any reasonable doubt that Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it; where the original apostles were supposedly commanded by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world are not authentic but later inserted into the text of the New Testament. In fact, if it was already in the divine plan that ‘the command of not preaching to the gentiles’ in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations as spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. Besides, the fact that Jesus later answered that Canaanite woman(Matthew 15:28) help us to know that there was no any strong reason preventing Jesus from attending to her in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus and his apostles were sent only to the Israelites.(i:e the Jews).The spreading of Christianity throughout the world of Gentiles was majorly due to the activities of Paul and his followers (Galatians 2:7-9, Romans 15:16, Ephesians 3:1-, and not by the chosen apostles of Jesus who spent most of their life time in Jerusalem. This is the reason why many unbiased Bible scholars confessed that the real founder of Christianity is Paul. Therefore, it is no longer a great surprise when we read in the Bible that the word “Christian” was first invented in Antioch by Paul and his associates (Acts 11:26) and not in Jerusalem by the original Jesus’ apostles

If the Christians insist that the original author of Qur’an is not God, then they must believe its author to be a great liar and impersonator who spoke in the name and personality of God. The reason is that Qur’an contains many verses which appear to be coming directly from God’s mouth. Example of such verses are; “O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone(Qur’an 2:40-41)”. And that was Our proof which We gave to Abraham against his people. We raise whom We will in degrees. Certainly your Lord is All-Wise, All-Knowing. And We bestowed upon him Isaac and Jacob, each of them We guided. And before him We guided Noah, and among his progeny David, Solomon, Job, Joseph, Moses and Aaron. Thus do We reward the good doers. And Zachariah, and John and Jesus and Elias, all in the ranks of the righteous. And Ishmael and Elisha, and Jonah and Lot; each one of them We preferred above the nations. And also some of their fathers, and their progeny and their brethren, We chose them, and We guided them to a straight path. This is the guidance of God with which He guides whomsoever He wills of His servants. But if they had joined in worship others with God, all their deeds would have been of no benefit to them. They are whom We gave the book, and authority and prophet hood…They are those whom God had guided. So follow their guidance (Qur’an 6:84-90). You can see that the first person pronouns like “I”, “My”, “Me”, “Our” and “We” in these verses can never be referred to any other person except God. Therefore, anybody who denies the Qur’an as the word of God must compulsorily believe its author to be a great impersonator of God. Yet any sane person that just makes up his mind to impersonate God and deliberately lie against Him must have been enticed and misled by Satan? But how could Satan have enticed and misled a person to guide the idol-worshippers in the ancient Mecca to the idea of believing in one God and all biblical prophets including Jesus Christ? Do you think God of truth and wisdom would allow any deliberate liar to impersonate Him and then also allow such impersonator to praise all the Biblical prophets in the way the author of Qur’an has done? Again, how could God have left such a great liar and impersonator to survive for good twenty-three years and also allow his book to be protected from destruction since one thousand four hundred and thirty years ago till today? The reason why God permit the other religions like Buddhism, Taoism, Confucianism etc and their scriptures to exist is because their founders only stood out as spiritual teachers. They never claim that their scriptures came from God of Israel. Their scriptures do not contain words which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD’S MOUTH OF ISRAEL. But Qur’an is totally different. Qur’an contains many verses which appear to be coming directly from God’s mouth of Israel. Examples are quoted above. So Qur’an is unique in its claim as being the word of God. Therefore, to believe that Qur’an is not authored by God create more problems for the Christians than it really solves! They have to explain why God would allow a liar to impersonate him for good 23 years and also allow his book to be protected from destruction since 1430 years ago till today. Yet, God did not allow Hananiah, who also lied against Him, to even live for just a year (Jeremiah 28:1-17). If God Almighty could allow any deliberate liar to impersonate Him perfectly and also allow the word of such impersonator to be protected from destruction since 1,430 years ago till today, then on what basis could any rational person distinguish such fake word of God from true word of God? Obviously, there would be no any difference between the two. God may allow anybody to write or speak about Him as you may also allow your friend to write or speak about you. But if you as a truthful person would never allow your friend- talk less of your enemy- to impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people, then why do you think the God of truth and wisdom would allow any deliberate liar to impersonate Him and also allow such a great impersonator to praise His biblical prophets especially when God declare as follows; How can I let myself be defamed? I will not yield My glory to another (Isaiah 48:11). What kind of defamation is greater than God to allow a deliberate liar to impersonate Him? Has God not yielded His glory to another if He allowed a deliberate liar to impersonate Him and also allow such impersonator to praise all the Biblical prophets in the way the author of Quran has done and then still allow the word of such impersonator to be safe-guarded from destruction as prophesied in Qur’an 15:9 as follows: Surely, We have revealed the reminder and We will most surely be its guardian. In fact, God deliberately spare the life of His prophet till concluding verse of his mission was revealed to him where God Almighty declare as follows: This day, I have perfected your religion for you, and I have completed My favor upon you, and I have chosen for you Islam as your religion(Qur’an 5:3). If the prophet was a great impersonator and great fabricator against God, then why would God have to wait for 23 years till this concluding verse of his mission was fabricated in His name? If God would allow a liar to impersonate Him, then He should have informed us in the previous scriptures before the Qur’an just like Jesus informed us in Matthew 24:4-5, 23-24 that many shall come in his name and shall deceive many. Therefore a liar can impersonate Jesus or any other prophet of God. But a liar cannot impersonate God for long period of time and still remain alive (Jeremiah 28:1-17, Psalm 101:7).
Another relevant verses in the Bible to this topic of God's impersonation is Deuteronomy 18:18-22 where God declare that the only condition to reject a prophet who speaks in God's name is when all the predictions and prophecies he made in the name of God do not come to pass or come true. But Qur'an still pass this test. One of the great prophecy is that Qur'an would be protected from destruction (Qur'an 15:9). Another great prophecy is that prophet Muhammad (pbuh) would be highly famous and frequently mentioned throughout the world(Qur'an 94:4). Another prophecy is that Qur'an is made easy for memorization(Qur'an 54:17,22).All these prophecies are known to be true.

Christians believe that God should only be worshipped internally with spirit and heart; In other word, there is no need for any ceremonial act of worship like standing, bowing and prostration as observed in Muslim act of prayer: Yet the divine mode of worship that God has chosen for the Israelites during and after the time of Moses is as follows: And Ezra opened the book in the sight of all the people, for he was standing above all the people; and when he opened it, all the people stood up. And the Ezra blessed the LORD, the great God. Then all the people answer Amen, Amen! while lifting up their hands. And they BOWED THEIR HEADS and worshipped the LORD with their FACES TO THE GROUND(Nehemiah 8:4-6). If God should only be worship in spirit with our heart and not with body and mind as believed by the Christians, then why did God establish such a ceremonial and physical act of worship for the Israelites as shown above? In fact, towards the end of the world when almost all the people have accepted Islam, God prophesied as follows: For then I will restore to all the people a pure language; that they may all call upon the name of the Lord in unison and serve Him shoulder to shoulder (Zephaniah 3:9). This verse can only be referring to the Muslims who worship God in the mosque shoulder to shoulder with the same pure Arabic language throughout the world.

When Jesus was praying to the Father, he said “And this is eternal life, that they may know You, THE ONLY TRUE GOD, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent (John 17:3). Therefore, if the Father is the only true God according to Jesus Christ, then how could Jesus be God or part of Triune God? Similarly in John 20:17, Jesus was reported to have said “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, and to MY GOD and your God”. If Jesus is God according to the Christians, then can God have another God? Also Luke 6:12 recorded that Jesus went out to the mountainside to pray, and continued all night in PRAYER TO GOD. If Jesus is God, who was he praying to? Was he praying to himself or was God praying to God? Similarly, in John 14:28, Jesus said: “My Father is GREATER THAN I”. If Jesus is God, why is he having someone greater than him? Can anybody be greater than God? Again in Mark 10:18, Jesus said to one man who called him good teacher as follows: “why do you call me good? NO ONE IS GOOD BUT ONE, THAT IS GOD”. If Jesus is God, why did he reject being called “good” and submit that all goodness belongs only to God? Furthermore, in John 14:1, Jesus said “let not your heart be troubled: you believe in God, believe also in me”. If Jesus is God, why did he clearly distinguish himself from God. Finally in Matthew 24:36, Jesus said; “But of that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the son, but ONLY THEFATHER”. If Jesus is God, why did he confess his ignorance about the Day of Judgment and then submit that the knowledge of that day belongs only to God? Can God be ignorant of anything? What else do we want Jesus to say before we can believe that he is not God? But sadly enough, no matter how strong the Biblical evidence you may put forward for the Christians to disprove the deity of Jesus Christ and hence the doctrine of Trinity, they always end up the arguments by saying; “you don’t have the holy spirit”. But, according to what Christians believe, was it not the same Holy Spirit that inspired the authors of the Bible to write down all the verses cited above? Are the Christians going to neglect all these clear-cut verses and continue to proclaim that Jesus is God? Similarly Qur’an 5:75 says as follows: Christ the son of Mary was no more than a messenger of God; many were the messengers that passed away before him. His mother was a woman of truth. They both used to eat food (as any other human being). Look how We make the signs clear to them, yet see how they are deluded away (from the truth)!

Jesus said " hear o Israel, the Lord our God is ONE (Mark12:29)” .He did not say three in one or one in three. If God is triune in nature, Moses and all the prophets of God before Jesus Christ would have made this known to the children of Israel and Deuteronomy 6:4should have read: “Hear O Israel; The Lord our God is three in one or one in three” instead of “Hear O Israel: The Lord our God is one”. In fact, the word “Trinity” is nowhere to be found if you check the Bible from Genesis to Revelation. The only verse in the New Testament (1 John 5:7) which seems to point to trinity is now ONLY found in King James Version of the Bible. It has been removed from ALL the modern versions of the Bible (like NIV, RSV etc) after its discovery as being forgery. Another verse often used by Christians to defend the doctrine of trinity is Matthew 28:19 where Jesus was reported to have commanded the apostles as follows ; “Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy spirit.” But did Jesus’ apostles really act on this command of baptizing with Trinitarian formula? See the following verses:
Acts 2:38- Then peter said to them, repent, and let everyone of you be baptized in the NAME OF JESUS Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of Holy Spirit.
Acts 8:16- For as yet He had fallen upon none of them. They had only been baptized in the NAME OF JESUS.
Acts 10:48- So peter ordered them to be baptized in the NAME OF JESUS the Messiah. Then they asked him to stay there for three days.
If “Matthew 28:19” is true and Jesus did command his apostles to baptize in the name of the Father, the son and Holy Spirit, then why would apostles go against this command and baptize only in Jesus name? Besides, since John 17:3, Luke 6:12, John 20:17, Mark 13:32, John 14:28, Mark 10:18, John 14:1, Matthew 24:36, John 8:40 etc has already established that Jesus is not God, there is no way for the doctrine of trinity ( which assert that Jesus is part of Triune God) to stand on its feet. Qur’an 5:73-74 also admonish the Trinitarian Christians as follows; Surely, blasphemers are those who said: God is one of the three in a Trinity; for there is no god except one God. And if they cease not from what they say, verily a painful torment will befall the blasphemers among them. Will they not repent to God and ask His forgiveness? For God is Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful.
In fact, it is a food for thought for a sincere Christian that Qur’an is the only well known religious book that condemns this false doctrine of Trinity as far back as sixth century. The forgery behind 1st John 5:7 (the verse often used to support Trinity) is only recently declare to the general public. So who could have been the original author of this Qur’an that rejects the doctrine of Trinity since more than one thousand years ago? If the Christians insist that the very author of this book is not God, then they must believe its author to be a great liar and impersonator who spoke in the name and personality of God. The reason is that Qur’an contains many verses which appear to be coming directly from God’s mouth. Example of such verses are; “O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone(Qur’an 2:40-41). As you can see from these verses; anybody who denies the Qur’an as the word of God must compulsorily believe its author to be a great impersonator of God. Yet any sane person that just makes up his mind to impersonate God and deliberately lie against Him must have been enticed and misled by Satan? But how could Satan have enticed and misled a person to negate such a serious false doctrine like Trinity? How could Satan have enticed and misled a person to guide the idol-worshippers in the ancient Mecca to the idea of believing in one God and all biblical prophets including Jesus Christ? Again, how could God have left such a great liar and impersonator to survive for good twenty-three years and also allow his book to be protected from destruction since one thousand four hundred and thirty years ago till today? Yet God did not even allow Hananiah, the liar against Him, to survive for just one year (Jeremiah 28:1-17). The reason why God permit the other religions like Buddhism, Taoism, Confucianism etc and their scriptures to exist is because their founders stood out only as spiritual teachers. Their scriptures do not contain words which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD'S MOUTH OF ISRAEL. But Qur'an is totally different. It contains thousands of verses which appeared to be coming directly from God's mouth of Israel. An example is quoted above. So Qur'an is unique in its claim. Therefore, to believe that Qur’an is not authored by God create more problems for the Christians than it really solves! They have to explain why God would allow a liar to impersonate him for good 23 years and also allow his book to be protected from destruction since 1430 years ago till today. Yet he did not allow Hananiah ,who also impersonate God, to even live for a year(Jeremiah 28:1-17) . Acceptance of Islam does not implies rejection of Jesus Christ:despite the fact that Jesus said;I was not sent except to the lost sheep of the house of Israel(Matthew 15:24) and God said: We have not sent you (O Muhammad-pbuh) except as a mercy to the whole world(Qur'an 21:107). If this statement actually came from God's mouth;what evidence do you have to defend yourself against Him on the day of Judgement?

Several years after Jesus’ departure from the earth, a man known as Paul (also called Saul of Tarsus) who happened to be a great persecutor of Jesus’ disciples was walking with his two companions on a road outside Damascus to carry out more of his evil mission. In this spiritual state, Paul then saw a great light falling from heaven and heard a voice which said to him; ‘I am Jesus whom you are persecuting”. He believed this great light as true Jesus Christ (Acts 22:6-9). After some days, Paul started to be receiving some kind of special revelation (Galatians 1:12) from this great light that portrayed himself as Jesus Christ. Yet before his departure, Jesus forewarned the apostles as follows: Take heed that no man deceive you. For many shall come in my name, saying; I am the Christ; and shall deceive many (Matthew 24:4-5)……. “Then if anyone says here is Christ or there, DO NOT BELIEVE IT. For false Christs and false prophets will appear and perform great signs and wonders to deceive, if possible, even the elect. See, I have told you ahead of time. So if anyone tells you; Christ is out in the wilderness, do not go out; or Christ is in the inner rooms, DO NOT BELIEVE IT. For as lightning that comes from the east is visible even in the west, so will be the coming of the son of Man. Wherever there is a carcass, then the vultures will gather(Matthew 24:23-28)”. In these verses, we are commanded by Jesus not to believe any account of a person who claims to have seen Jesus in a private manner prior to his universally-visible appearance. Jesus is telling us that his returning to earth again from heaven will be clear and unmistakable to everyone. Every eye from every point “east and west” will see him. The people would gather to see Jesus coming from the heaven just like vultures gather over the carcass. Hence, any private appearances of Jesus before this public appearance should be discarded. Therefore, relying on this fact, if Jesus’ private appearance to Paul in form of “a great light falling from heaven” would be an exception to this great warning of not believing in private appearances of Christ, then Jesus should have foretold this exceptional event to the original apostles before he ascended to heaven. But Jesus did not foretell anything like that. Instead of pre-informing the original apostles that he would privately appear to someone like “LIGHTNING FROM HEAVEN” before his universally-visible appearance to all, Jesus only informed them as follows; “I saw Satan falling like LIGHTNING FROM HEAVEN (Luke10:18)”. See how all evidence is working seriously against Paul! But is it really reasonable to believe that it was Satan, and not Jesus, that revealed himself to Paul in form of lightning from heaven? Yes, it is not only reasonable but also probable because as at that time Paul was yet to repent from all the evil crimes he has committed against the true followers of Christ (Acts 9:1, 26:11). In fact, his spiritual condition was so bad (1st Timothy 1:13) for anyone to be sure that he possessed nothing of divine power and divine wisdom that could have protected him from such satanic delusion. If the great light that appear to Paul was true Jesus Christ, then one would expect Jesus to command him to repent immediately and secretly meet the original apostles of Jesus staying at Jerusalem. On the contrary, Paul even continued to boast and proclaimed that the original apostles of Jesus imparted nothing to him (Galatians 2:6). So Paul relied heavily on the special revelation he received from his personal Jesus (Galatians 1:12). However, the fact that Paul contradicts true Jesus on many important issues is even enough to prove that the revelation he claimed to receive was from fake Jesus Christ. For example, God and Jesus forbid the believers from eating spiritually unclean foods and meat sacrificed to idols (Ezekiel 22:26, Revelation 2:14) but Paul wrote that there is nothing wrong in eating such things as long as you do not eat them in the presence of a weak believer (1st Corinthians 8:8-10, Colossians 2:16). Again, Jesus’ statement in Matthew 24:24 and Matthew 7:21-23 implies that; performing great signs and wonders in Jesus’ name are the things that would accompany the false Christs and the false prophets. Yet Paul declare that performing great signs and wonders in Jesus’ name are the things that even commissioned him as true apostle of Jesus Christ (2nd Corinthians 12:12, Romans 15:19). Furthermore, Jesus said: Do NOT THINK I CAME TO DESTROY THE LAW or the (way of the) PROPHETS. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the LAW till ALL IS FULFILLED (Matthew 5:17-18). Yet Paul declares as follows: “Christ is the end of the Law (Romans 10:4). But BEFORE faith came, we were KEPT UNDER GUARD BY THE LAW, kept for the faith which after-ward would be revealed. Therefore, THE LAW WAS OUR TUTOR to bring us to Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But AFTER faith has come, WE ARE NO LONGER UNDER A TUTOR (Galatians 3:23-25). Having ABOLISHED in his flesh, the ENMITY, THAT IS, THE LAW OF COMMANDMENTS contained in the ordinances (Ephesians 2:15)”. See how Paul flatly opposed Jesus; Jesus said he came NOT TO DESTROY BUT TO FULFILL the law but Paul insists that Christ is the end of the Law and that the true followers of Christ are no longer under the law because the law of commandments has been ABOLISHED in the flesh of crucified Jesus. However, the Christian Scholars try to resolve this obvious contradiction by saying that Jesus did not destroy the law but fulfilled the law by DYING ON THE CROSS: which implies that the law was NOT just SIMPLY DESTROYED but it was ULTIMATELY DESTROYED (i:e later abolished ) due to its FULFILMENT on the cross. In other word, the Law was not simply abolished by the coming of Christ but it was eventually abolished because of its fulfillment by the crucifixion of Christ. In this way, they thought that there is no contradiction again between the word of Jesus and the word of Paul. But if this scholarly interpretation of fulfilling and then abolishing the law on the cross is true, then Christians do not have to follow any Law again (whether ceremonial law or moral law) since Jesus’ statement in Matthew 5:18 ends with “TILL ALL THE LAW IS FULFILLED". Jesus did NOT say “till ceremonial law is fulfilled”; he said “till all the law is fulfilled”. Therefore, according to this interpretation, various laws like; thou shall not steal; thou shall not commit adultery, thou shall not lie etc have been fulfilled and abolished on the cross. Consequently, if the Christians are free to break various Old Testament laws about crime and punishment, diet, circumcisions, sacrifices, Sabbath observance, ritual cleanliness etc because of their fulfillment on the cross, they should also be free to commit theft, adultery, lying and so on since Jesus did not say; till ceremonial Law is fulfilled. But he said; “till all the law is fulfilled”. Are the Christians going to agree with this interpretation? Certainly not! This proves that contradiction between Paul and Jesus on the issue of keeping the law can never be resolved. Furthermore, if this scholarly interpretation of fulfilling and then abolishing the law on the cross is true, why did Jesus have to say again in the next verse (Matthew 5:19) as follows: WHOEVER THEREFORE BREAKS ONE OF THE LEAST OF THESE COMMANDMENTS, AND TEACHES MEN SO, shall be called LEAST in the kingdom of heaven. But whoever DOES AND TEACHES THEM, he shall be called GREAT in the kingdom of heaven”. See how the phrase “WHOEVER THEREFORE" connects this verse to those before it; which implies that the law which Jesus was talking about in Matthew 5:17-18 is still valid and never abolished on the cross. But given that Old Testament Law is never abolished on the cross, is it now compulsory for the gentile Christians to abide by it? Certainly not! This is because Jesus and his Apostles were only sent to the Israelites (Matthew 10:5-6, 15:24, 19:28, Acts 10:28, 11:19, James 1:1, Galatians 2:7-9, 1st Peter 1:1) Again, despite the fact that circumcision is an everlasting covenant of God for the Jews i:e the Israelites (Genesis 17:9-14) and Jesus himself was also circumcised (Luke 2:21); yet Paul went ahead to write as follows: “Indeed, I Paul say to you that if you become circumcised, Christ will profit you nothing. And I testify again to EVERY MAN who become circumcised that he is a debtor to keep the whole law. You have become estranged (i.e. cut off ) from Christ, you who attempt to be justified by the law; you have fallen from grace(Galatians 5:2-4)”. The term “EVERY MAN” used by Paul in the verse quoted above is indisputable evidence that he condemned the act of circumcision for both Jews and Gentiles. If this is not the case, then the Jewish believers in the Jerusalem would not bound themselves with oath that they will never eat nor drink until they kill Paul (Acts 23:12-14). In fact, this single fact alone that Paul condemn the act of circumcision, an EVERLASTING covenant of God, is another prove that “the great light from heaven” that appeared to Paul on his road to Damascus was a false Christ as already foretold by Jesus Christ during his earthly ministry. Furthermore, Bible recorded that the number of Jesus apostles was somehow fixed to be twelve (Matthew 10:2-7, 19:28, Revelation 21:14). Therefore, when Judas Iscariot fell out and there was need for replacement and restoration of original twelve, then one would expect the divine plan to unfold in such a way that original apostles would be pre-informed by Jesus to exercise patience and wait till Paul repents. But instead of waiting for Paul, Matthias was chosen to replace Judas under the guidance of Holy Spirit (Acts 1:20-26). This proves again that apostleship of Paul was not even recognized in heaven. Yet Paul repeatedly called himself an apostle of true Jesus Christ at the beginning of most of his letters. The most astonishing part of Paul and his assertion of being among the apostle of Christ is that, unlike other writers, he almost never quotes Jesus in any of his letters. Yet this is expected from Paul if truly the light he saw falling from heaven was true Jesus Christ.
Paul was also caught lying red handed; he was accused of teaching all the Jews among the Gentiles to forsake circumcision and the Law of Moses (Acts 21:18-31). But instead of proving this accusation to be true or false when the King Agrippa asked him about that accusation, Paul now claimed that he was being accused for the hope of the promise made by God i.e. the resurrection of the dead (Acts 26:1- and for the fact that he advised people to repent and turn to God (Acts 26:19-21). There is nothing like “circumcision and the law of Moses” in the answers presented by Paul to the King. In fact, Paul himself admitted to be a liar when he said: “For if the truth of God has increased through MY LIE to His glory, why am I also still judged as a sinner (Romans 3:7)”. Yet the same Paul wrote almost half of the books found in the New Testament. See the foundation upon which the edifice of Christianity is erected! There is no any essential difference between Paul and Joseph Smith, the founder of Mormonism. Both claimed to have seen Jesus in a private manner AFTER Jesus'ascension to heaven . However, the two of them should be discarded based on Matthew 24: 23-28, where Jesus warned us that we should not believe in any one that claim to have seen Jesus in a private manner before his universally visible appearance to all. Therefore, the Christians have no any right to accept Paul and reject Joseph Smith of Mormonism. The two of them should be rejected based on Matthew 24:4-5, 23-28.

You can call me satanist or anything you want. But sooner or later, all of us will leave this world for the hereafter where the real follower of Satan will be revealed to every one. The true religious faith should not be based on emotions and subjective feelings. It should be based on evidence and facts. You answer none of those of ten questions. Yet you believed I was causing confusion .

There is no any religious scripture that many people have memorized from beginning to the end except the Qur'an. This is a well-known fact even among the non Muslims living in Islamic countries . In fact, if all the books and all the electronic computers in the universe were to be destroyed completely, it is only the Qur'an that can be recovered word for word. This miracle of memorizing the Qur'an is foretold in the Qur'an many times in a repeated manner where God Almighty declare as follows: INDEED, WE HAVE MADE QUR'AN EASY TO REMEMBER; IS THERE ANYONE WHO WILL TAKE IT TO HEART ? (Qur'an 54:17, 22, 32, 40). Of course, this prophecy and assurance is beyond the imagination and capability of any human being. The fulfilment of this prophecy is even enough to prove that the Qur'an is a divine word of God. Again, see how the word "Qur'an" is mentioned in the Qur'an. This is not true with any other religious scripture. For example, the word "Bible" cannot be found inside the Bible. This simply implies that the selection and collation of all the books in the Bible is not something commissioned by God Almighty. You cannot find a single verse in the Bible that unite all the books in the Bible together as Bible talk less of a verse coming directly from God's mouth that would declare the WHOLE of the Bible as divine word of God. Yet the presence of such a verse in the Bible is important and necessary because Bible is not a single book like Qur'an. It is a collection of books written by different author at different time. Therefore, it is either each book in the Bible contains its own evidence of its divine origin or there is a VERSE uniting all the books together as Bible and then declaring such entire Bible as the word of God. In other word, the word "Bible" should be present in the Bible. Not only that; there should be another VERSE that would then declare such ENTIRE BIBLE as something commissioned by God. But this is not so. In Qur'an 20:2-3, God says: WE HAVE NOT SENT DOWN QUR'AN TO YOU( O MUHAMMAD-PBUH) TO CAUSE YOU DISTRESS .BUT ONLY AS A REMINDER TO THOSE WHO FEAR GOD. A REVELATION FROM HIM WHO CREATED THE EARTH AND THE HIGH HEAVEN

You answer none of the questions cited above. You just believe that Jesus came to die for our sins: yet Deuteronomy
24:16,Ezekiel 18:20-22, Jeremiah 31:30,2nd Chronicles 25:4, 2nd Kings 14:6
and Psalms 49:7 established that THE PERSON THAT COMMITS SIN IS THE ONE WHO
WILL DIE. The doctrine which says “an innocent person must be killed in
order to earn forgiveness for those who are guilty” is not consistent with
what the Bible teaches. After the sin of the Golden Calf, God expressed His
intention to destroy the Jewish people. Moses intercedes, and asked God to
blot him out of His book (i:e to condemn him) as a means of atonement for
the sins committed by his followers. But God rejected his request and told
him that “Whoever has sinned against Me, him will I blot out of My book!”
(Exodus 32:30-33). If Jesus was truly destined to suffer and die for the
sins of all humanity, then God should have told Moses plainly that his
offer of atonement was rejected because Jesus had taken upon himself this
great task of atoning for the sins of all the generations and that if the
followers of Moses desire forgiveness for their sins, they should believe
in the future Crucifixion of Jesus. But nothing of such was recorded. On
the contrary, the request made by Moses was rejected on the basis that WHOEVER
HAS SINNED AGAINST GOD, him WILL GOD PUNISH, NOT THE INNOCENT. Furthermore, Luke
5:32 and Mark 2:17recorded a verse where Jesus said; “I have not come to
call the righteous BUT SINNERS TO REPENTANCE”. If Jesus has actually come
to die for the sinners, he would have mentioned it in this verse since he
was talking about the purpose of his coming WITH RESPECT TO THE SINNERS. Moreover,
if this baptism of repentance, for which Jesus came to invite the sinners
to observe, is sufficient to atone and wipe away our sins as stated clearly
in Acts 2:38, 3:19,Mark 1:4, Isaiah 55:6-7 and Ezekiel 33:10-20, then is
there any need again for atonement of sins through Jesus crucifixion? The
original Jesus’ disciples, before Paul came into scene, were only commanded
to warn the people with this message; Repent, for the kingdom of heaven is
at hand (Matthew 10:5-7, Mark 1:14, 15). There was no any reference of sin
atonement through Jesus crucifixion in their preaching. In fact , when
Peter was addressing the congregation of Israelites after Jesus departure,
he said to them as follows: Repent, and let everyone of you be baptized in
the name of Christ for the REMISSION OF SINS; and you shall receive the
gift of holy spirit.(Acts 2:38). You can see that Peter and the other
apostles only asked the Israelites to remit their sins by observing the baptism
of repentance. Peter did not mention remission of sins through Jesus
crucifixion in this long discussion he had with the children of Israel.
Even logically, this very doctrine cannot be true because telling the
believers that they will no longer be held responsible for all their sins
since one innocent man had already been held responsible on their behalf seems
to imply that they are now free to commit sins in as much as they believe
in this atonement sacrifice. Whereas telling the believers that, except
they repent sincerely by turning from their sinful ways, they themselves
will be held responsible for their sins would make them think twice before
committing any sin. Of course the latter is more logical and reasonable
than the former. In fact, the resurrection of Jesus make this sin atonement
doctrine to be even more illogical because if the punishment which Jesus
received in place of the sinners is a continuous one and not temporary,
then this can make the sinner to feel sorry for Jesus and become more
remorseful. This may discourage him from committing more sin. But since
according to the Christians, Jesus had been resurrected and the punishment
received by Jesus in place of the sinners had already ended, then there is
no any cause for alarm if the sinful believer in this doctrine seized this
opportunity to commit more sins. In fact, one would expect the sinners to
utilize and maximize this opportunity by committing more sins since the
punishment for those sins had already been accomplished by Jesus on the
cross in the time past. Have you now seen that atonement of sins through
Jesus crucifixion is the most illogical concept you can ever think of!

Jesus said “I was not sent except to the LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL
(Matthew 15:24). Even when Jesus was sending out his disciples for
evangelical mission, he warned them to avoid preaching to the gentiles i: e
the non-Israelites (Matthew 10:5-6). However, according to the belief of
the Christian scholars, this command of not preaching to the gentiles was
later cancelled and replaced by the new command in Matthew 28:19 where the
apostles were commanded by Jesus to preach to all the nations of the world. But
should we really accept Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it as
the words actually spoken by Jesus? Bring out your Bible and answer the
following questions
QUESTION ONE: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
peter tell Cornelius and his households that it is still unlawful for the
Jews to visit the gentiles (Acts 10:28), many years after Jesus’ ascension
to heaven? Was peter not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to
all the nations?
QUESTION TWO: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
other apostles have to criticize Peter and become astonished when they
heard that some Gentiles had received the word of God through the hand of
Peter (Acts 11: 1-3, 18)? This incident took place many years after Jesus’
departure.
QUESTION THREE: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
Peter have to justify his preaching to those gentiles using his vision to
convince the other apostles instead of simply reminding them about the new
command of preaching to all the nations (Acts 11: 4-18)?
QUESTION FOUR: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
James still address his epistle to twelve tribes of Israel only i:e the
Jews, and not to the gentiles (James 1:1)?
QUESTION FIVE: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did
Peter also address his epistle only to the exiles of dispersion (i.e. the
Jews) scattered throughout certain provinces and not to the gentiles (1
Peter 1:1).
QUESTION SIX: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why would these
apostles be judging only the twelve tribes of Israel in the new world and
not judging the Gentiles(Matthew19:28)?
QUESTION SEVEN: if the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Peter
and his associates still agree to limit their ministry to the people of
circumcision i.e. the Jews; leaving the work of Christianizing the gentiles
only to Paul and Barnabas (Galatians 2:7-9, Acts 15:2, 4, 12, Acts21:17-19)? QUESTION EIGHT : If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus
in Matthew 28:19 to preach the gospel to all nations of the world, why was
it that, after the book of Acts, all the letters specifically addressed to
the gentiles were written by Paul and not by the original apostles of Jesus
(Romans 1:1, 1stCorinthians 1:1, 2nd Corinthians 1:1, Galatians 1:1,
Ephesians 1:1, Philippians 1:1, Colossians 1:1, etc.).
QUESTION NINE: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Paul
repeatedly speak as if he was the only one authorized to preach the Gospel
to the gentiles(Galatians 2:8, Romans 15:15-18, Romans 11:13, 1st Timothy
2:7, Acts 9:15, 2nd Timothy 1:11 Ephesians 3:.
QUESTION TEN: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus in Matthew
28:19 to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did
disciples under the authority of the apostles still preach the gospel to
none except the Jews even after the persecution that followed the killing
of Stephen (Acts 11:19)? Of course, the killing of Stephen took place after
Jesus ascension to heaven (Acts 7: 55-58).
All the questions asked above are enough to prove that Jesus and his
apostles were only commanded to preach to the Jews (i:e the Israelites) and
the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world in Matthew
28:19 is a forgery. After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles
understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even
under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In
fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were
forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the
Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20). Hellenists are the Greek-speaking
Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians
(Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts
11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their
true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott
and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm
that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel
verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts. All the
incidents mentioned in the questions asked above took place after Jesus has
ascended to heaven. They all point to the fact that the disciples knew
nothing about the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world
in Matthew 28:19. The preaching of Peter to Cornelius and his households
was an exception and one-time event. Peter’s initial response to those
gentiles was rejection (Acts 10: 25-28). We have no record that Peter
evangelized another gentile. One incident does not constitute a ministry.
In the book of Acts, we read plainly of Paul’s travels through Cyprus, Asia
Minor, Greece and Italy. But the movement of the original apostles who ate
and slept with Jesus is nowhere to be found. When Paul preached the gospel
at Rome, where were Peter and other apostles? This proves beyond any
reasonable doubt that Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it; where
the original twelve apostles were supposedly commanded by Jesus to preach
the gospel to all the nations of the world are not authentic but later
inserted into the text of New Testament. In fact, if it was already in the
divine plan, that the command of not preaching to the gentiles would later
be cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations as
spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus statement directed to that
Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR
THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS NOT SENT
EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. Besides, the fact that
Jesus later answered that Canaanite woman(Matthew 15:28) help us to know
that there was no any strong reason preventing Jesus from attending to her
in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus and his apostles were
sent only to the Israelites.
Similarly, Qur’an 61:6 and Qur’an 3:49 also confirm the truth that Jesus
was sent only to the Israelites (i:e the Jews).

You are yet to get my point. I did not say there are no verses in the Bible coming directly from God's mouth. My point is that there is no a single verse in the Bible coming directly from God's mouth THAT ESTABLISH DIVINE ORIGIN for all the books in the Bible. For example, there are no verses like "All these people were led by My spirit to write all the books in the Bible" or "The books in the Bible is given by inspiration from Me". The reason why such a verse is important and necessary is that Bible is not a single book like Quran but a collection of books written by different authors. Therefore, if all the books in the entire Bible are the final books God intended to guide the whole of humanity till the last day,there is need for a verse directly from God's mouth uniting all these books together as one entity and also establishing divine origin for such an entity. But there is no such a verse in the Bible. However, Qur'an have such a verse coming directly from God's mouth uniting all the chapters in the book as one Qur'an e.g God Almighty says WE HAVE NOT SENT DOWN QUR'AN TO YOU(O MUHAMMAD-pbuh) TO CAUSE YOU DISTRESS. BUT ONLY AS A REMINDER TO THOSE WHO FEAR GOD. A REVELATION FROM HIM WHO CREATED THE EARTH AND THE HIGH HEAVENS (QUR'AN 20:2-3). See how the word Qur'an is mentioned in the Qur'an: In this way all the chapters in the Qur'an are united as one . Again see how the first person pronoun "We" in the verse can only be referred to God contextually: which implies that entire Qur'an originate from God. There is no such verse in the Bible coming directly from God's mouth uniting all the books in the Bible together as Bible and also establishing divine origin for such entire Bible. The word "Bible" is not even present in the Bible.

The fact that a friend of yours simply told you “I AM NOT LYING" is not enough to prove that he has actually spoken the truth about the matter he was telling you. What if the statement “I AM NOT LYING” is another lie by itself? Of course, this principle also applies to 2nd Timothy 3:16, 2nd peter 1:21 and any other verse used by Christians to claim divine origin for the entire Bible. The fact that these verses declare that the Bible writers were inspired by God and guided by the holy spirit are not enough to prove that the entire Bible is word of God because these verses themselves also require their own external evidence to prove their divinity; just like the statement “I AM NOT LYING” require its own external evidence to prove that this very statement itself is not another lie by itself. The only exception to this principle is when we have a verse COMING DIRECTLY from God's mouth. This kind of verse where God would be speaking to us directly using the first person pronouns like " I, ME,MY, WE, US etc" does not require any external evidence to establish its divine origin because God of truth would never allow a deliberate liar to impersonate Him ( Jeremiah 28:1-17, Psalm 101:7) just like a truthful man would never allow his friend-talk less of his enemy-to impersonate him. Therefore, the statements like "All scripture is given by inspiration of God (2nd Timothy 3:16)", “For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spoke as they moved by the holy spirit (2nd Peter 1:21)” and the likes cannot be used to establish the divine origin of any book because they are not coming directly from God's mouth. However, the statements like " All scripture in the Bible is given by inspiration from Me”. These holy men were moved by My spirit to speak what is written inside this Bible” and the likes can be used to establish divine origin of all the books in the Bible because they are sufficient to prove their divine origin. However, such a direct statement coming from God’s mouth establishing the divine origin for the entire Bible is nowhere to be found inside the Bible. Even the word “BIBLE” cannot be found within the Bible; talk less of a verse coming directly from God’s mouth which would establish the divine origin for the entire Bible. Therefore, Bible still maintains its identity as being the word of God mixed together with the word of men; there are some verses which came directly from God’s mouth and yet there are some verses which came directly from men. But does the same thing apply to the Qur’an? Certainly not! Beside the fact that Qur’an make reference to its self (i:e the word “Qur’an” is found in the Qur’an) in more than seventy times in places like Qur’an 17:88, 10:37, 38:1, 47:24, 36:2, 50:1, 59:21 etc; there are also many verses coming directly from God’s mouth which establish the divine origin for the entire book. Examples of such verses are as follows: This is the revelation sent down from the Lord of the worlds. If he (Muhammad-pbuh) had forged a false saying concerning Us, We surely should have seized him by right hand. And then We certainly should have cut off his life artery.(Qur’an 69:43-46) “O children of Israel! Remember My favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My Signs for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone(Qur’an 2:40-41). We have not sent down the Qur’an unto you(O Muhammad-pbuh) to cause you distress. But only as a reminder to those who fear God. A revelation from Him who created the earth and the high heavens(Qur’an 20:2-3).You can see that pronouns like “Us, We, MY, I, Me” are first person pronouns which can only be referred to God contextually. Other examples of similar verses can be found in Qur'an 15:9, 12:2-3, 21:10.50, 35:31-32, 17:105-106 16:101-103, 6:92 etc. However, such direct verses from God’s mouth establishing divine origin for the whole of the Bible cannot be found inside the Bible.

Jesus said “I was not sent except to the LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL
(Matthew 15:24). Even when Jesus was sending out his disciples for
evangelical mission, he warned them to avoid preaching to the gentiles i: e
the non-Israelites (Matthew 10:5-6). If this command of “not preaching to
the gentiles” was later cancelled and replaced by the new command of
preaching to all the nations before Jesus ascended to heaven as proclaimed
by the Christians, then why did peter tell the Cornelius and his households
that it is still unlawful for the Jews to visit the gentiles (Acts 10:28),
many years after Jesus departure? Was peter not aware of the cancellation?
In fact, if it was already in the divine plan, that the command of not
preaching to the gentiles would later be cancelled, then Jesus statement
directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been:” IT IS
NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES “or something similar in meaning rather than
“I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. Besides,
the fact that Jesus later answered that Canaanite woman(Matthew 15:28) help
us to know that there was no any strong reason preventing Jesus from
attending to her in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus was
sent only to the Israelites. Furthermore, if the apostles were later
instructed by Jesus to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world,
then why did other apostles have to criticize Peter and become astonished
when they heard that some Gentiles had received the word of God through the
hand of Peter (Acts 11: 1-3, 18)? Again, why did Peter have to justify his
preaching to those gentiles using his vision to convince the other apostles
instead of simply reminding them about the new command of preaching to all
the nations (Acts 11: 4-18)? Furthermore, If the apostles were later
instructed to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did
James still address his epistle to twelve tribes of Israel only and not to
the gentiles (James 1:1)? Also, why did Peter address his epistle only to
the exiles of dispersion (i.e. the Jews) scattered throughout certain
provinces and not to the gentiles (1 Peter 1:1). Furthermore, If the
apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the Gospel to all the
nations of the world, why would these disciples be judging only the twelve
tribes of Israel in the new world and not judging the Gentiles(Matthew
19:28)?Furthermore, if the apostles were later instructed to preach the
gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Peter and his associates
still agree to limit their ministry to the people of circumcision i.e. the
Jews; leaving the work of Christianizing the gentiles only to Paul and
Barnabas (Galatians 2:7-9, Acts 15:2, 4, 12, Acts 21:17-19)?Furthermore, If
the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all
nations of the world, why was it that, after the book of Acts, all the
letters specifically addressed to the gentiles were written by Paul and not
by the original apostles of Jesus (Romans 1:1, 1st Corinthians 1:1, 2nd
Corinthians 1:1, Galatians 1:1, Ephesians 1:1, Philippians 1:1, Colossians
1:1, etc.). Furthermore, If the disciples were later instructed to preach
the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Paul repeatedly speak
as if he was the only one authorized to preach the Gospel to the gentiles(Galatians
2:8, Romans 15:15-18, Romans 11:13, 1st Timothy 2:7, Acts 9:15, 2nd Timothy
1:11 Ephesians 3:.
All these facts are enough to prove that Jesus and his apostles were only
commanded to preach to the Jews and not to the Gentiles. After Jesus
ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood this command so well that
even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1).
In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who
were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except
the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20). Hellenists are the Greek-speaking
Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians
(Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts
11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their
true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott
and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm
that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel
verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts. All the
incidents mentioned above took place after Jesus has ascended to heaven.
They all point to the fact that the disciples knew nothing about the new
command of preaching to all the nations of the world. The preaching of
Peter to Cornelius and his households was an exception and one-time event.
Peter’s initial response to those gentiles was rejection (Acts 10: 25-28).
We have no record that Peter evangelized another gentile. One incident does
not constitute a ministry. In the book of Acts, we read plainly of Paul’s
travels through Cyprus, Asia Minor, Greece and Italy. But the movement of
the original apostles is nowhere to be found. When Paul preached the gospel
at Rome, where were Peter and other apostles? This proves beyond any
reasonable doubt that Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses where the
original twelve apostles were commanded by Jesus to preach the gospel to
all the nations of the world are not authentic but later inserted into the
text of New Testament.
Similarly, Qur’an 61:6 and Qur’an 3:49 also confirm the truth that Jesus
was sent only to the Israelites (i:e the Jews).The spreading of
Christianity throughout the world of Gentiles was majorly due to the
activities of Paul (Galatians 2:7-9, Romans 15:16, Ephesians 3:1-, and
not by the twelve chosen apostles of Jesus who spent most of their life
time in Jerusalem. But who was this Paul that identified himself
specifically as an apostle to the Gentiles (Romans 11:13)? How did he
manage to associate himself with Jesus Christ? Read below!
Christians believe that “the great light from heaven” that appeared to
Paul on his road to Damascus after Jesus’ departure (Acts 22:6-9) was true
Jesus Christ :yet before his departure, Jesus said to the disciples: Take
heed that no man deceive you. For many shall come in my name, saying; I am
the Christ; and shall deceive many(Matthew 24:4-5)…….“Then if anyone says
here is Christ or there, DO NOT BELIEVE IT (Matthew 24:23)”. Jesus also
told the original apostles; “I saw Satan falling like LIGHTNING FROM HEAVEN
(Luke10:18)”. If true Jesus Christ would later appear to Paul in form of “a
great light falling from heaven”, he would have foretold this event to the
original apostles before he ascended to heaven; instead of telling them not
to believe in any one that came in the name of Christ and also informing
them that he saw Satan falling from heaven in form of a great light. Indeed,
the fact that Paul contradicts Jesus in many important issues is even
enough to show that he did not meet the true Jesus Christ. For example
Jesus said: Do NOT THINK I CAME TO DESTROY THE LAW or the (way of the)
PROPHETS. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. For assuredly, I say to
you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no
means pass from the LAW till ALL IS FULFILLED-Matthew 5:17-18). Yet Paul
declares as follows: But BEFORE faith came, we were KEPT UNDER GUARD BY THE
LAW, kept for the faith which after-ward would be revealed. Therefore, THE
LAW WAS OUR TUTOR to bring us to Christ, that we might be justified by
faith. But AFTER faith has come, WE ARE NO LONGER UNDER A TUTOR (Galatians
3:23-25). Again Paul said; Having ABOLISHED in his flesh, the ENMITY, THAT
IS, THE LAW OF COMMANDMENTS contained in the ordinances(Ephesians 2:15).
See how Paul flatly opposed Jesus; Jesus said he came NOT TO DESTROY BUT TO
FULFILL the law but Paul insists that the true followers of Christ are no
longer under the law because the law of commandments has been ABOLISHED in
the flesh of crucified Jesus. However, the Christian Scholars try to
resolve this obvious contradiction by saying that Jesus did not destroy the
law but fulfilled the law by DYING ON THE CROSS: which implies that the law
was NOT just ORDINARILY AND SIMPLY DESTROYED but it was ULTIMATELY
ABOLISHED (i:e later destroyed) due to its FULFILMENT on the cross. In this
way, they thought that there is no contradiction again between the word of
Jesus and the word of Paul. But if this scholarly interpretation of
fulfilling and abolishing the law on the cross is true, why did Jesus have
to say again in the next verse(Matthew 5:19) as follows: WHOEVER THEREFORE
BREAKS ONE OF THE LEAST OF THESE COMMANDMENTS, AND TEACHES MEN SO, shall be
called LEAST in the kingdom of heaven. But whoever DOES AND TEACHES THEM,
he shall be called GREAT in the kingdom of heaven”. See how the phrase “WHOEVER
THEREFORE" connects this verse to those before it; which implies that the
law which Jesus was talking about in Matthew 5:17-18 is still binding on
the Jews and never abolished on the cross. Furthermore, if this scholarly
interpretation of fulfilling and abolishing the law on the cross is true,
then Christians do not have to follow any Law again (whether ceremonial law
or moral law) since Jesus statement in Matthew 5:18 ends with" TILL ALL THE LAW
IS FULFILLED". Are the Christians going to agree with this interpretation?
Certainly not! This proves that contradiction between Paul and Jesus on the
issue of keeping the law can never be resolved. Again, despite the fact
that circumcision is an everlasting covenant of God for the Israelites (Genesis
17:9-14) and Jesus himself was also circumcised (Luke 2:21); yet Paul went
ahead to write as follows: “Indeed, I Paul say to you that if you become
circumcised, Christ will profit you nothing. And I testify again to EVERY
MAN who become circumcised that he is a debtor to keep the whole law. You
have become estranged (i.e. cut off ) from Christ, you who attempt to be
justified by the law; you have fallen from grace(Galatians 5:2-4)”. The
term “EVERY MAN” used by Paul in the verse quoted above is an indisputable
evidence that he condemned the act of circumcision for both Jews and
Gentiles. If this is not the case, then the Jewish believers in the
Jerusalem would not bound themselves with oath that they will never eat nor
drink until they kill Paul (Acts 23:12-14). In fact, this single fact alone
that Paul condemn the act of circumcision, an EVERLASTING covenant of God,
is another prove that “the great light from heaven” that appeared to Paul
on the road to Damascus was a false Christ as already foretold by Jesus
Christ during his earthly ministry. Paul was also caught lying red handed; he
was accused of teaching all the Jews among the Gentiles to forsake
circumcision and the Law of Moses (Acts 21:18-31). But instead of proving
the accusation to be true or false when the King Agrippa asked him about
that accusation, Paul now claimed that he was being accused for the hope of
the promise made by God i.e. the resurrection of the dead (Acts 26:1- and
for the fact that he advised people to repent and turn to God (Acts
26:19-21). There is nothing like “circumcision and the law of Moses” in the
answers presented by Paul to the King. In fact, Paul himself admitted to
be a liar when he said: “For if the truth of God has increased through MY
LIE to His glory, why am I also still judged as a sinner?(Romans 3:7)”. Yet
the same Paul wrote almost half of the books found in the New Testament. See
the foundation upon which the edifice of Christianity is erected!

Christians believe that Jesus came to die for our sins: yet Deuteronomy
24:16,Ezekiel 18:20-22, Jeremiah 31:30,2nd Chronicles 25:4, 2nd Kings 14:6
and Psalms 49:7 established that THE PERSON THAT COMMITS SIN IS THE ONE WHO WILL DIE. Is the idea that “an innocent person can be killed instead of
those who are guilty” consistent with what the Bible teaches? After the sin of the Golden Calf, God expressed His intention to destroy the Jewish people. Moses intercedes, and asked God to blot him out of His book (i:e to condemn him) as a means of atonement for the sins committed by his followers. But God rejected his request and told him that “Whoever has sinned against Me, him will I blot out of My book!” (Exodus 32:30-33). If
Jesus was truly destined to suffer and die for the sins of all humanity, then God should have told Moses plainly that his offer of atonement was rejected because Jesus had taken upon himself this great task of atoning for the sins of all the generations and that if the followers of Moses desire forgiveness for their sins, they should believe in the future
Crucifixion of Jesus. But nothing of such was recorded. On the contrary,
the request made by Moses was rejected on the basis that WHOEVER HAS SINNED
AGAINST GOD, him WILL GOD PUNISH, NOT THE INNOCENT. Furthermore, Luke 5:32 and Mark 2:17 recorded a verse where Jesus said; “I have not come to call
the righteous BUT SINNERS TO REPENTANCE”. If Jesus has actually come to die for the sinners, he would have mentioned it in this verse since he was
talking about the purpose of his coming WITH RESPECT TO THE SINNERS. Moreover,
if this baptism of repentance, for which Jesus came to invite the sinners
to observe, is sufficient to atone and wipe away our sins as stated clearly
in Acts 2:38, 3:19,Mark 1:4, Isaiah 55:6-7 and Ezekiel 33:10-20, then is
there any need again for atonement of sins through Jesus crucifixion? This
is the reason why the original Jesus’ disciples, before Paul came into
scene, were only commanded to warn the people with this message; Repent,
for the kingdom of heaven is at hand (Matthew 10:5-7, Mark 1:14, 15). There
was no any reference of sin atonement through Jesus crucifixion in their
preaching. In fact , when Peter was addressing the congregation of
Israelites after Jesus departure, he said to them as follows: Repent, and
let everyone of you be baptized in the name of Christ for the REMISSION OF
SINS; and you shall receive the gift of holy spirit.(Acts 2:38). You can see that Peter and the other apostles only asked the Israelites to remit their sins by observing baptism of repentance. Peter did not mention remission of sins through Jesus crucifixion in this long discussion he had
with the children of Israel. Even logically, this very doctrine cannot be true because telling the believers that they will no longer be held responsible for all their sins since one innocent man has already been held
responsible on their behalf seems to imply that they are now free to commit
sins in as much as they believe in this atonement sacrifice. Whereas
telling the believers that, except they repent sincerely by turning from
their sinful ways, they themselves will be held responsible for their sins
would make them think twice before committing any sin. Of course the latter
is more logical and reasonable than the former.

pls where did this life force/prana/consciousness come from? Is this life force or consciousness also responsible for human consciousness and intelligence?

Evolutionary scientists are completely ignorant on how the first mysterious living cell (required to start the entire evolution) would evolved from non living substances. Again, they are completely ignorant on how this mysterious cell would later transform itself into first functional male and female. Yet they are completely sure that male and female human beings who would later become professors, philosophers, scientists, mathematicians and evolutionary biologists evolved ultimately from this mysterious cell. See the beautiful mansion our evolutionary biologists and scientists erected on a very weak foundation; the mansion that is bound to collapse sooner or later. If the theory of evolution collapse, then Atheism must also collapse because after rejecting supernatural creation, there is no any other plausible way to account for the origin of different life species on earth other than to assert that one species evolved gradually from preexisting ones; this is because higher life species and even the lower ones have never been observed to pop into existence suddenly and directly from non living substances.

Just consider our ability to SEE AND HEAR; there is no way for natural science to completely account for these two features without being get stuck along the way. We are told that the light and sound signals which enter our sensory systems were firstly converted into electrical impulse signals . These electrical impulse signals were then conveyed to the brain through the nerves. Even if we assume a costly assumption that the nerves were able to convey all the necessary details and the brain was able to reconvert those electrical impulse signals back to the original visual and sound perceptions, there is still need for the "actual seer" and the "actual hearer" to see and hear these FAKE PERCEPTIONS formed in the Brain. Yet there is no way to account for this "actual seer and hearer" (which the theists depicted as soul or spirit) in a purely atheistic and material world. Furthermore, consider our ability to talk and speak in a coherent manner:1.How are we able to select an appropriate word at a particular point in time from vast number of words stored in our brain during speech production? 2.How does the brain even managed to store and retrieve those words? 3.How does the the vocal apparatus ( which consist of the tongue,lips, teeth etc) managed to be informed within the shortest period of time regarding the words selected by the brain? 4.How did vocal apparatus managed to coordinate its activities to ensure the correct pronunciation of those words? 5.How and why did present human species manage to have over 6000 languages given that a child always speak the same language he heard from his parents or relatives? A child grown in the midst of the parents has never been observed to speak a completely new language. Even if we suppose that new vocabularies were able to evolve due to change in culture, the basic syntax of a language should not be evolving 6.Are we to suppose that the first man and first woman on earth spoke thousands of languages during their life time? 7.How are we able to switch voluntarily from one language to another during speech production? 8.How are we able to pause voluntarily during speech production? 9.How are we able to change the tone of our voice voluntarily during speech production? 10.How are we able to increase or decrease voluntarily the loudness of our voice during speech production?All these events are nothing but miracles. Any NATURAL PROCESS can only be based on CHANCE or follow some SET OF NATURAL LAWS. Therefore, if all activities going on in our brain is ultimately determined by natural process, THE ONLY INSTRUMENT PRESENT IN ATHEISTIC WORLD,then the process of our speech production will be based purely on CHANCE or based on some SET OF NATURAL LAWS. Under this condition, it is either our speech is full of NON COHERENT AND NONSENSICAL words(if it is based on chance) or full of REPEATED AND HOMOGENEOUS set of words(if it is based on some set of natural laws); in other words, our speech can never be DIVERSE, COHERENT AND MEANINGFUL if its production is ultimately determined by natural process, the only instrument present in Atheistic world. Therefore, Atheism can never account for our ability to see,our ability to hear and our ability to speak in a diverse and yet coherent manner.

Just consider our ability to SEE AND HEAR; there is no way for natural science to completely account for these two features without being get stuck along the way. We are told that the light and sound signals which enter our sensory systems were firstly converted into electrical impulse signals . These electrical impulse signals were then conveyed to the brain through the nerves. Even if we assume a costly assumption that the brain was able to reconvert those electrical impulse signals back to the original visual and sound perceptions, there is still need for the "actual looker" and the "actual listener" to look and listen to these assumed perceptions formed in the Brain. Yet there is no way to account for this "actual looker and listener" (which the theists depicted as soul or spirit) in a purely atheistic and material world. Furthermore, consider our ability to talk and speak in a diverse and yet coherent manner:1.How are we able to select an appropriate word at a particular point in time from vast number of words stored in our brain during speech production? 2.How does the brain even managed to store and retrieve those words during speech production? 3.How did vocal instruments( which consist of the tongue,lips, teeth etc) managed to be informed within the shortest period of time regarding the words selected by the brain? 4.How did vocal instruments managed to coordinate their activities to ensure the correct pronunciation of those words? 5.How and why did present human species manage to have over 6000 languages given that a child always speak the same language he heard from his parents or relatives? 6.Are we to suppose that the first man and woman on earth were blessed with thousands of languages? 7.How are we able to switch voluntarily from one language to another during speech production? 8.How are we able to pause voluntarily during speech production? 9.How are we able to change the tone of our voice voluntarily during speech production? 10.How are we able to increase or decrease voluntarily the loudness of our voice during speech production?All these events are nothing but miracles. Any natural process can only be based on chance or follow some predetermined set of laws. Therefore, if all activities going on in our brain is purely and ultimately determined by natural process,the only instrument present in atheistic world, then the manner of our speech production will be based purely on chance or based on some predetermined set of laws. Under this condition, all the TEN events enumerated above would be absolutely impossible as they obviously not based on chance or any predetermined set of laws: They are are purely voluntary actions based on intensional decision. In other words, if the process of speech production is purely natural, then our speech would either be full of non-coherent and nonsensical words( if it is based on chance )or full of repeated and homogeneous set of words( if it is based on predetermined set of laws) : our speech would never be diverse,coherent and meaningful at the same time.

Just consider our ability to SEE AND HEAR; there is no way for natural science to completely account for these two features without being get stuck along the way. We are told that the light and sound signals which enter our sensory systems were firstly converted into electrical impulse signals . These electrical impulse signals were then conveyed to the brain through the nerves. Even if we assume a costly assumption that the brain was able to reconvert those electrical impulse signals back to the original visual and sound perceptions, there is still need for the "inner eye" and the "inner ear" to look and listen to these assumed perceptions formed in the Brain. Yet there is no way to account for these "inner eye and inner ear" (which the theists depicted as soul or spirit) in a purely atheistic and material world. Furthermore, consider our ability to talk and speak in a diverse and yet coherent manner:1.How are we able to select an appropriate word at a particular point in time from vast number of words stored in our brain during speech production? 2.How does the brain even managed to store and retrieve those words during speech production? 3.How did vocal instruments( which consist of the tongue,lips, teeth etc) managed to be informed within the shortest period of time regarding the words selected by the brain? 4.How did vocal apparatus managed to coordinate its activities to ensure the correct pronunciation of those words? 5.How and why did present human species manage to have over 6000 languages given that a child always speak the same language he heard from his parents or relatives? 6.Are we to suppose that the first man and woman on earth were blessed with thousands of languages? 7.How are we able to switch voluntarily from one language to another during speech production? 8.How are we able to pause voluntarily during speech production? 9.How are we able to change the tone of our voice voluntarily during speech production? 10.How are we able to increase or decrease voluntarily the loudness of our voice during speech production?All these events are nothing but miracles. Any natural process can only be based on chance or follow some predetermined set of laws. Therefore, if all activities going on in our brain is purely and ultimately determined by natural process,the only instrument present in atheistic world, then the manner of our speech production will be based purely on chance or based on some predetermined set of laws. Under this condition, all the TEN events enumerated abovea would be absolutely impossible as they obviously not based on chance or any predetermined set of laws: They are are purely voluntary actions based on intensional decision. In other words if the process of speech production is purely natural, then our speech would either be full of non-coherent and nonsensical words if it is based on chance or full of repeated and homogeneous set of words if it is based on predetermined set of laws: our speech would never be diverse and coherent at the same time.

Yes it is stated clearly in the Qur'an that Muhammad was sent to the entire world: WE HAVE NOT SENT YOU EXCEPT TO BE A MERCY FOR THE ENTIRE WORLD(Qur'an 21:107) But Jesus clearly said I was not sent except to the LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)

Muslims believe in Jesus as a mighty prophet of God(Quran 19:30). Muslims believe in Jesus miraculous birth(Quran 21:91). Muslims believe in all the miracles performed by Jesus during his earthly ministry(Quran 5:110). Muslims believe in Jesus ascension to heaven(Quran 4:158). Muslims believe in Jesus' 2nd coming toward the end of the world(Quran 43:57-61). If you scrutinized the entire Bible , you will discover that most of the Christian doctrines rejected by the Muslims are also hostile to the Bible. For example:
1. Christians believe that Jesus is God in human form according to the
doctrine of holy Trinity: yet when Jesus was praying to the Father, he said
“And this is eternal life, that they may know You, THE ONLY TRUE GOD, and
Jesus Christ whom you have sent (John 17:3). Therefore, if the Father is the only true God according to Jesus Christ, then how could Jesus be God or part of Triune God? Similarly in John 20:17, Jesus was reported to have said “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, and to MY GOD and your God”. If Jesus is God according to the Christians, then can God have
another God? Also Luke 6:12 recorded that Jesus went out to the mountain
side to pray, and continued all night in PRAYER TO GOD. If Jesus is God, who was he praying to? Was he praying to himself or was God praying to God? Similarly, in John 14:28, Jesus said: “ My Father is GREATER THAN I”. If jesus is God, why is he having someone greater than him? Can anybody be greater than God? Again in Mark 10:18, Jesus said to one man who called him
good teacher as follows: “why do you call me good? NO ONE IS GOOD BUT ONE,
THAT IS GOD”. If Jesus is God, why did he reject and submit that all goodness belongs to God? Furthermore, in John 14:1, Jesus said “let not your heart be troubled: you believe in God, believe also in me”. See how Jesus clearly distinguished himself from God using the word "ALSO" Finally in Matthew 24:36, Jesus said; “But of that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the son, but ONLY THE FATHER”. If Jesus is God, why did he confess his ignorance about the Day of Judgment and then submit that the knowledge of that day belongs only to God?Can God be ignorant of anything? What else do we want Jesus to say before we can believe that he is not God?
2.Christians believe that the official title for Jesus Christ is son of God:
yet the official title Jesus gave himself in many verses of the Bible is “SON OF MAN”. It was even more than SEVENTY times that Jesus called himself son
of Man in the four canonical gospel e.g. Mark 2:10, Matthew 8:20, 11:19
Luke 7:34,9:58 etc. But hardly do you see where Jesus directly and
personally called himself “son of God”.
Also in the Qur'an, Jesus is always address as son of Mary(e.g Qur'an 61:6, 4:171, 5:114 etc) which has the same connotation as son of Man that Jesus used for himself. This is reasonable as nobody can deny that Jesus is the son of Mary.
3. Christians believe that Jesus WILLINGLY laid down his life on the cross
for atonement sacrifice: yet Matthew 26:36-44 declare that Jesus prayed to
God and asked for the removal of "cup of death" in THREE consecutive times,
In fact the prayer was so serious to the extent that the sweat of Jesus was
like great drops of blood falling down to the ground(Luke 22:44).
According to Quran 4:157-158, God answered this prayer by making Jesus to escape the death on the cross in a miraculous way.
4.. Christians believe that Jesus was sent to the entire world: yet Jesus said " I was not sent except to the LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL(Matthew 15:24)
Even when Jesus was sending out his disciples for evangelical mission, he warned them to avoid preaching to the gentiles i:e the non-Israelites (Matthew 10:5-6). If this command of not preaching to the gentiles was later cancelled by Jesus before he ascended to heaven as proclaimed by the Christians, then why did peter tell the Cornelius and his households that it is still unlawful for the Jews to visit the gentiles (Acts 10:28), many years after Jesus departure? Was peter not aware of the cancellation? In fact, if it was already in the divine plan, that the command of not preaching to the gentiles would later be cancelled, then Jesus statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been:" IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES" or something similar in meaning rather than " I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL". Besides, the fact that Jesus later answered that Canaanite woman(Matthew 15:28) help us to know that there was no any strong reason preventing Jesus from attending to her in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus was only sent to the Israelites. All these facts are enough to prove that Jesus was truly sent ONLY to the Israelites as he rightly said.
5. Christians believe that Jesus died for our sins: yet Deuteronomy 24:16,
Ezekiel 18:20-22, Jeremiah 31:30,2nd Chronicles 25:4, 2nd Kings 14:6 and
Psalms 49:7 established that THE PERSON THAT COMMITS SIN IS THE ONE WHO WILL DIE. Is the idea that "an innocent person can be killed instead of those who are guilty"consistent with what the Bible teaches? After the sin of the Golden Calf, God expressed His intention to destroy the Jewish people. Moses intercedes, and offers to die in their place. In response, God says “Whoever has sinned against Me,him will I blot out of My book!” (Exodus 32:30-33) If Jesus was truly destined to die for the sins of all humanity, then God should have told Moses plainly that his offer of atonement was rejected because Jesus had taken upon himself this great task of atoning for the sins of all the generations and that if the followers of Moses desire forgiveness for their sins, they should believe in the future Crucifixion of Jesus. But nothing of such was recorded. On the contrary, the request made by Moses was rejected on the basis that WHOEVER HAS SINNED AGAINST GOD,him WILL GOD PUNISH, NOT THE INNOCENT. Even logically this Christian doctrine can not be true because if Jesus has already died for the sins of the Christians, then it seems to imply that they are now free to commit sins since the punishment and condemnation they would receive from committing such sins has already been taking care of by supposed Jesus punishment and death on the cross; otherwise the statement "Jesus died for our sins" would no longer have any logical meaning.
6. Christians believe that “the great light from heaven” that appeared to
Paul on the road to Damascus after Jesus has ascended to heaven (Acts
22:6-9 was true Jesus Christ :yet Jesus said “if anyone says here is
Christ or there, DO NOT BELIEVE IT (Matthew 24:23)”. Jesus also told the
original apostles; “I saw Satan falling like LIGHTNING FROM HEAVEN(Luke10:18)”. If true Jesus Christ would later appear to Paul in form of “a great light falling from heaven”, he would have foretold this event to the original apostles before he ascended to heaven; instead of telling them not
to believe in any one that came in the name of Christ and also informing
them that he saw Satan falling from heaven in form of a great light.
Indeed, the fact that Paul contradict Jesus in many important issues is even enough to show that he did not meet the true Jesus Christ. For example Jesus said:
Do NOT THINK I CAME TO DESTROY THE LAW or the (way of the) PROPHETS. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the LAW till ALL IS FULFILLED-Matthew 5:17-18). Yet Paul declare as follows: But BEFORE faith came, we were KEPT UNDER GUARD BY THE LAW, kept for the faith which would after-ward be revealed. Therefore, THE LAW WAS OUR TUTOR to bring us to Christ,that we might be justified by faith. But AFTER faith has come, WE ARE NO LONGER UNDER A TUTOR(Galatians 3:23-25). Again Paul said; Having ABOLISHED in his flesh,the ENMITY, THAT IS, THE LAW OF COMMANDMENTS contained in the ordinances(Ephesians 2:15). See how Paul flatly opposed Jesus; Jesus said he came NOT TO DESTROY BUT TO FULFILL the law but Paul insist that Christians are no longer under the law because the law have been ABOLISHED in the flesh of crucified Jesus. However, the Christian Scholars try to resolve this obvious contradiction by saying that Jesus did not destroy but fulfilled the law by DYING ON THE CROSS: which implies that the law was NOT just ORDINARILY AND SIMPLY DESTROYED but it was ULTIMATELY ABOLISHED(i:e later destroyed)due to its FULFILMENT on the cross. In this way, they thought that there is no contradiction again between the word of Jesus and the word of Paul. But if this scholarly interpretation of fulfilling and abolishing the law on the cross is true, why did Jesus have to say again in the next verse(Matthew 5:19) as follows: WHOEVER THEREFORE BREAKS ONE OF THE LEAST OF THESE COMMANDMENTS, AND TEACHES MEN SO, shall be called LEAST in the kingdom of heaven. But whoever DOES AND TEACHES THEM, he shall be called GREAT in the kingdom of heaven." See how the phrase " WHOEVER THEREFORE" connect this verse to those before it; which implies that the law which Jesus was talking about in Matthew 5:17-18 is still binding on the Christians and never abolished on the cross. Further more, if this scholarly interpretation of fulfilling and abolishing the law on the cross is true, then Christians do not have to follow any law again (whether ceremonial or moral) since Jesus statement in Matthew 5:18 ends with" TILL ALL THE LAW IS FULFILLED" . Are the Christians going to agree with this? This prove that contradiction between Paul and Jesus on the issue of keeping the law can never be resolved.
7. Christians believe that omnipotent God of love and mercy MUST CURSE (Galatians 3:13) and condemn His only beloved and innocent son on the cross of Calvary before they can secure eternal life: yet condemnation of righteous and innocent soul is strictly forbidden in the Bible (Matthew 12:7,Proverbs 17:15,Exodus 23:7, psalm 34:22). Besides, as God is naturally known to always TELL THE TRUTH and never to TELL LIE for any reason whatsoever, He is also naturally known to always BLESS the innocent and righteous soul and never to CURSE the same soul for any reason whatsoever
8. Christians believe in Trinity: yet Jesus said " hear o Israel, the Lord
our God is ONE (Mark12:29) .He did not say three in one or one in three. If God is triune in nature, Moses and all the prophets of God before Jesus
Christ would have made this known to the children of Israel.
9. Christians believe that God created All things through Jesus Christ(Hebrews 1:2,1st Corinthians 8:6 and Colossians 1:16, John 1:3,10): yet God Almighty declare that He created the Heavens and the Earth ALL
ALONE: This is what the LORD says, your Redeemer who formed you from the
womb; I am the LORD who has made everything, Who ALONE stretch out the
heavens, Who spread out the earth- who was with Me at that time?-( Isaiah
44:24 ISV).
10. Christians believe that it is only the sacrificial blood of Jesus that
can take away our sins i:e it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins(Hebrews 10:4): yet Leviticus 16:21-30 says " the GOAT will carry on itself all the sins of Israelites to a remote place and the man shall release the goat in the wilderness...... Then before the LORD,
you will be CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS”. There is no any indication whatsoever in the verse quoted above that the sins of Israelites were only covered and not completely taken away.. To insist and proclaim that there is a difference between “take away of sins” written in Hebrews 10:4 and “clean from all sins” written in the verses cited above is only an attempt to resolve an obvious and irreconcilable contradiction between Hebrews 10:4 and Leviticus 16:21-30. The only way to resolve this contradiction is when the term “take away of sins” in Hebrews 10:4 implies
complete removal of humanity sinful nature; and NOT achieving divine
forgiveness for already committed sins. However, complete removal of humanity sinful nature by blood of Jesus is impossible as nobody can be
completely free from committing minor sins; “If we say that we have no sin,
we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us ( 1 John 1: 8
11. Christians believe that divine forgiveness and remission of sins can
ONLY be obtained by shedding of blood (Hebrews 9:22): yet in 2nd Chronicles
7:14, God Almighty says “If My people, who are called by My name will HUMBLE themselves, and PRAY and seek My face, and TURN from their wicked
ways, then I will hear from heaven, and I will FORGIVE THEIR SINS and will
heal their land.”.
Christians generally insist that the absolute need for a vicarious blood sacrifice is rooted in the Torah, and cite as proof Leviticus 17:11 which says: “For the life of the flesh is in the blood, and I have given it to you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls; for it is the blood that makes an atonement for the soul.” But does this verse clearly teach that blood is the ONLY means God has provided to make atonement? Certainly not! In the Torah, blood sacrifices were not the only path to atonement; there were other ways to achieve forgiveness. For example, INCENSE served to atone for the people in Numbers 16:46-47, and GIVING CHARITY is described in Exodus 30:15-16 and Numbers 31:50 as "MAKING ATONEMENT FOR YOUR SOUL"– the same expression used in Leviticus 17:11. Besides,examining the Christian interpretation of Leviticus 17:11 generates some serious problems. What happens if someone can’t afford to purchase an animal for his sin offering? Is it possible that God would institute a system of atonement that could only be used by the wealthy? The Torah took this into account and allowed the poor person to bring two turtle doves or two young pigeons if he couldn’t afford a lamb (Leviticus 5:7). However, what if someone was so destitute, that he couldn’t afford even these small birds? See the solution offered by the Torah: "But if his means are insufficient for two turtle doves or two young pigeons, then for his offering for that which he has sinned, he shall bring the tenth of an ephah of FINE FLOUR for a sin offering; he shall not put oil on it or place incense on it, for it is a sin offering.” (Leviticus 5:11). SINCE FLOUR COULD BE USED FOR A SIN OFFERING, it is clear that blood was not a prerequisite for atonement. In fact, King Solomon prophesied that the Jewish people would earn forgiveness for their sins in the land of their enemies by sincere repentance and prayer where they could not have access to blood atonement sacrifices; " If they RETURN TO YOU WITH ALL THEIR HEART AND WITH ALL THEIR SOUL in the land of their enemies who have taken them captive, and PRAY TO YOU TOWARD their LAND which You have given to their fathers, the CITY which You have chosen, and the HOUSE which I have built for Your name; then hear their prayer and their supplication in heaven Your dwelling place, and maintain their cause, and FORGIVE Your people who have sinned against You and ALL THEIR TRANSGRESSIONS which they have transgressed against You…” (I Kings 8:46-50). All these facts prove that Hebrew 9:22 is WRONG by asserting that without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins.
Again,when Daniel advice the King Nebuchadnezzar on how he would atone for his sins and his iniquities, he did not ask the King to shed any blood. Read what he asked the King to do:"Therefore, O king, let my counsel be acceptable unto you, and break off your sins by PRACTICING RIGHTEOUSNESS, and your iniquities by SHOWING MERCY TO THE POOR(Daniel 4:27)".
12. Christians believe that EVERY WORD of the Bible is divine word of God:
yet Paul wrote extensively and gave judgments on the issue of marriage and
divorce without being inspired by God- " But to the rest, I PAUL, NOT THE
LORD, say :If any brother has a wife who does not believe, and she is
willing to live with him, let him not divorce her...... Now concerning virgins, I HAVE NO COMMANDMENT FROM THE LORD, yet I give judgment as one whom the Lord in His mercy has made trustworthy.(1st Corinthians 7:12-25) You see here how Paul is saying that he is using his best personal
judgement,and that what is saying is not directly from God. Why would God
“inspire” Paul to say that his words were NOT from Him? Have you now seen
that Bible is a mixture of word of God and word of men? It is not stated in any verse that EVERY WORD of the Bible is word of God. In fact, the author of the book of Luke wrote as follows : “IT SEEMED GOOD TO ME also, having had perfect understanding of all things from the beginning, to write to you an orderly account, most excellent Theophilus (Luke 1:3)”. We can see again
that Luke wrote his Gospel not to the general humanity but to one specific
influential person he addressed as "most excellent Theophilus" and also not
because he was inspired by God but because it seemed good to him to write
such an account due to his thought of having a sound knowledge on the
matter.
13.Christians believe that after the disobedience and fall of the first
Adam, the ONLY WAY ordained by God to gain salvation, righteousness and
reconciliation back to God is by exercising faith in the death, burial and
resurrection of Jesus Christ (Romans 5:12-19): Yet the old testament saints
like Abraham, Jacob, Isaac, Moses etc and their sincere followers (who lived and died before Jesus arrival) were able to gain salvation, righteousness and reconciliation back to God without having the opportunity to exercise faith in the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ.
14.Christians believe that performing miracles and wonders in Jesus name is
an evidence for divine origin of Christianity: yet Jesus said : Many will
say to me in that day ‘Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name, and
cast out demons in your name, and done many wonders in your name? And then
I will declare to them; I never knew you, depart from me, you who practice
lawlessness (Matthew 7:22-23). See how the Christians will be disowned and
rejected by Jesus on the Day of Judgment!
15. Christians believe that God should only be worshipped internally with
spirit and heart; In other word, there is no need for any ceremonial act of worship like standing, bowing and prostration as observed in Muslim act of prayer: Yet the divine mode of worship that God has chosen for the Israelites during and after the time of Moses is as follows: And Ezra
opened the book in the sight of all the people, for he was standing above
all the people; and when he opened it, all the people stood up. And Ezrra blessed the LORD, the GREAT GOD- which means Allahu-Akhbar. Then all the people answer Amen, Amen! while lifting up their hands. And they BOWED THEIR HEADS (Rukuh) and worshipped the LORD with their FACES TO THE GROUND (Sujud)(Nehemiah 8:4-6). If God should only be worship in spirit with our heart and not with body and mind as believed by the Christians, then why did God establish such a ceremonial
and physical act of worship for the Israelites as shown above?

See what the atheists must believe and accept wholeheartedly; They must believed that; 1.Nature CAN NEITHER DIE NOR LIVE, yet a creature that CAN LIVE AND DIE evolved from the same very nature. 2. Nature CAN NEITHER SLEEP NOR DREAM,yet a creature that CAN SLEEP AND DREAM evolved from the same very nature 3.Nature is BLIND, yet a creature that can SEE evolved from the same very nature. 4.Nature is DEAF yet a creature that can HEAR evolved from the same very nature. 5.Nature is DUMB, yet a creature that can TALK and SPEAK different languages evolved from the same very nature. 6.Nature is NOT a KNOWLEDGEABLE entity ,yet a creature that CAN KNOW and SEARCH for KNOWLEDGE to the extent of OBSERVING ITS OWN BRAIN in the laboratory evolved from the same very nature. 7.Nature is NOT INTELLIGENT, yet an INTELLIGENT creature evolved from the same very nature. 8.Nature is NOT SELF-AWARE, yet a creature with FULL SELF AWARENESS evolved from the same very nature. 9.Nature CANNOT THINK yet , a creature that CAN THINK logically and formulate a rational argument evolved from the same very nature. 10.Nature CANNOT MOVE VOLUNTARILY AND CONTROLLABLY yet a creature that CAN MOVE VOLUNTARILY AND CONTROLLABLY evolved from the same very nature. 11.Nature CAN NOT EXPERIENCE ANY EMOTIONAL FEELINGS, yet a creature that CAN EXPERIENCE FEELINGS LIKE LOVE, ANGER, HAPPINESS, SADNESS etc evolve from the same very nature. 12. Nature is MORALLY NEUTRAL, yet a creature that can MORALLY DISTINGUISH between RIGHT AND WRONG, GOOD AND EVIL evolved from the same very nature. 13. Nature CANNOT FOUND ANY CIVILIZATION, yet a creature CAPABLE OF FOUNDLING CIVILIZATIONS like Education, Marriage, Politics, Governments,Religion, Sports and Entertainments, etc evolved from the same very nature. 14. Nature completely LACKS THE ABILITY TO BELIEVE in any concept, yet a creature THAT CAN BELIEVE in a concept like ATHEISM, Naturalism, and Physicalism evolved from the same very nature. 15. Nature CANNOT EXAMINE AND EXPLORE ITSELF, yet a creature that CAN EXAMINE AND EXPLORE the nature to the extent of PROPOUNDING SOME NATURAL LAWS evolved from the same very nature. See what the atheists must embrace without any iota of doubt- A chain of amazing and wonderful features which are NOWHERE to be found in any part of the nature were later evolved from the SAME VERY nature as a result of ACCUMULATED RANDOM PROCESSES - an illogical and contradictory belief. Yet the same people will be blaming and laughing at the religious people for believing in God. Which one is more reasonable and logical: to believe that those amazing and wonderful features possessed by human being were deliberately created by God or to believe that these features JUST evolved due to random processes accumulated over billions of years? Since, according to the atheists, nature is a CLOSED system, a chain of amazing and wonderful features which are NOWHERE to be found in any part of the nature in the time PAST can NEVER be FOUND at this PRESENT time because NOTHING CAN GIVE TO ITSELF WHAT IT DOES NOT HAVE. Just consider our ability to SEE AND HEAR; there is no way for science to completely account for these two features without being get stuck along the way. We are told that the light and sound signals which enter our sensory systems were firstly converted into electrical impulse signals . These electrical impulse signals were then conveyed to the brain through the nerves. Even if we assume a costly assumption that the brain was able to reconvert those electrical impulse signals back to the original visual and sound perceptions, there is still need for the "inner eye" and the "inner ear" to gaze and listen to these assumed perceptions formed in the Brain. Yet there is no way to account for these "inner eye and inner ear" (which the theists depicted as soul or spirit) in a purely atheistic and material world. Furthermore, consider our ability to talk and speak in a coherent manner:1.How are we able to select an appropriate word at a particular point in time from vast number of words stored in our brain during speech production? 2.How does the brain even managed to store and retrieve those words? 3.How does the the vocal apparatus ( which consist of the tongue,lips, teeth etc) managed to be informed within the shortest period of time regarding the words selected by the brain? 4.How did vocal apparatus managed to coordinate its activities to ensure the correct pronunciation of those words? 5.How and why did present human species manage to have over 6000 languages given that a child always speak the same language he heard from his parents or relatives? 6.Are we to suppose that the first man and woman on earth were blessed with thousands of languages? 7.How are we able to switch voluntarily from one language to another during speech production? 8.How are we able to pause voluntarily during speech production? 9.How are we able to change the tone of our voice voluntarily during speech production? 10.How are we able to increase or decrease voluntarily the loudness of our voice during speech production?All these events are nothing but miracles. Any natural process can only be based on chance or follow some predetermined set of laws. Therefore, if all activities going on in our brain is purely and ultimately determined by natural process,the only instrument present in atheistic world, then the manner of our speech production will be based purely on chance or based on some predetermined set of laws. Under this condition, all the TEN events enumerated above would be absolutely impossible as they obviously not based on chance or any strict predetermined set of law: They are are purely voluntary actions based on intensional decision.

Muslims believe in Jesus as a mighty prophet of God(Quran 19:30). Muslims believe in Jesus miraculous birth(Quran 21:91). Muslims believe in all the miracles performed by Jesus during his earthly ministry(Quran 5:110). Muslims believe in Jesus ascension to heaven(Quran 4:158). Muslims believe in Jesus' 2nd coming toward the end of the world(Quran 43:57-61). However, the doctrines that Christians embraced wholeheartedly are listed below. If these Christian doctrines (which are also hostile to the Bible) were to be dropped by the Christians, then there is no difference again between
Christianity and Islam.

1. Christians believe that Jesus is God in human form according to the
doctrine of holy Trinity: yet when Jesus was praying to the Father, he said
“And this is eternal life, that they may know You, THE ONLY TRUE GOD, and
Jesus Christ whom you have sent (John 17:3). Therefore, if the Father is
the only true God according to Jesus Christ, then how could Jesus be God or
part of Triune God? Similarly in John 20:17, Jesus was reported to have
said “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, and to MY GOD and your
God”. If Jesus is God according to the Christians, then can God have
another God? Also Luke 6:12 recorded that Jesus went out to the mountain
side to pray, and continued all night in PRAYER TO GOD. If Jesus is God,
who was he praying to? Was he praying to himself or was God praying to God?
Similarly, in John 14:28, Jesus said: “ My Father is GREATER THAN I”. If
Jesus is God, why is he having someone greater than him? Can anybody be
greater than God? Again in Mark 10:18, Jesus said to one man who called him
good teacher as follows: “why do you call me good? NO ONE IS GOOD BUT ONE,
THAT IS GOD”. If Jesus is God, why did he reject and submit that all
goodness belongs to God?
Furthermore, in John 14:1, Jesus said “let not your heart be troubled: you believe in God, believe also in me”. See how Jesus clearly distinguished himself from God using the word "ALSO" Finally in Matthew 24:36, Jesus said; “But of that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the son, but ONLY THE FATHER”. If Jesus is God, why did he confess his ignorance about the Day of Judgment and then submit that the knowledge of that day belongs only to God?Can God be ignorant of anything? What else do we want Jesus to say before we can believe that he is not God? But sadly enough, no matter how strong the Biblical evidence you may put forward for the Christians to disprove the deity of Jesus Christ and hence the doctrine of Trinity, they always end up the arguments by saying; “you don’t have the holy spirit”. But, according to what Christians believe, was it not the same holy spirit that inspired the authors of the Bible to write all the verses cited above?
2.Christians believe that the official title for Jesus Christ is son of God:
yet the official title Jesus gave himself in many verses of the Bible is “SON OF MAN”. It was even more than SEVENTY times that Jesus called himself son
of Man in the four canonical gospel e.g. Mark 2:10, Matthew 8:20, 11:19
Luke 7:34,9:58 etc. But hardly do you see where Jesus directly and
personally called himself “son of God”.
Also in the Qur'an, Jesus is always address as son of Mary(e.g Qur'an 61:6, 4:171, 5:114 etc) which has the same connotation as son of Man that Jesus used for himself. This is reasonable as nobody can deny that Jesus is the son of Mary.
3. Christians believe that Jesus WILLINGLY laid down his life on the cross
for atonement sacrifice: yet Matthew 26:36-44 declare that Jesus prayed to
God and asked for the removal of "cup of death" in THREE consecutive times,
In fact the prayer was so serious to the extent that the sweat of Jesus was
like great drops of blood falling down to the ground(Luke 22:44).
According to Quran 4:157-158, God answered this prayer by making Jesus to escape the death on the cross in a miraculous way.
4.. Christians believe that Jesus was sent to the entire world: yet Jesus
said " I was not sent except to the LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL
(Matthew 15:24)
Even when Jesus was sending out his disciples for evangelical mission, he warned them to avoid preaching to the gentiles i:e the non-Israelites (Matthew 10:5-6). If this command of not preaching to the gentiles was later cancelled by Jesus before he ascended to heaven as proclaimed by the Christians, then why did peter tell the Cornelius and his households that it is still unlawful for the Jews to visit the gentiles (Acts 10:28), many years after Jesus departure? Was peter not aware of the cancellation? In fact, if it was already in the divine plan, that the command of not preaching to the gentiles would later be cancelled, then Jesus statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been:" IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES" or something similar in meaning rather than " I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL". Besides, the fact that Jesus later answered that Canaanite woman(Matthew 15:28) help us to know that there was no any strong reason preventing Jesus from attending to her in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus was only sent to the Israelites. All these facts are enough to prove that Jesus was truly sent ONLY to the Israelites as he rightly said.
5. Christians believe that Jesus died for our sins: yet Deuteronomy 24:16,
Ezekiel 18:20-22, Jeremiah 31:30,2nd Chronicles 25:4, 2nd Kings 14:6 and
Psalms 49:7 established that THE PERSON THAT COMMITS SIN IS THE ONE WHO WILL DIE. Is the idea that an innocent person can be killed instead of those who are guilty consistent with what the Bible teaches? After the sin of the Golden Calf, God expressed His intention to destroy the Jewish people. Moses intercedes, and offers to die in their place. In response, God says “Whoever has sinned against Me,him will I blot out of My book!” (Exodus 32:30-33) If Jesus was truly destined to die for the sins of all humanity, then God should have told Moses plainly that his offer of atonement was rejected because Jesus had taken upon himself this great task of atoning for the sins of all the generations and that if the followers of Moses desire forgiveness for their sins, they should believe in the future Crucifixion of Jesus. But nothing of such was recorded. On the contrary, the request made by Moses was rejected on the basis that WHOEVER HAS SINNED AGAINST GOD,him WILL GOD PUNISH, NOT THE INNOCENT. Even logically this Christian doctrine can not be true because if Jesus has already died for the sins of the Christians, then it seems to imply that they are now free to commit sins the punishment and condemnation they would receive from committing such sins has already been taking care of by supposed Jesus punishment and death on the cross; otherwise the statement "Jesus died for our sins" would no longer have any logical meaning.
6. Christians believe that “the great light from heaven” that appeared to
Paul on the road to Damascus after Jesus has ascended to heaven (Acts
22:6-9 was true Jesus Christ :yet Jesus said “if anyone says here is
Christ or there, DO NOT BELIEVE IT (Matthew 24:23)”. Jesus also told the
original apostles; “I saw Satan falling like LIGHTNING FROM HEAVEN
(Luke10:18)”. If true Jesus Christ would later appear to Paul in form of “a
great light falling from heaven”, he would have foretold this event to the
original apostles before he ascended to heaven; instead of telling them not
to believe in any one that came in the name of Christ and also informing
them that he saw Satan falling from heaven in form of a great light.
Indeed, the fact that Paul contradict Jesus in many important issues is even enough to show that he did not meet the true Jesus Christ. For example Jesus said:
Do NOT THINK I CAME TO DESTROY THE LAW or the (way of the) PROPHETS. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the LAW till ALL IS FULFILLED-Matthew 5:17-18). Yet Paul declare as follows: But BEFORE faith came, we were KEPT UNDER GUARD BY THE LAW, kept for the faith which would after-ward be revealed. Therefore, THE LAW WAS OUR TUTOR to bring us to Christ,that we might be justified by faith. But AFTER faith has come, WE ARE NO LONGER UNDER A TUTOR(Galatians 3:23-25). Again Paul said; Having ABOLISHED in his flesh,the ENMITY, THAT IS, THE LAW OF COMMANDMENTS contained in the ordinances(Ephesians 2:15). See how Paul flatly opposed Jesus; Jesus said he came NOT TO DESTROY BUT TO FULFILL the law but Paul insist that Christians are no longer under the law because the law have been ABOLISHED in the flesh of crucified Jesus. However, the Christian Scholars manage to resolve this obvious contradiction by saying that Jesus did not destroy but fulfilled the law by DYING ON THE CROSS: which implies that the law was NOT just ORDINARILY AND SIMPLY DESTROYED but it was ULTIMATELY ABOLISHED(i:e later destroyed)due to its FULFILMENT on the cross. In this way, there is no contradiction again between the word of Jesus and the word of Paul. But if this scholarly interpretation of fulfilling and abolishing the law on the cross is true, why did Jesus have to say again in the next verse(Matthew 5:19) as follows: WHOEVER THEREFORE BREAKS ONE OF THE LEAST OF THESE COMMANDMENTS, AND TEACHES MEN SO, shall be called LEAST in the kingdom of heaven. But whoever DOES AND TEACHES THEM, he shall be called GREAT in the kingdom of heaven." See how the phrase " WHOEVER THEREFORE" connect this verse to those before it; which implies that the law which Jesus was talking about in Matthew 5:17-18 is still binding on the Christians and never abolished on the cross. Further more, if this scholarly interpretation of fulfilling and abolishing the law on the cross is true, then Christians do not have to follow any law again (whether ceremonial or moral) since Jesus statement in Matthew 5:18 ends with" TILL ALL THE LAW IS FULFILLED" . Are the Christians going to agree with this? This prove that contradiction between Paul and Jesus on the issue of keeping the law can never be resolved.
7. Christians believe that omnipotent God of love and mercy MUST CURSE (Galatians 3:13) and condemn His only beloved and innocent son on the
cross of Calvary before they can secure eternal life: yet condemnation of
righteous and innocent soul is strictly forbidden in the Bible ( Matthew
12:7,Proverbs 17:15,Exodus 23:7, psalm 34:22). Besides,God is naturally known to always BLESS the innocent and righteous soul and never to CURSE the same soul for any reason whatsoever
8. Christians believe in Trinity: yet Jesus said " hear o Israel, the Lord
our God is ONE (Mark12:29) .He did not say three in one or one in three. If
God is triune in nature, Moses and all the prophets of God before Jesus
Christ would have made this known to the children of Israel.
9. Christians believe that God created All things through Jesus
Christ(Hebrews 1:2,1st Corinthians 8:6 and Colossians 1:16, John 1:3,10):
yet God Almighty declare that He created the Heavens and the Earth ALL
ALONE: This is what the LORD says, your Redeemer who formed you from the
womb; I am the LORD who has made everything, Who ALONE stretch out the
heavens, Who spread out the earth- who was with Me at that time?-( Isaiah
44:24 ISV).
10. Christians believe that it is only the sacrificial blood of Jesus that
can take away our sins i:e it is impossible for the blood of bulls and
goats to take away sins(Hebrews 10:4): yet Leviticus 16:21-30 says " the
GOAT will carry on itself all the sins of Israelites to a remote place and
the man shall release the goat in the wilderness...... Then before the LORD,
you will be CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS”. There is no any indication
whatsoever in the verse quoted above that the sins of Israelites were only
covered and not completely taken away.. To insist and proclaim that there
is a difference between “take away of sins” and “clean from all sins” is
only an attempt to resolve an obvious and irreconcilable contradiction
between Hebrews 10:4 and Leviticus 16:21-30. The only way to resolve this
contradiction is when the term “take away of sins” in Hebrews 10:4 implies
complete removal of humanity sinful nature; and NOT achieving divine
forgiveness for already committed sins. However, complete removal of
humanity sinful nature by blood of Jesus is impossible as nobody can be
completely free from committing minor sins; “If we say that we have no sin,
we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us ( 1 John 1: 8
11. Christians believe that divine forgiveness and remission of sins can
ONLY be obtained by shedding of blood (Hebrews 9:22): yet in 2nd Chronicles
7:14, God Almighty says “If My people, who are called by My name will
humble themselves, and pray and seek My face, and turn from their wicked
ways, then I will hear from heaven, and I will FORGIVE THEIR SINS and will
heal their land.”.
Christians generally insist that the absolute need for a vicarious blood sacrifice is rooted in the Torah, and cite as proof Leviticus 17:11 which says: “For the life of the flesh is in the blood, and I have given it to you upon the altar to make an atonement for your souls; for it is the blood that makes an atonement for the soul.” But does this verse clearly teach that it is the only means God has provided to make atonement? Certainly not! In the Torah, blood sacrifices were not the only path to atonement; there were other ways to achieve forgiveness. For example, INCENSE served to atone for the people in Numbers 16:46-47, and GIVING CHARITY is described in Exodus 30:15-16 and Numbers 31:50 as "MAKING ATONEMENT FOR YOUR SOUL"– the same expression used in Leviticus 17:11. Besides,examining the Christian interpretation of Leviticus 17:11 generates some serious problems. What happens if someone can’t afford to purchase an animal for his sin offering? Is it possible that God would institute a system of atonement that could only be used by the wealthy? The Torah took this into account and allowed the poor person to bring two turtle doves or two young pigeons if he couldn’t afford a lamb (Leviticus 5:7). However, what if someone was so destitute, that he couldn’t afford even these small birds? See the solution offered by the Torah: "But if his means are insufficient for two turtle doves or two young pigeons, then for his offering for that which he has sinned, he shall bring the tenth of an ephah of FINE FLOUR for a sin offering; he shall not put oil on it or place incense on it, for it is a sin offering.” (Leviticus 5:11). SINCE FLOUR COULD BE USED FOR A SIN OFFERING, it is clear that blood was not a prerequisite for atonement. In fact, King Solomon prophesied that the Jewish people would earn forgiveness for their sins in the land of their enemies by sincere repentance and prayer where they could not have access to blood atonement sacrifices; " If they RETURN TO YOU WITH ALL THEIR HEART AND WITH ALL THEIR SOUL in the land of their enemies who have taken them captive, and PRAY TO YOU toward their land which You have given to their fathers, the city which You have chosen, and the house which I have built for Your name; then hear their prayer and their supplication in heaven Your dwelling place, and maintain their cause, and FORGIVE Your people who have sinned against You and ALL THEIR TRANSGRESSIONS which they have transgressed against You…” (I Kings 8:46-50). All these facts prove that Hebrew 9:22 is WRONG by asserting that without the shedding of blood there is no forgiveness of sins. It is interesting that according to Leviticus 16:10,21-22, the animal which effectuated the atonement for the sins of the nation of Israel was not killed, but sent alive out into the desert. This prove again that the shedding of blood is NOT A MUST for atonement of sin.
In fact,when Daniel advice the King Nebuchadnezzar on how he would atone for his sins and his iniquities, he did not ask the King to shed any blood. Read what he asked the King to do:"Therefore, O king, let my counsel be acceptable unto you, and break off your sins by PRACTICING RIGHTEOUSNESS, and your iniquities by SHOWING MERCY TO THE POOR(Daniel 4:27)".
12. Christians believe that EVERY WORD of the Bible is divine word of God:
yet Paul wrote extensively and gave judgments on the issue of marriage and
divorce without being inspired by God- " But to the rest, I PAUL, NOT THE
LORD, say :If any brother has a wife who does not believe, and she is
willing to live with him, let him not divorce her...... Now concerning
virgins, I HAVE NO COMMANDMENT FROM THE LORD, yet I give judgment as one
whom the Lord in His mercy has made trustworthy.(1st Corinthians 7:12-25) You
see here how Paul is saying that he is using his best personal
judgement,and that what is saying is not directly from God. Why would God
“inspire” Paul to say that his words were NOT from Him? Have you now seen
that Bible is a mixture of word of God and word of men? It is not stated in
any verse that EVERY WORD of the Bible is word of God. In fact, the author
of the book of Luke wrote as follows : “IT SEEMED GOOD TO ME also, having
had perfect understanding of all things from the beginning, to write to you
an orderly account, most excellent Theophilus (Luke 1:3)”. We can see again
that Luke wrote his Gospel not to the general humanity but to one specific
influential person he addressed as "most excellent Theophilus" and also not
because he was inspired by God but because it seemed good to him to write
such an account due to his thought of having a sound knowledge on the
matter.
13.Christians believe that after the disobedience and fall of the first
Adam, the ONLY WAY ordained by God to gain salvation, righteousness and
reconciliation back to God is by exercising faith in the death, burial and
resurrection of Jesus Christ (Romans 5:12-19): Yet the old testament saints
like Abraham, Jacob, Isaac, Moses etc and their sincere followers (who
lived and died before Jesus arrival) were able to gain salvation,
righteousness and reconciliation back to God without having the opportunity
to exercise faith in the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ.
14.Christians believe that performing miracles and wonders in Jesus name is
an evidence for divine origin of Christianity: yet Jesus said : Many will
say to me in that day ‘Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name, and
cast out demons in your name, and done many wonders in your name? And then
I will declare to them; I never knew you, depart from me, you who practice
lawlessness (Matthew 7:22-23). See how the Christians will be disowned and
rejected by Jesus on the Day of Judgment!
15. Christians believe that God should only be worshipped internally with
spirit and heart; In other word, there is no need for any ceremonial act of
worship like standing, bowing and prostration as observed in Muslim act of
prayer: Yet the divine mode of worship that God has chosen for the
Israelites during and after the time of Moses is as follows: And Ezra
opened the book in the sight of all the people, for he was standing above
all the people; and when he opened it, all the people stood up. And the
Ezra blessed the LORD, the GREAT GOD- which means Allahu-Akhbar. Then all the people answer Amen,
Amen! while lifting up their hands. And they BOWED THEIR HEADS (Rukuh) and worshipped the LORD with their FACES TO THE GROUND (Sujud)(Nehemiah 8:4-6). If God should only be worship in spirit with our heart and not with body and mind as believed by the Christians, then why did God establish such a ceremonial
and physical act of worship for the Israelites as shown above?

The doctrines that Christians embraced wholeheartedly are listed below .If
these doctrines (which are also hostile to the Bible) were to be removed
from Christian minds, then there is no difference again between
Christianity and Islam.1.Muslims believe in Jesus as a mighty prophet of God(Qur'an
19:30). 2.Muslims believe in Jesus miraculous birth(Qur'an 21:91) 3.Muslims
believe in all the miracles Jesus performed during his earthly ministry (Qur'an
5:110) 4.Muslims believe in Jesus ascension to heaven (Qur'an 4:158) 5.Muslims
believe in Jesus' 2nd coming toward the end of the world.(Qur'an 43:57-61).
But:
1. Christians believe that Jesus is God in human form according to the
doctrine of holy Trinity: yet when Jesus was praying to the Father, he said
“And this is eternal life, that they may know You, THE ONLY TRUE GOD, and
Jesus Christ whom you have sent (John 17:3). Therefore, if the Father is
the only true God according to Jesus Christ, then how could Jesus be God or
part of Triune God? Similarly in John 20:17, Jesus was reported to have
said “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, and to MY GOD and your
God”. If Jesus is God according to the Christians, then can God have
another God? Also Luke 6:12 recorded that Jesus went out to the mountain
side to pray, and continued all night in PRAYER TO GOD. If Jesus is God,
who was he praying to? Was he praying to himself or was God praying to God?
Similarly, in John 14:28, Jesus said: “ My Father is GREATER THAN I”. If
Jesus is God, why is he having someone greater than him? Can anybody be
greater than God? Again in Mark 10:18, Jesus said to one man who called him
good teacher as follows: “why do you call me good? NO ONE IS GOOD BUT ONE,
THAT IS GOD”. If Jesus is God, why did he reject and submit that all
goodness belongs to God?
2.Christians believe that the official title for Jesus Christ is son of God:
yet the official title Jesus gave himself in many verses of the Bible is “son
of Man”. It was even more than seventy times that Jesus called himself son
of Man in the four canonical gospel e.g. Mark 2:10, Matthew 8:20, 11:19
Luke 7:34,9:58 etc. But hardly do you see where Jesus directly and
personally called himself “son of God”
3. Christians believe that Jesus WILLINGLY laid down his life on the cross
for atonement sacrifice: yet Matthew 26:36-44 declare that Jesus prayed to
God and asked for the removal of "cup of death" in THREE consecutive times,
In fact the prayer was so serious to the extent that the sweat of Jesus was
like great drops of blood falling down to the ground(Luke 22:44).
According to Quran 4:157-158, God answered this prayer by making Jesus to escape the death on the cross in a miraculous way.
4.. Christians believe that Jesus was sent to the entire world: yet Jesus
said " I was not sent except to the lost sheep of the house of Israel
(Matthew 15:24)
5. Christians believe that Jesus died for our sins: yet Deuteronomy 24:16,
Ezekiel 18:20-22, Jeremiah 31:30,2nd Chronicles 25:4, 2nd Kings 14:6 and
Exodus 32:30-33 established that the person that commits sin is the one who
will die. Even logically, this christian doctrine cannot be true because if Jesus has already died for the sins of the christians, then it seems to imply that they are now free to commit sins in as much as they believe in this atonement sacrifice.
6. Christians believe that “the great light from heaven” that appeared to
Paul on the road to Damascus after Jesus has ascended to heaven (Acts
22:6- was true Jesus Christ :yet Jesus said “if anyone says here is
Christ or there, DO NOT BELIEVE IT (Matthew 24:23)”. Jesus also told the
original apostles; “I saw Satan falling like LIGHTNING FROM HEAVEN
(Luke10:18)”. If true Jesus Christ would later appear to Paul in form of “a
great light falling from heaven”, he would have foretold this event to the
original apostles before he ascended to heaven; instead of telling them not
to believe in any one that came in the name of Christ and also informing
them that he saw Satan falling from heaven in form of a great light.
7. Christians believe that omnipotent God of love and mercy MUST CURSE (Galatians 3:13) and condemn His only beloved and innocent son on the
cross of Calvary before they can secure eternal life: yet condemnation of
righteous and innocent soul is strictly forbidden in the Bible ( Matthew
12:7,proverb17:15,exodus23:7,psalm34:22) Besides,God is naturally known to always bless the innocent and righteous soul and never to curse the same soul for any reason whatsoever
8. Christians believe in Trinity: yet Jesus said " hear o Israel, the Lord
our God is ONE (Mark12:29) .He did not say three in one or one in three. If
God is triune in nature, Moses and all the prophets of God before Jesus
Christ would have made this known to the children of Israel.
9. Christians believe that God created All things through Jesus
Christ(Hebrews 1:2,1st Corinthians 8:6 and Colossians 1:16, John1:3,10):
yet God Almighty declare that He created the Heavens and the Earth ALL
ALONE: This is what the LORD says, your Redeemer who formed you from the
womb; I am the LORD who has made everything, Who ALONE stretch out the
heavens, Who spread out the earth- who was with Me at that time?-( Isaiah
44:24 ISV).
10. Christians believe that it is only the sacrificial blood of Jesus that
can take away our sins i:e it is impossible for the blood of bulls and
goats to take away sins(Hebrews 10:4): yet Leviticus 16:21-30 says " the
GOAT will carry on itself all the sins of Israelites to a remote place and
the man shall release the goat in the wilderness.. Then before the LORD,
you will be CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS”. ".There is no any indication
whatsoever in the verse quoted above that the sins of Israelites were only
covered and not completely taken away.. To insist and proclaim that there
is a difference between “take away of sins” and “clean from all sins” is
only an attempt to resolve an obvious and irreconcilable contradiction
between Hebrews 10:4 and Leviticus 16:21-30. The only way to resolve this
contradiction is when the term “take away of sins” in Hebrews 10:4 implies
complete removal of humanity sinful nature; and NOT achieving divine
forgiveness for already committed sins. However, complete removal of
humanity sinful nature by blood of Jesus is impossible as nobody can be
completely free from committing minor sins; “If we say that we have no sin,
we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us ( 1 John 1:”.
11. Christians believe that divine forgiveness and remission of sins can
ONLY be obtained by shedding of blood (Hebrews 9:22): yet in 2nd Chronicles
7:14, God Almighty says “If My people, who are called by My name will
humble themselves, and pray and seek My face, and turn from their wicked
ways, then I will hear from heaven, and I will FORGIVE THEIR SINS and will
heal their land.”.
12. Christians believe that EVERY WORD of the Bible is divine word of God:
yet Paul wrote extensively and gave judgments on the issue of marriage and
divorce without being inspired by God- " But to the rest, I PAUL, NOT THE
LORD, say :If any brother has a wife who does not believe, and she is
willing to live with him, let him not divorce her...... Now concerning
virgins, I HAVE NO COMMANDMENT FROM THE LORD, yet I give judgment as one
whom the Lord in His mercy has made trustworthy.(1st Corinthians7:12-25) You
see here how Paul is saying that he is using his best personal
judgement,and that what is saying is not directly from God. Why would God
“inspire” Paul to say that his words were NOT from Him? Have you now seen
that Bible is a mixture of word of God and word of men? It is not stated in
any verse that EVERY WORD of the Bible is word of God. In fact, the author
of the book of Luke wrote as follows : “IT SEEMED GOOD TO ME also, having
had perfect understanding of all things from the beginning, to write to you
an orderly account, most excellent Theophilus (Luke 1:3)”. We can see again
that Luke wrote his Gospel not to the general humanity but to one specific
influential person he addressed as "most excellent Theophilus" and also not
because he was inspired by God but because it seemed good to him to write
such an account due to his thought of having a sound knowledge on the
matter.
13.Christians believe that after the disobedience and fall of the first
Adam, the ONLY WAY ordained by God to gain salvation, righteousness and
reconciliation back to God is by exercising faith in the death, burial and
resurrection of Jesus Christ (Romans 5:12-19): Yet the old testament saints
like Abraham, Jacob, Isaac, Moses etc and their sincere followers (who
lived and died before Jesus arrival) were able to gain salvation,
righteousness and reconciliation back to God without having the opportunity
to exercise faith in the death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ.
14.Christians believe that performing miracles and wonders in Jesus name is
an evidence for divine origin of Christianity: yet Jesus said : Many will
say to me in that day ‘Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name, and
cast out demons in your name, and done many wonders in your name? And then
I will declare to them; I never knew you, depart from me, you who practice
lawlessness (Matthew 7:22-23). See how the Christians will be disowned and
rejected by Jesus on the Day of Judgment!
15. Christians believe that God should only be worshipped internally with
spirit and heart; In other word, there is no need for any ceremonial act of
worship like standing, bowing and prostration as observed in Muslim act of
prayer: Yet the divine mode of worship that God has chosen for the
Israelites during and after the time of Moses is as follows: And Ezra
opened the book in the sight of all the people, for he was standing above
all the people; and when he opened it, all the people stood up. And the
Ezra blessed the LORD, the great God. Then all the people answer Amen,
Amen! while lifting up their hands. And they BOWED THEIR HEADS and
worshipped the LORD with their FACES TO THE GROUND(Nehemiah 8:4-6). If God
should only be worship in spirit with our heart and not with body and mind
as believed by the Christians, then why did God establish such a ceremonial
and physical act of worship for the Israelites as shown above?

THE MOST IMPORTANT QUESTION; why is it that what Christians believe
always seem to contradict what is written inside the Bible? For
example 1. Christians believe that Jesus is God in a trinitarian
sense: yet when Jesus was praying to the Father he said " And this is
eternal life,that they may know You,THE ONLY TRUE GOD,and Jesus Christ
whom you have sent(John 17:3) Therefore,if the Father is the only true
God according to Jesus Christ, then how could Jesus be God or part of
Triune God? In fact, the word "ONLY" used by Jesus in this very verse
has put an end to any further argument on this issue of Jesus divinity
2. The official title given to Jesus by most Christians is son of
God: yet the official title Jesus gave himself in many verses of the
Bible is son of Man. 3. Christians believe that Jesus WILLINGLY laid
down his life for atonement sacrifice: yet Matthew 26:36-44 declare
that Jesus asked for the removal of cup of death in THREE consecutive
times. 4. Christians believe that Jesus was sent to entire world: yet
Jesus said " I was not sent except to the lost sheep of the house of
Israel (Matthew 15:24) 5. Christians believe that Jesus died for our
sins: yet Deuteronomy 24:16, Ezekiel 18:20-22, Jeremiah 31:30 and
Exodus 32:30-33 established that the person that commit sin is the
one who will die. 6. Christians believe that Jesus appeared to Paul on
the road to Damascus after Jesus has ascended to heaven (Acts
22:6-:yet Jesus said if anyone says here is Christ or there,DO NOT
BELIEVE IT (Matthew 24:23) 7. Christians believe that God of love and
mercy can condemn His beloved and innocent prophet on the cross for
the sins he has never committed: yet condemnation of righteous and
innocent person is strictly forbidden in the Bible ( Matthew
12:7,proverb 17:15,exodus 23:7,psalm34:22). 8. Christians believe in
Trinity: yet Jesus said " hear o Israel, the Lord our God is one
(Mark12:29) he did not say three in one or one in three.

Is it possible that Qur’an was deliberately fabricated by Prophet Muhammad (pbuh)? It is a well known fact that he can neither read nor write. Qur’an 29:48 says; “Neither did you (O Muhammad) read any book before this Qur’an, nor did you write any book with your right hand. In that case, indeed, the followers of falsehood might have doubted.” If he could read and write, how could he have called himself illiterate in the Quran especially in the presence of his people who knew him very much? Would you lie to your people about the matter you know they are well acquainted with? Now given that he was truly an illiterate, then how could he have fabricated many verses and plagiarized the Bible and then come up with such an eloquent book like Holy Qur’an? Before he could come out with any fabricated or plagiarized verses of the Bible or chapter and recite it to the hearing of his companion directly from memory, he must have written down the verses, memorized them and rehearsed the recitation many times in private. Yet all these activities would be very difficult, if not impossible, for an illiterate person. We have never heard it in history that an illiterate person authored a book. Again, there are some occasions that Qur’an rebukes the prophet on certain issues. Once, the prophet was deeply engaged in trying to explain Islam to one pagan leader. He was hopeful that he would accept Islam. But, suddenly, the prophet was interrupted by a blind man who wanted to learn the Qur’an from him. The prophet did not like that interruption and this was seen on his face. He turned away from this blind man and continued his act of preaching to this pagan leader. After a little moment, the prophet received the revelation of some verses which admonished and corrected him for this action of neglecting the blind man. These verses are as follows: He (the prophet) frowned and turned away. Because there came to him the blind man. And what would make you know that he (the pagan leader) would purify himself or become reminded so that the reminder should profit him? As for him ( the pagan leader) who consider himself self sufficient, to him you give attention. And no blame is on you if he(pagan leader) would not purify himself. But as for he (the blind man) who came to you striving (for knowledge) while he fears Allah, from him you turned away (Qur’an 80:1-10). If the Qur’an was fabricated by the prophet Muhammad (pbuh), such a reproachful speech against him would not be found in the Qur’an. Furthermore, there was a certain instance when the prophet was rushing in his attempt to grasp the revelation. He was in haste and he did not allow the Angel Gabriel to finish before he would start his own recitation. Therefore, God commanded him as follows; Move not your tongue concerning the Qur’an to make haste therewith. It is for Us (God) to gather the Qur’an in your chest and to give you the ability to recite it. Therefore when We have recited it to you, follow its recitation. Then it is for Us (God) to make the Qur’an clear to you (Qur’an 75:16-19). In another place, God says; And be not in haste with the Quran before its revelation is completed to you (O Muhammad pbuh) and say: My Lord increase me in knowledge (Qur’an 20:114). If the Holy Qur’an was fabricated by the prophet, all these kind of verses- commanding him not be in haste but to listen carefully and also giving him confidence over the ability to recite the Qur’an- would not be found on the pages of the Qur’an. Moreover, there is one thing peculiar to a liar who deliberately lied against God for gaining a particular worldly benefit. This kind of a liar is totally different from a common liar who only lied to save himself from one kind of difficult situation or another. Such a deliberate liar against God is usually in a certain state of mind without him realizing it. He was being greatly deceived by his own mind. Within his mind, he saw good reasons and justification for embarking on such an act of deliberately lying against God. In other word, the evil of his action is made to be good and fair-seeming in his own eyes without him realizing it. If he truly realized that he has actually been deceived by his own mind, he would not have embarked on such an action. But such a deliberate liar commits his act of lying because there is no way for him to realize that he has been deceived by his own mind. The author of Quran clearly makes reference to this very concept we are discussing which shows that the author was well familiar with this concept. In this way, the author of Qur’an has actually liberated himself from the possibility of being among such deliberate liars whose their bad deeds are made to be good in their own eyes. Therefore, the author of Qur’an could not be one of the deliberate liars against God. If he were to be one of them, there is no way he can realize and know about this concept; because nobody would actually know and fully realized that he was being deceived and then still allow the deception to be continued . Such references in the Quran are as follows: Is he (i:e a true prophet) who is on a clear proof from his Lord, like him( i:e a false prophet) to whom the evil of his work is made fair- seeming and beautified, and like those that follow their own lusts (Qur’an 47:14). Another reference for such concept is found in Quran 35:8 where God Almighty says: Is he ( i.e a false prophet), to whom the evil of his deeds made fair-seeming, so that he looks upon it as good ( equal to the one who is rightly guided)? Finally, every rational thinker will agree with me that a deliberate liar against God must have little or no faith in the existence of God. A person who is not mad but seriously resolved within his mind to deliberately lie against God in order to achieve some worldly gains must be totally or partially convinced that God does not exist. But contrary to the expectation of the Non-Muslims, the author of Holy Qur’an argue strongly in many verses for the existence of one true God in a very logical and convincing manner by making a lot of references to natural signs in the universe which truly point to the existence of God. Examples of such verses are as follows: Verily in the heavens and the earth, are Signs for those who believe. And in the creation of yourselves and the fact that animals are scattered through the earth, are Signs for people who have faith with certainty. And in the alternation of Night and Day, and the fact that God sends down Sustenance (i:e rain) from the sky, and revives therewith the earth after its death, and in the turning about of the Winds are Signs for those that are wise. Such are the Signs of God which We recite to you( O Muhammad-pbuh) in truth. Then in what exposition will they believe after rejecting God and His Signs?(Qur’an 45:3-6). And among His signs is this that He created you from dust and behold you are human beings scattered far and wide. And among His Signs is this, that He created for you wives from among yourselves, that you may find repose in them, and He has put between you affection and mercy. Verily in that are indeed Signs for those who think deeply. And among His Signs is the creation of the heavens and the earth, and the variations in your languages and your colors: verily in that are indeed Signs for men of sound knowledge. And among His Signs is the sleep that you take by night and by day, and your seeking of His bounty: verily in that are Signs for those who hearken. And among His Signs is that He shows you the lightning, by way of fear and hope, and He send down water from the sky, and therewith revives the earth after its death. Verily, in that are indeed Signs for those who are wise (Qur’an 30:20-24). Have they not looked at the heaven above them, how We have made it and beautify it, and there no flaws in it. And the earth We spread it out, and We set thereon mountains and We have made to grow therein every kind of beautiful plants. To be an insight and reminder to every servant who turns frequently to God (Qur’an 50:6-. In fact, time and space would not permit me to quote more verses. Please read those verses again. You will agree with me that the author of Qur’an who explained the signs for the existence of God in such a logical and convincing manner can never be the same person who would deliberately and boldly lie against the same God. The natural signs that the author put forward for the existence of God must have prevented him from deliberately and boldly impersonating such God. Even if the author was seriously in doubt about the existence of God, then he would never have that confidence and audacity to put his life and soul in danger as the following verse underlined below would implied if we assumed that the author was impersonating God; Verily, they were about to tempt you away from that which We(God) have revealed to you (O Muhammad -pbuh),to fabricate something other than it against Us(God), then they would certainly have taken you an intimate friend! And had We (God) not made you stand firm, you would nearly have inclined to them a little .In that case We (God) would have made you taste a double portion of punishment in this life and double portion of punishment after death. And then you would have found none to help you against Us (God)(Qur’an 17:73-75). Before any one, who is not mad, can be boldly and deliberately put his life and soul in danger by challenging and impersonating God in this way, he must have been completely and totally sure in his mind that God does not exist. Yet anyone, who is not an omniscient, cannot be completely and totally sure that God does not exist: let alone the author of Holy Qur’an who argue strongly for the existence of God in a very logical and convincing manner by calling our attention to many natural signs in the universe which actually point to God’s existence. Now, is it possible for the same author to be totally and completely sure that God does not exist to the extent of having that confidence and audacity to ask God Almighty to punish him twice both in this worldly life and in the life after death? Certainly not! No matter how little it may be, the author must exercise some kind of doubts in his belief that God does not exist. Even if the author was bold enough to ask God to punish him twice in this world, the author can never have that audacity to ask God to punish him again in the life after death. In fact, this point alone, if properly understood; prove two things at the same time. It proves that God must exist and that Qur’an must be God’s word; this is the only way we can resolve the apparent contradiction inherent in a concept of an author who argue logically and convincingly for the existence of one true God but at the same time deliberately and fearlessly impersonate the same God to the extent of asking God to punish him twice both in this world and in the hereafter. All these points cited above are enough to prove that the prophet Muhammad (pbuh) can never be the author of Holy Qur’an or a deliberate liar against God. Again, is it possible for the prophet to have a secret human teacher who assisted him to fabricate the Holy Qur’an since he could neither read nor write? But how can that teacher be kept in secret for good 23 years and remain hidden from his immediate family and companions who believed in him as true prophet of God? Besides, all the points raise above to disprove the plausibility of the first alternative can also be leveled against this second alternative because both presumed that the author of Holy Qur’an was an impersonator and deliberate liar against God.

Despite the fact that condemnation of a
righteous and innocent soul is clearly forbidden in the Bible (
Matthew12:7, Proverbs17:15,Exodus23:7,Psalm34:22), the same believers in
the Bible still believe that an Omnipotent and Merciful God MUST curse
(Galatians3:13) and condemn His only beloved and innocent son on a cross in
order to achieve a certain greater purpose like solving the problem of sin
with humanity. The doctrine of an only beloved and innocent son who was
under the curse and condemnation of His own merciful and omnipotent Father
is self contradictory and repugnant to human mind. Before the advent of
Christianity, nobody would believe that such a doctrine can even exist. It
is totally foreign and contradictory to our logical reasoning for God of
love, mercy and justice to curse an innocent and righteous soul for any
reason whatsoever. This is the reason why the message of atonement through
Jesus crucifixion was a stumbling block to the Jews and foolishness to the
gentiles during the lifetime of Jesus’ apostles ( 1st Corinthians 1:23). But
Paul, being very cunning, quickly fabricated some verses to solve this
problem of logical contradiction inherent in this very doctrine. One of
these verses is as follows: The natural man does not receive the things of
the spirit, for they are foolishness to him; he cannot understand them
because they are spiritually discerned ( 1st Corinthians 2:14). This is the
reason why many Christians see no logical problem again with the idea of “an
innocent and beloved son who was under the curse and condemnation of his
own merciful Father”. But why would God of reason and rationality (Isaiah
1:18) ask a natural man to believe and accept a true spiritual doctrine
that cannot be understood and completely foolish to his logical reasoning
especially when that reasoning is the ONLY INSTRUMENT at his disposal to
recognize that true spirituality in the midst of many fake spiritualities? If
there is only one spirituality in the entire world of human being, then
Paul may be right in his claim. But there are many spiritualities like
Christianity, Islam, Hinduism, Buddhism, Judaism, Confucianism, Taoism,
Sikhism etc. Since each of these spiritualities is claiming to be on the
right path, it is now left for any natural man to use the only instrument
(his logical reasoning) given to him by God to recognize the true
spirituality in the midst of many fake spiritualities. This is exactly the
reason why God must design the true spirituality in such a way that all its
basic and fundamental doctrine does not in conflict with the basic logical
reasoning He bestowed upon any natural man. A fundamental true spiritual
doctrine may support or be neutral to basic logical reasoning bestowed upon
natural man, but they will never in conflict with each other. How could
true spirituality designed by God and basic logical reasoning originated
from the same God be in conflict with each other? Have you now seen how
Paul get it wrong by asserting that “the natural man does not receive the
things of the spirit, for they are foolishness to him”? Is true
spirituality not meant to be accepted and embraced by natural man? Now that
it is foolishness to him; how is he going to accept and embrace it? To see
further that Paul is wrong in his claim; suppose you are invited by a
friend to accept a faith that is very rich in spirituality. But among the
fundamental doctrine you must embrace without question is that you have to
believe that God MUST commit an act of lying in order to achieve a certain
greater purpose(May He be Exalted) . 1.Would you just accept such faith
because of its spiritual richness or reject it because of its foolishness
to your logical reasoning? 2.Would you not ask about the actual connection
that exist between that greater purpose and the act of lying that must be
committed by God before the purpose can be achieved? 3. Would you not ask
why All- knowing and Omnipotent God decided to give preference for such
irrational way of lying to achieve a greater purpose over many rational
ways He can design and create from His infinite knowledge and unlimited
power to achieve that greater purpose? 4. Would you just accept that the
way of such a lying God is higher and complex than your own way of doing
things? Now ponder over these four questions cited above and then tell me
the difference between this imaginary faith which proclaim that God MUST
commit an act of lying to achieve a particular greater purpose and the
Christian faith which also proclaim that God MUST curse (Galatians 3:13)
and condemn an innocent and righteous soul to achieve a particular greater
purpose-like solving the problem of sin with humanity. Therefore, if you
reject this imaginary faith because of its foolishness to your logical
reasoning, then you must also reject Christianity since the two faiths are
telling us the exact opposite of what we naturally know about God. As God
is naturally known to ALWAYS TELL THE TRUTH AND NEVER TO COMMIT AN ACT OF LYING FOR ANY GREATER PURPOSE; He is also naturally known to ALWAYS BLESS THE INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL AND NEVER TO CURSE THE SAME SOUL FOR ANY GREATER PURPOSE- like solving the problem of sin with humanity. It is now
clear that even if there are some spiritual benefits in the inner rooms of
a true faith, there is still need for the logical reasoning to take us to
the main door of those inner rooms at first encounter. But as we have
pointed above, the doctrine of a merciful, omnipotent and All-knowing God
who cursed and condemned his only beloved and innocent son on the cross of
Calvary for a certain greater purpose is totally in conflict with what we
know naturally about God through our logical reasoning, yet this is one of
the fundamental doctrine you must embrace wholeheartedly for you to become a serious and devoted Christian. Therefore, there is need for God to send
another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the
minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an
was revealed to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed
this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring
that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an
4:157-158) . This is exactly in line with the prayer of jesus to God in the
garden of Gethsemane when he asked for the cup of suffering and death to be
taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew
26:36-44. Honestly, the fact that the Holy Qur’an is the only religious
book on earth that remove this negative and bad impression about God from
the minds of the general humanity is a very great indicator that the book
could never have come from no other person except God Himself

pls read everything before you comment on anything

But despite all this exposition that Qur’an could not have come from no
other person except God, some people still want to gather some evidence
from Qur’an and Hadith to prove that prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was a great
impersonator and fabricator against God. Their evidence is as follows: God
Almighty says; It is a revelation from the Lord of the worlds. And if he
(Muhammad-pbuh) had fabricated against Us some of the sayings, We would certainly
have seized him by the right hand. Then We would certainly have cut off his
aorta (Qur’an 69:43-46). Based on these verses and the Hadith (narrated by
Aisha that the prophet ate food containing poison according to the plan of
the Jews and he used to say ; O Aisha I still feel the pain caused by the
food I ate at khaibar, and at this time I feel as if my jugular vein is
being cut from that poison);these people now argue that the prophet must be
a deliberate liar against God. At first glance, you would think that their
argument is correct. But looking at those verses of the Qur’an and the
Hadith very carefully, you will discover that these people stand on a fake
platform based on the following cogent reasons: Those verses of Qur’an were
not talking about the nature of death the prophet would encounter in future
if he were to be a false prophet. But those verses were simply saying; if
the prophet had fabricated against God SOME OF THE SAYINGS (NOT the entire
message), then God should CERTAINLY HAVE CUT OFF (Laqo’tona) his aorta: the
term “ certainly have” indicate that this event should have taken place in
the PAST and NOT in the FUTURE(like after 23 years). Furthermore, the word
used in the Qur’an is Al-wateen which is translated as aorta: which is
quite different from the word Al-abhar used in the Hadith which means
jugular vein. Again, the Qur’an makes it clear that the aorta of such a
fabricator must ACTUALLY be cut off because of the word “certainly”. Yet
there is no any evidence or indication that the aorta of the prophet was
ACTUALLY cut off from that poison. If the poison has actually cut off his
aorta, he would never be the one to say; “I feel as if my vein is being cut
off” since he would have died before these words could ever come out from
his mouth. Feeling that something has happened is quite different from
‘that something has actually happened’. How could a poison, which would go
straight into the stomach, possess the power to ACTUALLY cut off the aorta? The
prophet only said those words metaphorically in order to express the kind
of pain and feelings he was passing through. If the prophet were truly a
fabricator and God wanted to use these verses of Qur’an to prove this case
to us, then one would expect his aorta to be cut off by THE SWORD (and
never by the poison) in the hand of his enemy during one of the many
battles he fought with the idol worshippers so that the fulfillment of
these verses can be clearly seen by all without any further argument. But
despite the fact that Qur’an said; We would CERTAINLY HAVE CUT OFF his aorta;
yet God did not allow the prophet to be struck on his neck by the SWORD or
KNIFE which would have been in perfect agreement with the what is written
in the Qur’an. From my own perspective, God allowed such words reported in
the Hadith to come out from prophet’s mouth only to serve as a test and
trial for those who are furiously searching for any slight evidence to
disqualify him as a true prophet of God. God wanted to test them: are they
going to base their judgment on this questionable evidence alone and
neglect all other clear evidence explained above which prove that the
prophet could never have fabricated the Holy Qur’an. This is exactly
similar to a kind of test and trial that God set forth for the atheists and
evolutionists: are they going to believe that human evolve from apes by
simply basing their judgment on the vague resemblance between the two
species and neglect all other evidence which prove that the entire process
of evolution could never have started at all due to natural law of entropy.
Even if the prophet was able to survive for 23 years after his claim as a
prophet of God but later died as a martyr by eating poison through the plan
of the Jews living at medina by that time, he has already achieved his aim.
In fact, that he was able to survive for complete 3 years after eating the
poison as narrated in another hadith while his companion who ate with him
died on the spot is another miracle on its own that also testified to his
prophet hood. In fact, God deliberately spare his life even after eating
the poison till concluding verse of his mission was revealed to him where
God Almighty declare as follows: This day, I have perfected your religion
for you, and I have completed My favor upon you, and I have chosen for you
Islam as your religion(Qur’an 5:3). If the prophet was a great impersonator
and great fabricator against God, then why would God have to wait for 23
years till this concluding verse was fabricated against Him? Yet He did not
even allow Hananiah ,the false prophet to even live for a year before he
removed him from the face of the earth (Jeremiah 28:1-17)
In fact, Qur’an was revealed to amend so many things in the lives of human
being. If not for the Qur’an, humanity would have been left with having
negative and bad picture about God. Despite the fact that condemnation of a
righteous and innocent soul is clearly forbidden in the Bible (
Matthew12:7, Proverbs17:15,Exodus23:7,Psalm34:22), the same believers in
the Bible still believe that an Omnipotent and Merciful God MUST curse
(Galatians3:13) and condemn His only beloved and innocent son on a cross in
order to achieve a certain greater purpose like solving the problem of sin
with humanity. The doctrine of an only beloved and innocent son who was
under the curse and condemnation of His own merciful and omnipotent Father
is self contradictory and repugnant to human mind. Before the advent of
Christianity, nobody would believe that such a doctrine can even exist. It
is totally foreign and contradictory to our logical reasoning for God of
love, mercy and justice to curse an innocent and righteous soul for any
reason whatsoever. This is the reason why the message of atonement through
Jesus crucifixion was a stumbling block to the Jews and foolishness to the
gentiles during the lifetime of Jesus’ apostles ( 1st Corinthians 1:23). But
Paul, being very cunning, quickly fabricated some verses to solve this
problem of logical contradiction inherent in this very doctrine. One of
these verses is as follows: The natural man does not receive the things of
the spirit, for they are foolishness to him; he cannot understand them
because they are spiritually discerned ( 1st Corinthians 2:14). This is the
reason why many Christians see no logical problem again with the idea of “an
innocent and beloved son who was under the curse and condemnation of his
own merciful Father”. But why would God of reason and rationality (Isaiah
1:18) ask a natural man to believe and accept a true spiritual doctrine
that cannot be understood and completely foolish to his logical reasoning
especially when that reasoning is the ONLY INSTRUMENT at his disposal to
recognize that true spirituality in the midst of many fake spiritualities? If
there is only one spirituality in the entire world of human being, then
Paul may be right in his claim. But there are many spiritualities like
Christianity, Islam, Hinduism, Buddhism, Judaism, Confucianism, Taoism,
Sikhism etc. Since each of these spiritualities is claiming to be on the
right path, it is now left for any natural man to use the only instrument
(his logical reasoning) given to him by God to recognize the true
spirituality in the midst of many fake spiritualities. This is exactly the
reason why God must design the true spirituality in such a way that all its
basic and fundamental doctrine does not in conflict with the basic logical
reasoning He bestowed upon any natural man. A fundamental true spiritual
doctrine may support or be neutral to basic logical reasoning bestowed upon
natural man, but they will never in conflict with each other. How could
true spirituality designed by God and basic logical reasoning originated
from the same God be in conflict with each other? Have you now seen how
Paul get it wrong by asserting that “the natural man does not receive the
things of the spirit, for they are foolishness to him”? Is true
spirituality not meant to be accepted and embraced by natural man? Now that
it is foolishness to him; how is he going to accept and embrace it? To see
further that Paul is wrong in his claim; suppose you are invited by a
friend to accept a faith that is very rich in spirituality. But among the
fundamental doctrine you must embrace without question is that you have to
believe that God MUST commit an act of lying in order to achieve a certain
greater purpose(May He be Exalted) . 1.Would you just accept such faith
because of its spiritual richness or reject it because of its foolishness
to your logical reasoning? 2.Would you not ask about the actual connection
that exist between that greater purpose and the act of lying that must be
committed by God before the purpose can be achieved? 3. Would you not ask
why All- knowing and Omnipotent God decided to give preference for such
irrational way of lying to achieve a greater purpose over many rational
ways He can design and create from His infinite knowledge and unlimited
power to achieve that greater purpose? 4. Would you just accept that the
way of such a lying God is higher and complex than your own way of doing
things? Now ponder over these four questions cited above and then tell me
the difference between this imaginary faith which proclaim that God MUST
commit an act of lying to achieve a particular greater purpose and the
Christian faith which also proclaim that God MUST curse (Galatians 3:13)
and condemn an innocent and righteous soul to achieve a particular greater
purpose-like solving the problem of sin with humanity. Therefore, if you
reject this imaginary faith because of its foolishness to your logical
reasoning, then you must also reject Christianity since the two faiths are
telling us the exact opposite of what we naturally know about God. As God
is naturally known to always tell the truth and never to commit an act of
lying for any greater purpose; He is also naturally known to always bless
the innocent and righteous soul and never to curse the same soul for any
greater purpose- like solving the problem of sin with humanity. It is now
clear that even if there are some spiritual benefits in the inner rooms of
a true faith, there is still need for the logical reasoning to take us to
the main door of those inner rooms at first encounter. But as we have
pointed above, the doctrine of a merciful, omnipotent and All-knowing God
who cursed and condemned his only beloved and innocent son on the cross of
Calvary for a certain greater purpose is totally in conflict with what we
know naturally about God through our logical reasoning, yet this is one of
the fundamental doctrine you must embrace wholeheartedly for you to become
a serious and devoted Christian. Therefore, there is need for God to send
another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the
minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an
was revealed to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed
this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring
that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an
4:157-158). This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the
garden of Gethsemane when he asked for the cup of suffering and death to be
taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew
26:36-44. Honestly, the fact that the Holy Qur’an is the only religious
book on earth that remove this negative and bad impression about God from
the minds of the general humanity is a very great indicator that the book
could never have come from no other person except God Himself.