₦airaland Forum

Pls dont distract our attention from the main topic. I ask you to PIN POINT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PREMISES OF ARGUMENT CITED ABOVE IS WRONG AND KINDLY STATE THE REASON

Before you consider the following premises of
argument explained below, please bear in mind
that On the authority of Holy Qur'an;
1. Muslims believe in Jesus as a mighty prophet
of God (Qur'an19:30).
2. Muslims believe in Jesus miraculous birth
(Qur'an21:91)
3. Muslims believe in the all the miracles
performed by Jesus during his earthly ministry
(Qur'an5:110)
4. Muslims believe in Jesus ascension to heaven
(Qur'an4:158)
5. Muslims believe in Jesus'2nd coming toward
the end of the world (Qur'an43:57-61)
You may write anything you like to rubbish this
thread. BUT PLEASE JUST MAKE SURE YOU
PINPOINT WHICH OF THE PREMISES LISTED
BELOW IS WRONG AND KINDLY STATE THE
REASON.
Premise 1: As part of our concept about God; God
is naturally known to ALWAYS SPEAK THE TRUTH
just like God is naturally known to ALWAYS
BLESS AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL.
Premise 2: Therefore, for any reason whatsoever,
it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO SPEAK A LIE just
like it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO CURSE AN
INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL.
Premise 3: Consequently, if there is a religious
faith which proclaims that GOD MUST SPEAK A
LIE at a particular period of time in order to
execute a program designed by God Himself, then
that religious faith must be false.
Premise 4: Similarly, if there is religious faith
which proclaims that GOD MUST CURSE AN
INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL at a particular
period of time in order to execute a program
designed by God Himself, then that religious faith
must also be false.
Premise 5: But Christianity is a religious faith
which proclaim that AN INNOCENT AND
RIGHTEOUS SOUL (i:e Jesus Christ) MUST BE
PUT UNDER THE CURSE OF GOD ( see
Deuteronomy 21:23, Galatians 3:13) on the cross
at Calvary before God can execute His program
designed to forgive and save the sinners.
Premise 6: Therefore, Christianity must be false.
If Jesus has to die by stoning to death, then I
may not have problem with that. But it is Bible
itself that said Jesus was CURSED by God due to
his death on the cross(Galatians 3:13). My point
is that God of mercy would never allow an
innocent and righteous Soul ( let alone His
beloved prophet) to fall under His curse for any
reason whatsoever.This is the reason why Jesus
must escape death on the cross and Quran
4:157-158 confirm this fact. In otherword,
God may allow an innocent and righteous soul to
suffer (i:e TO BE PHYSICALLY CONDEMNED) for
one reason or the other. But God would never
"curse" ( i:e SPIRITUALLY CONDEMN) an
innocent and righteous soul for any reason
whatsover. Therefore, there is need for God to
send another prophet to remove this negative and
bad picture of God from the minds of the general
humanity. This is one of the many reasons why
Qur’an was revealed by God to Prophet
Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God
removed this negative and bad impression from
the minds of the people by declaring that, in a
miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the
cross (Qur’an 4:157-158). In this way, the "curse
of God" associated with any one that is crucified
and died on a cross according to the Jewish law
(Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) was
removed from the head of our beloved and
innocent prophet called Jesus Christ (peace be
upon him). This is exactly in line with the prayer
of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane
when he asked for this “cup of condemnation” to
be taken away from him in THREE consecutive
times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44.ln
fact, Bible confirmed that this very prayer of
Jesus was answered by God :During the day of
Jesus’ life on earth, he offered up prayers and
petitions with fervent cries and tears to the one
who could save him from death, and he was
heard because of his reverent submission
(Hebrew 5:7NIV).If this prayer of Jesus was only
heard but not answered by God as some
Christians use to claim, then the phrase “because
of his reverent submission” in the verse quoted
above would no longer have any reasonable
meaning. In fact, the King James Version of the
Bible ends this verse with “and was heard in that
he feared (Hebrew 5:7KJV).Of course, what Jesus
feared was death on the cross. Hence, if Jesus
was heard in that he feared, this implies that he
escaped death on the cross. Therefore, an illogical
and contradictory concept of "a merciful God who
could not see any other way of forgiving those
who sincerely believe in Him except to curse an
innocent and righteous soul on the cross at
Calvary" is completely far away from the truth.
The fact that the Holy Qur’an is the only religious
book on earth that remove this negative and bad
impression about God from the minds of the
general humanity is a very great indicator that the
book could never have come from no other person
except God Himself.

Before you consider the following premises of argument explained below, please bear in mind that On the authority of Holy Qur'an; 1. Muslims believe in Jesus as a mighty prophet of God (Qur'an19:30). 2. Muslims believe in Jesus miraculous birth (Qur'an21:91) 3. Muslims believe in the all the miracles performed by Jesus during his earthly ministry (Qur'an5:110) 4. Muslims believe in Jesus ascension to heaven (Qur'an4:158) 5. Muslims believe in Jesus'2nd coming toward the end of the world (Qur'an43:57-61) You may write anything you like to rubbish this thread. BUT PLEASE JUST MAKE SURE YOU PINPOINT WHICH OF THE PREMISES LISTED BELOW IS WRONG AND KINDLY STATE THE REASON. Premise 1: As part of our concept about God; God is naturally known to ALWAYS SPEAK THE TRUTH just like God is naturally known to ALWAYS BLESS AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL. Premise 2: Therefore, for any reason whatsoever, it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO SPEAK A LIE just like it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO CURSE AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL. Premise 3: Consequently, if there is a religious faith which proclaims that GOD MUST SPEAK A LIE at a particular period of time in order to execute a program designed by God Himself, then that religious faith must be false. Premise 4: Similarly, if there is religious faith which proclaims that GOD MUST CURSE AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL at a particular period of time in order to execute a program designed by God Himself, then that religious faith must also be false. Premise 5: But Christianity is a religious faith which proclaim that AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL (i:e Jesus Christ) MUST BE PUT UNDER THE CURSE OF GOD ( see Deuteronomy 21:23, Galatians 3:13) on the cross at Calvary before God can execute His program designed to forgive and save the sinners. Premise 6: Therefore, Christianity must be false. God may allow an innocent and righteous soul to suffer (i:e TO BE PHYSICALLY CONDEMNED) for one reason or the other. But God would never "curse" ( i:e SPIRITUALLY CONDEMN) an innocent and righteous soul for any reason whatsoever. Therefore, there is need for God to send another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an was revealed by God to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an 4:157-158). In this way, the "curse of God" associated with any one that is crucified and died on a cross according to the Jewish law (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) was removed from the head of our beloved and innocent prophet called Jesus Christ (peace be upon him). This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked for this “cup of condemnation” to be taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44.ln fact, Bible confirmed that this very prayer of Jesus was answered by God :During the day of Jesus’ life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with fervent cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission (Hebrew 5:7NIV).If this prayer of Jesus was only heard but not answered by God as some Christians use to claim, then the phrase “because of his reverent submission” in the verse quoted above would no longer have any reasonable meaning. In fact, the King James Version of the Bible ends this verse with “and was heard in that he feared (Hebrew 5:7KJV).Of course, what Jesus feared was death on the cross. Hence, if Jesus was heard in that he feared, this implies that he escaped death on the cross. Therefore, an illogical and contradictory concept of "a merciful God who could not see any other way of forgiving those who sincerely believe in Him except to curse an innocent and righteous soul on the cross at Calvary" is completely far away from the truth. The fact that the Holy Qur’an is the only religious book on earth that remove this negative and bad impression about God from the minds of the general humanity is a very great indicator that the book could never have come from no other person except God Himself.

Before you consider the following premises of argument explained below, please bear in mind that On the authority of Holy Qur'an; 1. Muslims believe in Jesus as a mighty prophet of God (Qur'an19:30). 2. Muslims believe in Jesus miraculous birth (Qur'an21:91) 3. Muslims believe in the all the miracles performed by Jesus during his earthly ministry (Qur'an5:110) 4. Muslims believe in Jesus ascension to heaven (Qur'an4:158) 5. Muslims believe in Jesus'2nd coming toward the end of the world (Qur'an43:57-61) You may write anything you like to rubbish this thread. BUT PLEASE JUST MAKE SURE YOU PINPOINT WHICH OF THE PREMISES LISTED BELOW IS WRONG AND KINDLY STATE THE REASON. Premise 1: As part of our concept about God; God is naturally known to ALWAYS SPEAK THE TRUTH just like God is naturally known to ALWAYS BLESS AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL. Premise 2: Therefore, for any reason whatsoever, it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO SPEAK A LIE just like it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO CURSE AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL. Premise 3: Consequently, if there is a religious faith which proclaims that GOD MUST SPEAK A LIE at a particular period of time in order to execute a program designed by God Himself, then that religious faith must be false. Premise 4: Similarly, if there is religious faith which proclaims that GOD MUST CURSE AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL at a particular period of time in order to execute a program designed by God Himself, then that religious faith must also be false. Premise 5: But Christianity is a religious faith which proclaim that AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL (i:e Jesus Christ) MUST BE PUT UNDER THE CURSE OF GOD ( see Deuteronomy 21:23, Galatians 3:13) on the cross at Calvary before God can execute His program designed to forgive and save the sinners. Premise 6: Therefore, Christianity must be false. God may allow an innocent and righteous soul to suffer (i:e TO BE PHYSICALLY CONDEMNED) for one reason or the other. But God would never "curse" ( i:e SPIRITUALLY CONDEMN) an innocent and righteous soul for any reason whatsoever. Therefore, there is need for God to send another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an was revealed by God to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an 4:157-158). In this way, the "curse of God" associated with any one that is crucified and died on a cross according to the Jewish law (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) was removed from the head of our beloved and innocent prophet called Jesus Christ (peace be upon him). This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked for this “cup of condemnation” to be taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44.ln fact, Bible confirmed that this very prayer of Jesus was answered by God :During the day of Jesus’ life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with fervent cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission (Hebrew 5:7NIV).If this prayer of Jesus was only heard but not answered by God as some Christians use to claim, then the phrase “because of his reverent submission” in the verse quoted above would no longer have any reasonable meaning. In fact, the King James Version of the Bible ends this verse with “and was heard in that he feared (Hebrew 5:7KJV).Of course, what Jesus feared was death on the cross. Hence, if Jesus was heard in that he feared, this implies that he escaped death on the cross. Therefore, an illogical and contradictory concept of "a merciful God who could not see any other way of forgiving those who sincerely believe in Him except to curse an innocent and righteous soul on the cross at Calvary" is completely far away from the truth. The fact that the Holy Qur’an is the only religious book on earth that remove this negative and bad impression about God from the minds of the general humanity is a very great indicator that the book could never have come from no other person except God Himself.

Many of the Christians reject the Qur’an out rightly (even before having an opportunity to read what is written inside it) because they have been programmed right from childhood with the belief that Jesus (peace be upon him) was the last prophet of God sent to the entire world to die for the sins of all mankind. But how true is this claim? Have we not really been fooled with the assumption that religious faith of our parents is always right? Is it not high time for us to wake up from our slumber and then seek the truth with all diligence and open-mindedness? Was Jesus actually sent to the entire world? If Jesus (pbuh) was actually the last prophet of God sent to the entire world, then why did he have to say: I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? Now compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic verse; And We have not sent you (O Muhammad- pbuh) except as a giver of glad tidings and as a Warner to all mankind, but most men do not know (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind! There is no any indication in that Biblical verse that Jesus (pbuh) would later have anything to do with the Non- Israelites. In fact, when Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM,SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES,AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent only to the Israelites. But many of the Christian scholars proclaimed that this command of not preaching to the Gentiles was later cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, where Jesus was reported to have commanded the apostles to make disciples of all nations. Therefore, according to these Christian scholars, Jesus (pbuh) who was originally sent only to the Israelites later became the last prophet sent to the entire world. But should we really accept Matthew 28:19 as the actual word of Jesus (pbuh)? If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world as spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then why did Peter have to tell some of the Gentiles (Cornelius and his households) that sent for him as follows; YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28 NIV)? This very incident occurred many years after Jesus’ departure from this world. Was Peter, who happened to be a Jewish man, not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations stated in Matthew 28:19? Then why did peter have to say it is unlawful for him to associate with or visit a Gentile i:e the Non-Israelite after Jesus departure? Has he forgotten such a very great and important command in Matthew 28:19? Very hard to believe! The fact that the other apostles also criticized peter and became astonished when they overheard that Peter later honored the invitation of those Gentiles ( Acts 11:1-18) prove further that Peter and other apostles were completely unaware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19; Not that they had all forgotten. How could all apostles have forgotten such a very great and important command from their master? Even when Peter was justifying his visitation to those gentiles, he only defended himself and convinced the other apostles by making reference to the vision he had before he received the message from those Gentiles (Acts 10:1-28, 11:4-18) instead of simply reminding the other apostles about the so-called new command in Matthew 28:19. After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek- speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts. Moreover, if it was already in the divine plan ( i:e before Jesus came into the world) that the command of not preaching to the Gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus’ statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. All these facts are enough to prove that the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed to Jesus in Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it in other books of the New Testament are nothing but forgery.

It is an indisputable fact that Qur’an came after the Bible. Therefore, if the Christians sincerely and truthfully believe in Qur’an as the last and final word of God sent to the generality of human being, then they must have no option other than to accept Islam and become Muslims. But if the Christians insist that the original author of Qur’an is not God, then they must compulsorily believe its author to be a great liar and impersonator who spoke in the name and identity of God. The reason is that Qur’an contains many verses which appear to be coming directly from God’s mouth. Examples of such verses are as follows;

“O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone (Qur’an 2:40-41)”.

And that was Our proof which We gave to Abraham against his people. We raise whom We will in degrees. Certainly your Lord is All-Wise, All-Knowing. And We bestowed upon him Isaac and Jacob, each of them We guided. And before him We guided Noah, and among his progeny David, Solomon, Job, Joseph, Moses and Aaron. Thus do We reward the good doers. And Zachariah, and John and Jesus and Elias, all in the ranks of the righteous. And Ishmael and Elisha, and Jonah and Lot; each one of them We preferred above the nations. And also some of their fathers, and their progeny and their brethren, We chose them, and We guided them to a straight path. This is the guidance of God with which He guides whomsoever He wills of His servants. But if they had joined in worship others with God, all their deeds would have been of no benefit to them. They are whom We gave the book, and authority and prophet hood…They are those whom God had guided. So follow their guidance (Qur’an 6:84-90).

O My servants who believe! Certainly, My earth is spacious. Therefore worship Me and Me alone. Every soul shall have a taste of death. Then to Us you shall be brought back (Qur’an 29:56-57).

When My servants ask you concerning Me, I am indeed close to them. I listen to the prayer of every suppliant when he called on Me. Therefore, let them also obey Me and believe in Me, so that they may be walked in the right way (Qur’an 2:186).

We did not send before you (O Muhammad-pbuh) any messenger but We inspired him that there is no God beside Me; therefore worship Me (Qur’an 21:25)

These are just few verses selected randomly from the pages of the Holy Qur’an. You can see that almost all of the first person pronouns like “I”, “My”, “Me”, “Our”, “Us” and “We” in all the verses of Qur’an quoted above can never be referred CONTEXTUALLY to any other person except God. Therefore, anybody who denies the Qur’an as the word of God must compulsorily believe its author to be a liar and a great impersonator of God. This is the first point that I want all reasonable Christians to admit. It is either you believe in Qur’an as the word of God and then accept islam or you believe in it as the word of a great liar that impersonates God. There is no third alternative. But do you think the God of truth and wisdom would allow any deliberate liar to impersonate Him and then also allow such impersonator to praise all the Biblical prophets in the way the author of Qur’an has done? Is it possible for an impersonator and deliberate liar against God to be the author of those noble verses of Qur’an cited above especially when we call to mind that the first set of people the Qur’an was admonishing were idol-worshippers living in ancient Mecca? Has God ever sent a liar to guide the people who were in error to the right path?
Besides, how could God have left such a great liar and His impersonator to survive for good twenty-three years and also allow his book to be protected from destruction since one thousand four hundred and thirty nine years ago till today? The reason why God permit the other religions like Buddhism, Taoism, Hinduism, Confucianism, Sikhism (etc) and their scriptures to exist is because their founders only stood out as spiritual teachers. They never claim that their scriptures came from God of Israel. Their scriptures do not contain words which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD’S MOUTH OF ISRAEL. But Qur’an is totally different. Qur’an contains many verses which appear to be coming directly from God’s mouth of Israel. Examples are quoted above. So Qur’an is unique in its claim as being the word of God. Therefore, to believe that Qur’an is not authored by God create more problems for the Jews and the Christians than it really solves! They have to explain why God would allow a liar to impersonate him for good 23 years and also allow his book to be protected from destruction since 1,439 years ago till today; yet God did not even allow Hananiah, who deliberately lied against Him, to live for just a year (Jeremiah 28:1-17).
If God Almighty could allow any deliberate liar to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly and also allow the word of such impersonator to be protected from destruction since 1,439 years ago till today, then on what basis could any rational person distinguish such fake word of God from true word of God? Obviously, there would be no any difference between the two: This is exactly the reason why God would never permit such a reasonable and perfect impersonation to happen for such a long time. God may allow anybody to write or speak about Him as you may also allow your friend to write or speak about you. But if you as a truthful person would never allow your friend- talk less of your enemy- to impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people, then why do you think the God Almighty, who is more truthful than you, would allow such a thing to happen to Him especially when God declare as follows; how can I let myself to be defamed? I will not yield My glory to another (Isaiah 48:11). Please read those verses of Qur'an cited at the beginning again and again. Has God not let Himself to be defamed if He allowed a deliberate liar to impersonate Him in such a reasonable and perfect manner? Has God not yielded His glory to another if He allowed a deliberate liar to impersonate Him and also allow such impersonator to praise all the Biblical prophets in the way the author of Qur'an has done and then still allow the word of such impersonator to be safe-guarded from destruction since 1,439 years ago till today as exactly prophesied in Qur’an 15:9: “Surely, We have revealed the reminder ((i:e the Qur’an) and We will most surely be its guardian”.
In fact, God deliberately spare the life of His prophet till concluding verse of his mission was revealed to him where God Almighty declare as follows: This day, I have perfected your religion for you, and I have completed My favor upon you, and I have chosen for you Islam as your religion(Qur’an 5:3). If the prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was a great impersonator and a great liar against God as Jews and Christians believe, then why would God have to wait for 23 years till this concluding verse of his mission was fabricated against Him especially when there were many great opportunities for God to terminate his life in one of the battles he fought with his enemies?
If God would allow a liar to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly, then He should have clearly informed us in the Bible just like Jesus informed us about his own impersonation: “Take heed that no one deceives you. For many will come in my name, saying ‘I am the Christ’, and will deceive many (Matthew 24:4-5)”.See how Jesus declared in an unambiguous terms that many liars would impersonate him. If this is the case, how then can we be sure that some of the words attributed to Jesus like " Nobody can come to the Father except through me (John 14:6)" actually came from Jesus mouth and not from the mouth of a liar that impersonates him? However, you can never find a single biblical verse where God categorically inform us and foretell that a great liar is going to impersonate Him. If God of truth and wisdom would also allow a liar to impersonate Him, He should also have informed us in a very precise term in the Bible just like Jesus did. Consequently, while we have a biblical reason to doubt any statement which appear to be coming from Jesus mouth, there is absolutly no reason to doubt any reasonable statement which appear to be coming directly from God's mouth (like verses of Qur'an quoted above). Jesus foretold that he would be impersonated by liars but there is no any biblical verse where God foretell that He would be impersonated by a liar.
It is a well known fact that Qur’an is full of praising God and all the biblical prophets. It commands what is good and forbids what is bad. It encourages us to prepare for the Day of Judgment. It tells us about the heavenly Paradise which is meant for the righteous and the fire of hell make ready for the unbelievers. Therefore, if the author of Qur’an was truly an impersonator of God as all Christians must presume, then God of truth, power and wisdom should not have allowed such a deceptive and hypo critical book to be in existence from 1,439 years ago till today. God should have designed a way through which such a book would be utterly destroyed together with its author. But if we assume that God Almighty, in His infinite wisdom, deliberately allowed the word of so-called impersonator to be protected from destruction in order to serve as a test for the true believers in one and only God, then God should have pre informed us and warned us about this great impersonator in the Bible just like Jesus talked about his own impersonators in Matthew 24:4-5.
But instead of warning us and pre-informing us about the so-called liar that is going to impersonate Him, God only demonstrated to us, through His dealing with Hananiah (the false prophet who spoke in the name of God in the Bible), that He would never allow such a thing to happen for a long time; Then the prophet Jeremiah said to Hananiah the prophet, ‘Listen, Hananiah! The Lord has not sent you, yet you have persuaded this nation to trust in lies. Therefore this is what the Lord says: I am about to remove you from the face of the earth. This very year you are going to die, because you have preached rebellion against the Lord. In the seventh month of that same year, Hananiah the prophet died (Jeremiah 28:15-17).
You will notice that what happened to Hananiah (i:e untimely death) is exactly what God has already foretold about “a false prophet who impersonates and speaks in the name of God” as written in the book of Deuteronomy; But the prophet who presumes to speak a word in My name that I have not commanded him to speak, or who speaks in the name of other gods, THAT SAME PROPHET SHALL DIE (Deuteronomy 18:20).
Therefore, if God did not even allow Hananiah to live for just a year, then how could He have allowed the supposed author of Qur’an to impersonate Him and deliberately lie against Him for good 23 years? This is indeed a food for thought for the sincere Jews and Christians who truly believe in the existence of God!

It is an indisputable fact that Qur’an came after the Bible. Therefore, if the Christians sincerely and truthfully believe in Qur’an as the last and final word of God sent to the generality of human being, then they must have no option other than to accept Islam and become Muslims. But if the Christians insist that the original author of Qur’an is not God, then they must compulsorily believe its author to be a great liar and impersonator who spoke in the name and identity of God. The reason is that Qur’an contains many verses which appear to be coming directly from God’s mouth. Examples of such verses are as follows;

“O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone (Qur’an 2:40-41)”.

And that was Our proof which We gave to Abraham against his people. We raise whom We will in degrees. Certainly your Lord is All-Wise, All-Knowing. And We bestowed upon him Isaac and Jacob, each of them We guided. And before him We guided Noah, and among his progeny David, Solomon, Job, Joseph, Moses and Aaron. Thus do We reward the good doers. And Zachariah, and John and Jesus and Elias, all in the ranks of the righteous. And Ishmael and Elisha, and Jonah and Lot; each one of them We preferred above the nations. And also some of their fathers, and their progeny and their brethren, We chose them, and We guided them to a straight path. This is the guidance of God with which He guides whomsoever He wills of His servants. But if they had joined in worship others with God, all their deeds would have been of no benefit to them. They are whom We gave the book, and authority and prophet hood…They are those whom God had guided. So follow their guidance (Qur’an 6:84-90).

O My servants who believe! Certainly, My earth is spacious. Therefore worship Me and Me alone. Every soul shall have a taste of death. Then to Us you shall be brought back (Qur’an 29:56-57).

When My servants ask you concerning Me, I am indeed close to them. I listen to the prayer of every suppliant when he called on Me. Therefore, let them also obey Me and believe in Me, so that they may be walked in the right way (Qur’an 2:186).

We did not send before you (O Muhammad-pbuh) any messenger but We inspired him that there is no God beside Me; therefore worship Me (Qur’an 21:25)

These are just few verses selected randomly from the pages of the Holy Qur’an. You can see that almost all of the first person pronouns like “I”, “My”, “Me”, “Our”, “Us” and “We” in all the verses of Qur’an quoted above can never be referred CONTEXTUALLY to any other person except God. Therefore, anybody who denies the Qur’an as the word of God must compulsorily believe its author to be a liar and a great impersonator of God. This is the first point that I want all reasonable Christians to admit. It is either you believe in Qur’an as the word of God or you believe in it as the word of a great liar that impersonates God. There is no third alternative. But do you think the God of truth and wisdom would allow any deliberate liar to impersonate Him and then also allow such impersonator to praise all the Biblical prophets in the way the author of Qur’an has done? Is it possible for an impersonator and deliberate liar against God to be the author of those noble verses of Qur’an cited above especially when we call to mind that the first set of people the Qur’an was admonishing were idol-worshippers living in ancient Mecca? Has God ever sent a liar to guide the people who were in error to the right path?
Besides, how could God have left such a great liar and His impersonator to survive for good twenty-three years and also allow his book to be protected from destruction since one thousand four hundred and thirty nine years ago till today? The reason why God permit the other religions like Buddhism, Taoism, Hinduism, Confucianism, Sikhism (etc) and their scriptures to exist is because their founders only stood out as spiritual teachers. They never claim that their scriptures came from God of Israel. Their scriptures do not contain words which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD’S MOUTH OF ISRAEL. But Qur’an is totally different. Qur’an contains many verses which appear to be coming directly from God’s mouth of Israel. Examples are quoted above. So Qur’an is unique in its claim as being the word of God. Therefore, to believe that Qur’an is not authored by God create more problems for the Jews and the Christians than it really solves! They have to explain why God would allow a liar to impersonate him for good 23 years and also allow his book to be protected from destruction since 1,439 years ago till today; yet God did not even allow Hananiah, who deliberately lied against Him, to live for just a year (Jeremiah 28:1-17).
If God Almighty could allow any deliberate liar to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly and also allow the word of such impersonator to be protected from destruction since 1,439 years ago till today, then on what basis could any rational person distinguish such fake word of God from true word of God? Obviously, there would be no any difference between the two: This is exactly the reason why God would never permit such a reasonable and perfect impersonation to happen for such a long time. God may allow anybody to write or speak about Him as you may also allow your friend to write or speak about you. But if you as a truthful person would never allow your friend- talk less of your enemy- to impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people, then why do you think the God Almighty, who is more truthful than you, would allow such a thing to happen to Him especially when God declare as follows; how can I let myself to be defamed? I will not yield My glory to another (Isaiah 48:11). Please read those verses of Qur'an cited at the beginning again and again. Has God not let Himself to be defamed if He allowed a deliberate liar to impersonate Him in such a reasonable and perfect manner? Has God not yielded His glory to another if He allowed a deliberate liar to impersonate Him and also allow such impersonator to praise all the Biblical prophets in the way the author of Qur'an has done and then still allow the word of such impersonator to be safe-guarded from destruction since 1,439 years ago till today as exactly prophesied in Qur’an 15:9: “Surely, We have revealed the reminder ((i:e the Qur’an) and We will most surely be its guardian”.
In fact, God deliberately spare the life of His prophet till concluding verse of his mission was revealed to him where God Almighty declare as follows: This day, I have perfected your religion for you, and I have completed My favor upon you, and I have chosen for you Islam as your religion(Qur’an 5:3). If the prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was a great impersonator and a great liar against God as Jews and Christians believe, then why would God have to wait for 23 years till this concluding verse of his mission was fabricated against Him especially when there were many great opportunities for God to terminate his life in one of the battles he fought with his enemies?
If God would allow a liar to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly, then He should have clearly informed us in the Bible just like Jesus informed us about his own impersonation: “Take heed that no one deceives you. For many will come in my name, saying ‘I am the Christ’, and will deceive many (Matthew 24:4-5)”.See how Jesus declared in an unambiguous terms that many liars would impersonate him. If this is the case, how then can we be sure that all the words attributed to Jesus in all the books of the New Testament actually came from Jesus mouth and not from the mouth of a liar that impersonates him? However, you can never find a single biblical verse where God categorically inform us and foretell that a great liar is going to impersonate Him. If God of truth and wisdom would also allow a liar to impersonate Him, He should also have informed us in a very precise term in the Bible just like Jesus did.
It is a well known fact that Qur’an is full of praising God and all the biblical prophets. It commands what is good and forbids what is bad. It encourages us to prepare for the Day of Judgment. It tells us about the heavenly Paradise which is meant for the righteous and the fire of hell make ready for the unbelievers. Therefore, if the author of Qur’an was truly an impersonator of God as all Christians must presume, then God of truth, power and wisdom should not have allowed such a deceptive and hypo critical book to be in existence from 1,439 years ago till today. God should have designed a way through which such a book would be utterly destroyed together with its author. But if we assume that God Almighty, in His infinite wisdom, deliberately allowed the word of so-called impersonator to be protected from destruction in order to serve as a test for the true believers in one and only God, then God should have pre informed us and warned us about this great impersonator in the Bible just like Jesus talked about his own impersonators in Matthew 24:4-5.
But instead of warning us and pre-informing us about the so-called liar that is going to impersonate Him, God only demonstrated to us, through His dealing with Hananiah (the false prophet who spoke in the name of God in the Bible), that He would never allow such a thing to happen for a long time; Then the prophet Jeremiah said to Hananiah the prophet, ‘Listen, Hananiah! The Lord has not sent you, yet you have persuaded this nation to trust in lies. Therefore this is what the Lord says: I am about to remove you from the face of the earth. This very year you are going to die, because you have preached rebellion against the Lord. In the seventh month of that same year, Hananiah the prophet died (Jeremiah 28:15-17).
You will notice that what happened to Hananiah (i:e untimely death) is exactly what God has already foretold about “a false prophet who impersonates and speaks in the name of God” as written in the book of Deuteronomy; But the prophet who presumes to speak a word in My name that I have not commanded him to speak, or who speaks in the name of other gods, THAT SAME PROPHET SHALL DIE (Deuteronomy 18:20).
Therefore, if God did not even allow Hananiah to live for just a year, then how could He have allowed the supposed author of Qur’an to impersonate Him and deliberately lie against Him for good 23 years? This is indeed a food for thought for the sincere Jews and Christians who truly believe in the existence of God!

Qur'an tell us categorically that Muhammad (pbuh) saw Angel Gabriel (Qur'an 53:5-10). Therefore, the question of whether Muhammad( pbuh) saw Angel Gabriel or not is a question of whether the Qur'an is from God or not. Of course I have given you at the beginning of this post the reason why Qur'an could not have come from no other person except God Himself.

Qur'an tell us categorically that Muhammad (pbuh) saw Angel Gabriel (Qur'an 53:5-10). Therefore, the question of whether Muhammad( pbuh) saw Angel Gabriel or not is a question of whether the Qur'an is from God or not. Of course I have given you at the beginning of this post the reason why Qur'an could not have come from no other person except God Himself.

Christians are programmed to believe that THE WHOLE of the Bible is divine word of God: yet Paul wrote extensively and gave judgments on the issue of marriage and divorce without being inspired by God- " But to the rest, I (PAUL), NOT THE LORD, say: If any brother has a wife who does not believe, and she is willing to live with him, let him not divorce her...... Now concerning virgins, I HAVE NO COMMANDMENT FROM THE LORD, yet I give judgment as one whom the Lord in His mercy has made trustworthy.(1st Corinthians 7:12-25) You see here how Paul is saying that he is using his best personal judgement,and that what he was writing is not directly from God. Why would God “inspire” Paul to say that his words were NOT from Him? Have you now seen that Bible is a mixture of word of God and word of men? It is not stated in any verse that EVERY WORD of the Bible is word of God. In fact, the author of the book of Luke wrote as follows: “IT SEEMED GOOD TO ME ALSO, having had perfect understanding of all things from the beginning, to write to you an orderly account, most excellent Theophilus (Luke 1:3)”. You can see again that St Luke wrote his Gospel not because he was inspired by God but because it seemed good to him to write such an account due to his thought of having a sound knowledge on the matter. In fact, he wrote his Gospel not to the general humanity (like you and I) but to one specific influential person he addressed as "most excellent Theophilus" as clearly seen in the verse cited above. The only verse often used by Christians to prove that every word of the Bible is word of God is word of Paul in 2nd Timothy 3:16 which says “All scripture is given by inspiration of God”. But how can we believe that the term “All scripture” used by Paul refers to the entire Bible especially when the author of this very verse confessed that he wrote some things which were not actually inspired by God? Besides, at the time this verse was written by Paul, most of the New Testament books were yet to be penned down talk less of putting them together; therefore there is no any reason to believe that Paul has the other books of New Testament in mind when he was writing; “All scripture is given by inspiration of God". Even if we assume that this statement written by Paul refers to the entire Bible, there is still need for external evidence to prove that this very verse written by Paul is also divinely inspired by God. The fact that a friend of yours simply tell you “I AM NOT LYING" is not enough to prove that he has actually spoken the truth about the matter he was telling you. What if the statement “I AM NOT LYING” is another lie? Of course, this principle also applies to 2nd Timothy 3:16, 2nd peter 1:21 and any other verses used by Christians to claim divine origin for the entire Bible. The fact that these verses declare that the Bible writers were inspired by God and guided by the holy spirit are not enough to prove that the entire Bible is word of God because these verses themselves also require their own external evidence to prove their divinity; just like the statement “I AM NOT LYING” require its own external evidence to prove that this very statement itself is not another lie on its own.( Hope you have really gotten my point.) The only exception to this rule is when we have a verse COMING DIRECTLY from God's mouth. This kind of verse where God would be speaking to us directly using the first person pronouns like " I, ME,MY, WE, US etc" does not require any external evidence to establish its divine origin because God of truth would never allow a deliberate liar to impersonate Him reasonably for a long time ( Jeremiah 28:1-17, Psalm 101:7, Deuteronomy 18:20) just like a man of truth would never allow his friend-talk less of his enemy-to impersonate him. Therefore, the statements like "All scripture is given by inspiration of God (2nd Timothy 3:16)", “For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spoke as they moved by the holy spirit (2nd Peter 1:21)” and the likes cannot be used to establish the divine origin for all the books in the Bible because 1. These verses are not coming directly from God's mouth. 2. These verses are not specific enough for anyone to conclude that they refer exclusively to the entire Bible. However, such statements like " All scriptures in this Bible is given by inspiration from Me”. These holy men were moved by My spirit to speak what is written inside this Bible” and the likes can be used to establish divine origin for all the books in the Bible because they are sufficient to prove their divine origin. However, such statements coming directly from God’s mouth and at the same time establishing the divine origin for all the books in the Bible is nowhere to be found inside the Bible. Even the word “BIBLE” cannot be found within the Bible; talk less of a verse coming directly from God’s mouth which would establish the divine origin for all the books in the Bible. Therefore, Bible still maintains its identity as being the word of God mixed together with the word of men; there are some verses which came directly from God’s mouth (like “If My people, who are called by My name will humble themselves, and pray and seek My face, and turn from their wicked ways, then I will hear from heaven, and I will forgive their sins and will heal their land(2 Chronicles 7:14)” and yet there are some verses which came directly from men( like the word of Paul and St Luke quoted at the beginning) . Among those verses in the Bible which came directly from God's mouth, there is none that establish divine origin for all the books in the Bible. That is, statements like “This Bible was inspired by Me or these people were moved by My spirit to write down all the books in the Bible" are nowhere to be found inside the Bible. The reason why such a verse is important and necessary to be present in the Bible is that, unlike Qur’an which is a single book, Bible is not a single book but a collection of books written by different authors at different times. Therefore, it is either each of every book in the Bible contains its own evidence for its divine origin or there is a verse uniting all the books in the Bible together as a single entity called Bible and then establishing divine origin for the whole of such Bible. However, not all the books in the Bible contain such verses coming directly from God’s mouth. Again, there is no a single verse in the Bible uniting all the books in the Bible together as an entity called Bible( i:e the word “Bible” is not found inside the Bible) talk less of a direct verse from God’s mouth that would establish divine origin for the whole of the Bible. This simply shows that selection and compilation of all the books in the Bible was not something commissioned by God Almighty. Therefore, the reason why Catholic Bible contains seven more books than the Protestant Bible is now clear to us. But does the Qur’an suffer similar problem? Certainly not! Beside the fact that Qur’an unite all its part together by making reference to its self as an entity called Qur’an (i:e the word “Qur’an” is found inside the Qur’an) in more than seventy places (in places like Qur’an 17:88, 10:37, 38:1, 47:24, 36:2, 50:1, 59:21 etc); there are also many verses coming directly from God’s mouth which establish the divine origin for the whole of the Qur’an. Examples of such verses are as follows: This is the revelation sent down from the Lord of the worlds. If he (Muhammad-pbuh) had forged some of the sayings concerning Us, We surely should have seized him by his right hand. And then We certainly should have cut off his life artery (Qur’an 69:43-46).
“O children of Israel! Remember My favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone(Qur’an 2:40-41).
We have not sent down the Qur’an unto you (O Muhammad-pbuh) to cause you distress. But only as a reminder to those who fear God. A revelation from Him who created the earth and the high heavens (Qur’an 20:2-3).
You can see that all the first person pronouns like “Us, We, MY, I, Me” in all the verses of Qur’an quoted above can never be referred CONTEXTUALLY to any other person except God. . Other examples of similar verses can be found in Qur’an 15:9, 12:2-3, 21:10.50, 35:31-32, 17:105-106 16:101-103, 6:92 etc. However, example of such verses “coming directly from God’s mouth which would establish divine origin for the WHOLE of the Bible” cannot be found inside the Bible.

It was Judas who was killed on the cross; not an innocent soul. The Judas really deserved that curse because he was the one who made an attempt to betray Jesus his own master. It was the resemblance of Jesus that was put on Judas' face at the point of kissing Jesus and the troop of army mistook Judas for Jesus. This is the reason why there is confusion in the Bible regarding how Judas ends his life. The book of Matthew 27:5 reports that Judas hung himself while the book of Acts 1:18 narrates that he fell from a height and his bowel burst open. Therefore there is no any contradiction regarding how our beloved prophet Jesus(peace be upon him) escaped death on the cross.

If Jesus has to die by stoning to death, then I may not have problem with that. But it is Bible itself that said Jesus was CURSED by God due to his death on the cross(Galatians 3:13). My point is that God of mercy would never allow an innocent and righteous Soul ( let alone His beloved prophet) to fall under His curse for any reason whatsoever.This is the reason why Jesus must escape death on the cross and Quran 4:157-158 confirm this fact

One of the characteristics of a true faith is that what the people believe are always found to be similar to what is written in their holy book. Whenever there is a great discrepancy between what the people believe and what is written inside their holy books, then something is wrong somewhere. Therefore, the most important question which many Bible scholars overlooked is that why Christian beliefs always seem to contradict what is written inside the Bible? For example;
1. Christians believe that Jesus is God that became flesh according to the doctrine of holy Trinity: yet in John 20:17, Jesus was reported to have said “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, and to my God and your God”. If Jesus is God according to the Christians, then can God have another God? Also Luke 6:12 recorded that Jesus went out to the mountain side to pray, and continued all night in PRAYER TO GOD. If Jesus is God, who was he praying to? 2.Christians believe that the official title for Jesus Christ is "son of God": yet the official title Jesus gave himself in many verses of the Bible is “SON OF MAN”. It was even more than SEVENTY places that Jesus called himself son of Man in the four canonical gospel e.g. Mark 2:10, Matthew 8:20, 11:19 Luke 7:34, 9:58 etc. But hardly do you see where Jesus directly and personally called himself “son of God”
3. Christians believe that Jesus WILLINGLY laid down his life on the cross for atonement sacrifice: yet Matthew 26:36-44 declare that Jesus prayed to God and asked for the removal of "cup of death" in THREE consecutive times, saying; my soul is exceedingly sorrowful even to death……O my Father, if it is possible, let this cup pass from me; nevertheless, not as I will but as you will. In fact the prayer was so serious to the extent that the sweat of Jesus was like great drops of blood falling down to the ground(Luke 22:44).
4. Christians believe that Jesus was sent to the entire world: yet Jesus said " I was not sent except to the lost sheep of the house of Israel (Matthew 15:24).
5. Christians believe that Jesus died for our sins: yet God Almighty declares as follow: THE SOUL WHO SINS IS THE ONE WHO WILL DIE. The son will not share the guilt of the father, nor will the father share the guilt of the son. THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF THE RIGHTEOUS MAN WILL BE CREDITED TO HIM, AND THE WICKEDNESS OF THE WICKED WILL BE CHARGED AGAINST HIM."But if a wicked man turns away from all the sins he has committed and keeps all my decrees and does what is just and right, he will surely live; he will not die. None of the offenses he has committed will be remembered against him. Because of the righteous things he has done, he will live. (Ezekiel 18:20-22). It is very clear from these verses that there is no need for Jesus to die for our sins. If we repent sincerely from our sinful ways and follow the path of righteousness, none of the offenses we have committed will be remembered against us. God Almighty also repeat the same message in the Qur’an; And verily, I FORGIVE ALL SINS UNTO ANY ONE WHO REPENTS and attains to faith and does righteous deeds, and thereafter keeps to the right path (Qur’an 20:82).

6. Christians believe that “the great light from heaven” that appeared to Paul on the road to Damascus after Jesus has ascended to heaven (Acts 22:6- was true Jesus Christ : yet Jesus said “if anyone says here is Christ or there, DO NOT BELIEVE IT (Matthew 24:23)”. Jesus also told the original apostles; “I saw Satan falling like LIGHTNING FROM HEAVEN (Luke10:18)”. If true Jesus Christ would later appear to Paul in form of “a great light falling from heaven”, he would have foretold this event to the original apostles before he ascended to heaven; instead of telling them not to believe in any one that came in the name of Christ and also informing them that he saw Satan falling from heaven in form of a great light.
7. Christians believe that omnipotent God of love and mercy must curse and condemn His only beloved and innocent son on the cross of Calvary before they can secure eternal life: yet condemnation of righteous and innocent person is strictly forbidden in the Bible ( Matthew 12:7,proverb17:15,exodus23:7,psalm34:22). The doctrine of an only beloved and innocent son who was under the curse (Galatians 3:13) and condemnation of His own merciful Father is self-contradictory and repugnant to human mind.

8. Christians believe in Trinity: Yet Jesus said " hear o Israel, the Lord our God is ONE (Mark12:29)”. Jesus did not say three in one or one in three. If God’s nature cannot be changed and if God is triune in nature, then Moses and all the prophets of God before Jesus Christ would have made this known to the children of Israel and Deuteronomy 6:4 should have read: “Hear O Israel; The Lord our God is three in one or one in three” instead of “Hear O Israel: The Lord our God is one”. In fact, the word “Trinity” is nowhere to be found if you check the Bible from Genesis to Revelation.
9. Christians believe that God created All things through Jesus Christ(Hebrews 1:2,1st Corinthians 8:6 and Colossians 1:16, John1:3,10): yet God Almighty declare that He created the Heavens and the Earth ALL ALONE: This is what the LORD says, your Redeemer who formed you from the womb; I am the LORD who has made everything, Who ALONE stretch out the heavens, Who spread out the earth- who was with Me at that time?-( Isaiah 44:24 ISV).
10. Christians believe that it is only the sacrificial blood of Jesus that can take away our sins i:e it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sins(Hebrews 10:4): yet Leviticus 16:21-30 says as follows "the GOAT will carry on itself all the sins of Israelites to a remote place and the man shall release the goat in the wilderness......Then before the LORD, you will be clean from all your sins”. However by relying heavily on Hebrews 10:4, Christian scholars usually proclaim that animal sacrifices could only “cover” sins; they could not take them away; but when Jesus shed his own blood, then the sins were taken away. But is there any indication in the book of Leviticus quoted above that the sins of Israelites were only covered and not completely taken away? God says: “Then before the LORD, you will be CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS”. To insist and proclaim that there is a difference between “take away of sins” in Hebrew 10:4 and “clean from all sins” in Leviticus 16:30 is only an attempt to resolve an obvious and irreconcilable contradiction between Hebrews 10:4 and Leviticus 16:21-30. The only way to resolve this contradiction is when the term “take away of sins” in Hebrews 10:4 implies complete removal of humanity sinful nature; and NOT achieving divine forgiveness for already committed sins. However, complete removal of humanity sinful nature by blood of Jesus is impossible as nobody can be completely free from committing minor sins. Bible also attests to this fact; “If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us (1 John 1:”. Therefore, the contradiction between Hebrew 10:4 and Leviticus 16:21-30 still remain valid
11.Christians believe that performing miracles and wonders in Jesus name is an evidence for divine origin of Christianity: yet Jesus said : Many will say to me in that day ‘Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and done many wonders in your name? And then I will declare to them; I never knew you, depart from me, you who practice lawlessness (Matthew 7:22-23). See how the Christians will be disowned and rejected by Jesus on the Day of Judgment!
12. Christians are programmed to believe that God should only be worshipped in spirit ; In other word, there is no need for any ceremonial act of worship like standing, bowing and prostration as observed in Muslims’ act of worship: Yet the divine mode of worship that God has chosen for the Israelites during and after the time of Moses is as follows: And Ezra opened the book in the sight of all the people, for he was standing above all the people; and when he opened it, all the people stood up. And the Ezra blessed the LORD, the great God. Then all the people answer Amen, Amen! while lifting up their hands. And they BOWED THEIR HEADS and worshipped the LORD with their FACES TO THE GROUND (Nehemiah 8:4-6). If God should only be worship in spirit and not with body and mind as the Christians believe, then why did God establish such a ceremonial and physical act of worship for the Israelites as shown above? In fact, towards the end of the world, when many people would have accepted Islam, God prophesied as follows: For then I will restore to all the people, A PURE LANGUAGE that they may all call upon name of the Lord and serve Him SHOULDER TO SHOULDER (Zephaniah 3:9 KJV, NIV). This verse can only be referring to the Muslims who worship God (five times in a day) in the mosque shoulder to shoulder with the same pure Arabic language throughout the entire world.

'How can you say, "We are wise, for we have the
law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of
the scribes has handled it falsely (Jeremiah 8:. Have you now seen that it is Bible itself that confess its own corruption. But there are still some truth that God delibrately allowed to be kept inside the Bible. The reason why God allowed the bible to be corrupted is that it is not the final revelation from God. But being the last revelation from God, Quran cannot suffer such corruption because it was God Himself that promise to protect it:" It was We who has revealed the the reminder and We will surely guard it against corruption(Quran 15:9)". Please show me any biblical verse where God promise to protect the whole Bible. In fact, the word Bible is not found inside the bible. This implies that selection and compilation of books in the bible is not commission by God .This explain the reason why catholic bible is seven books more than the protestant bible

Half moon and star symbol placed on the mosques is not a commandment from the Quran or Hadith. But I think earlier muslims took it as islamic symbol because we use lunar calendar which is based on the changing position of moon. Muslims used to face Kaabah,( the house of God in Makkah while praying)Not the sun. The practice of facing the house of God while praying can also be found in 1st Kings 8:22-61, Daniel 6:10, Psalm 5:7, 138:2, Jonah 2:4,7, 2Chronicles 6:38, Exodus 25:8 and 2 Samuel 7:5,13. The muslim act of praying by putting their face on the ground is found in Nehemiah 8:4-6

If you believe that Muslims worship the sun by facing east, then we should not be able to worship at night when the sun has set in the west. Pls dont distract our attention from the main topic. I ask you to PIN POINT WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING PREMISES OF ARGUMENT CITED ABOVE IS WRONG AND KINDLY STATE THE REASON

where is it stated that the sins of the old testament believers were only cover? God said in the book of Ezekiel qouted above: NONE OF THE OFFENCES HE COMMITED WILL BE REMEMBERED AGAINST HIM. Also in Leviticus 16:30,God declare : THEN BEFORE THE LORD YOU WILL BE CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS. I am asking you again :WHERE IS IT STATED THAT SINS OF THE OLD TESTAMENT BELIEVERS WERE ONLY COVER AND NOT COMPLETELY FORGIVEN? IF GOD CAN FORGIVE THE SINS OF CHILDREN OF ADAM BEFORE THE BIRTH OF JESUS, THEN WHY MUST GOD CURSE INNOCENT JESUS ON THE CROSS IN ORDER TO FORGIVE THE SAME CHILDREN OF ADAM? BEFORE THE ADVENT OF CHRISTIANITY, DID ANYBODY BELIEVE THAT GOD CAN CURSE AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL LET ALONE HIS BELOVED PROPHET? A PROPHET OF GOD UNDER THE CURSE OF GOD! HONESTLY, CHRISTIANITY IS IRRATIONAL

The soul who sins is the one who will die. The son will not share the guilt of the father, nor will the father share the guilt of the son. The righteousness of the righteous man will be credited to him, and the wickedness of the wicked will be charged against him. "But if a wicked man turns away from all the sins he has committed and keeps all my decrees and does what is just and right, he will surely live; he will not die. None of the offenses he has committed will be remembered against him. Because of the righteous things he has done, he will live( Ezekiel 18:20-22)

God Almighty declare as follows: I, EVEN I, AM THE LORD, AND APART FROM ME THERE IS NO SAVIOR(Isaiah 43:11). Are you saying Jesus is God by asking me to accept Jesus as my Lord and savior? If you say yes, then what do you have to say about John 20:17 which reported Jesus to have said; I AM ASCENDING UNTO MY FATHER AND YOUR FATHER AND TO MY GOD AND YOUR GOD. Can God have another God? Have you now seen that Christianity is NOT COHERENT?

Before you consider the following premises of argument explained below, please bear in mind that On the authority of Holy Qur'an;
1. Muslims believe in Jesus as a mighty prophet of God (Qur'an19:30).
2. Muslims believe in Jesus miraculous birth (Qur'an21:91)
3. Muslims believe in the all the miracles performed by Jesus during his earthly ministry (Qur'an5:110)
4. Muslims believe in Jesus ascension to heaven (Qur'an4:158)
5. Muslims believe in Jesus'2nd coming toward the end of the world (Qur'an43:57-61)
You may write anything you like to rubbish this thread. BUT PLEASE JUST MAKE SURE YOU PINPOINT WHICH OF THE PREMISES LISTED BELOW IS WRONG AND KINDLY STATE THE REASON.

Premise 1: As part of our concept about God; God is naturally known to ALWAYS SPEAK THE TRUTH just like God is naturally known to ALWAYS BLESS AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL.
Premise 2: Therefore, for any reason whatsoever, it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO SPEAK A LIE just like it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO CURSE AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL.
Premise 3: Consequently, if there is a religious faith which proclaims that GOD MUST SPEAK A LIE at a particular period of time in order to execute a program designed by God Himself, then that religious faith must be false.
Premise 4: Similarly, if there is religious faith which proclaims that GOD MUST CURSE AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL at a particular period of time in order to execute a program designed by God Himself, then that religious faith must also be false.
Premise 5: But Christianity is a religious faith which proclaim that AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL (i:e Jesus Christ) MUST BE PUT UNDER THE CURSE OF GOD ( see Deuteronomy 21:23, Galatians 3:13) on the cross at Calvary before God can execute His program designed to forgive and save the sinners.
Premise 6: Therefore, Christianity must be false.
If Jesus has to die by stoning to death, then I
may not have problem with that. But it is Bible
itself that said Jesus was CURSED by God due to
his death on the cross(Galatians 3:13). My point
is that God of mercy would never allow an
innocent and righteous Soul ( let alone His
beloved prophet) to fall under His curse for any
reason whatsoever.This is the reason why Jesus
must escape death on the cross and Quran
4:157-158 confirm this fact. In otherword,
God may allow an innocent and righteous soul to suffer (i:e TO BE PHYSICALLY CONDEMNED) for one reason or the other. But God would never "curse" ( i:e SPIRITUALLY CONDEMN) an innocent and righteous soul for any reason whatsover. Therefore, there is need for God to send another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an was revealed by God to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an 4:157-158). In this way, the "curse of God" associated with any one that is crucified and died on a cross according to the Jewish law (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) was removed from the head of our beloved and innocent prophet called Jesus Christ (peace be upon him). This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked for this “cup of condemnation” to be taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44.ln fact, Bible confirmed that this very prayer of Jesus was answered by God :During the day of Jesus’ life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with fervent cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission (Hebrew 5:7NIV).If this prayer of Jesus was only heard but not answered by God as some Christians use to claim, then the phrase “because of his reverent submission” in the verse quoted above would no longer have any reasonable meaning. In fact, the King James Version of the Bible ends this verse with “and was heard in that he feared (Hebrew 5:7KJV).Of course, what Jesus feared was death on the cross. Hence, if Jesus was heard in that he feared, this implies that he escaped death on the cross. Therefore, an illogical and contradictory concept of "a merciful God who could not see any other way of forgiving those who sincerely believe in Him except to curse an innocent and righteous soul on the cross at Calvary" is completely far away from the truth.
The fact that the Holy Qur’an is the only religious book on earth that remove this negative and bad impression about God from the minds of the general humanity is a very great indicator that the book could never have come from no other person except God Himself.

Consider the following premises of argument
Premise 1: As part of our concept about God; God is naturally known to ALWAYS SPEAK THE TRUTH just like God is naturally known to ALWAYS BLESS AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL.
Premise 2: Therefore, for any reason whatsoever, it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO SPEAK A LIE just like it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO CURSE AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL.
Premise 3: Consequently, if there is a religious faith which proclaims that GOD MUST SPEAK A LIE at a particular period of time in order to execute a program designed by God Himself, then that religious faith must be false.
Premise 4: Similarly, if there is religious faith which proclaims that GOD MUST CURSE AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL at a particular period of time in order to execute a program designed by God Himself, then that religious faith must also be false.
Premise 5: But Christianity is a religious faith which proclaim that AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL (i:e Jesus Christ) MUST BE PUT UNDER THE CURSE OF GOD ( see Deuteronomy 21:23, Galatians 3:13) on the cross at Calvary before God can execute His program designed to forgive and save the sinners.
Premise 6: Therefore, Christianity must be false.

God may allow an innocent and righteous soul to suffer (i:e TO BE PHYSICALLY CONDEMNED) for one reason or the other. But God would never "curse" ( i:e SPIRITUALLY CONDEMN) an innocent and righteous soul for any reason whatsoever. Therefore, there is need for God to send another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an was revealed by God to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an 4:157-158). In this way, the "curse of God" associated with any one that is crucified and died on a cross according to the Jewish law (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) was removed from the head of our beloved and innocent prophet called Jesus Christ (peace be upon him). This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked for this “cup of condemnation” to be taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44.ln fact, Bible confirmed that this very prayer of Jesus was answered by God :During the day of Jesus’ life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with fervent cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission (Hebrew 5:7NIV).If this prayer of Jesus was only heard but not answered by God as some Christians use to claim, then the phrase “because of his reverent submission” in the verse quoted above would no longer have any reasonable meaning. In fact, the King James Version of the Bible ends this verse with “and was heard in that he feared (Hebrew 5:7KJV).Of course, what Jesus feared was death on the cross. Hence, if Jesus was heard in that he feared, this implies that he escaped death on the cross. Therefore, an illogical and contradictory concept of "a merciful God who could not see any other way of saving those who believe in Him except to curse an innocent and righteous soul on the cross at Calvary" is completely far away from the truth.
The fact that the Holy Qur’an is the only religious book on earth that remove this negative and bad impression about God from the minds of the general humanity is a very great indicator that the book could never have come from no other person except God Himself.

Imagine that you are invited by a friend to accept a religious faith claimed to be very rich in spirituality. But one of the fundamentals of this religious faith is to acknowledge that the salvation plan originally design by God to save the humanity from the fire of Hell would later require the same God to commit an act of lying. Would you just accept such faith because of its spiritual richness or reject it because of its foolishness to your logical reasoning? Now tell me the difference between this imaginary faith and the Christian faith which also compel us to accept that the salvation plan originally design by God to save the humanity from the fire of Hell would later require the same God to curse(deut 21:23, Gal 3:13) and condemn an innocent and righteous soul almost naked on the cross at Calvary. Therefore, if you reject this imaginary faith because of its foolishness to your logical reasoning, then you must also reject Christianity since the two faiths are telling us to believe the exact opposite of what we naturally know about God through our logical reasoning. As God is naturally known to always tell the truth and never to commit an act of lying for any greater purpose; He is also naturally known to always bless the innocent and righteous soul and never to curse the same soul for any greater purpose. God may allow an innocent and righteous soul to suffer for one reason or the other. But God would never "curse" an innocent and righteous soul for any reason whatsoever. This is because a god who could not devise a way to save those who believe in him except to curse and condemn an innocent and righteous soul is either not truly merciful or not truly omnipotent or not truly omniscient. Yet to believe in the existence of such a god is one of the fundamental doctrines you must embrace wholeheartedly for you to become a serious and devoted Christian. Therefore, there is need for God to send another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an was revealed by God to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an 4:157-158). In this way, the "curse of God" associated with any one that is crucified and died on a cross according to the Jewish law (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) was removed from the head of our beloved and innocent prophet called Jesus Christ (peace be upon him). This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked for this “cup of condemnation” to be taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44.ln fact, Bible confirmed that this very prayer of Jesus was answered by God :During the day of Jesus’ life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with fervent cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission (Hebrew 5:7NIV).If this prayer of Jesus was only heard but not answered by God as some Christians use to claim, then the phrase “because of his reverent submission” in the verse quoted above would no longer have any reasonable meaning. In fact, the King James Version of the Bible ends this verse with “and was heard in that he feared (Hebrew 5:7KJV).Of course, what Jesus feared was death on the cross. Hence, if Jesus was heard in that he feared, this implies that he escaped death on the cross. Therefore, an illogical and contradictory concept of "a merciful God who could not see any other way of saving those who believe in Him except to curse and condemn His only beloved and innocent son on the cross of Calvary" is completely far away from the truth.
The fact that the Holy Qur’an is the only religious book on earth that remove this negative and bad impression about God from the minds of the general humanity (and at the same time exonerate Jesus Christ from being under the curse of God) is a very great indicator that the book could never have come from no other person except God Himself.

imagine that you are invited by a friend to accept a religious faith claimed to be very rich in spirituality. But one of the fundamentals of this religious faith is to acknowledge that the salvation plan originally design by God to save the humanity from the fire of Hell would later require the same God to commit an act of lying. Would you just accept such faith because of its spiritual richness or reject it because of its foolishness to your logical reasoning? Now tell me the difference between this imaginary faith and the Christian faith which also compel us to accept that the salvation plan originally design by God to save the humanity from the fire of Hell would later require the same God to curse( Deut 21:23, Galatians 3:13) and condemn an innocent and righteous soul almost naked on the cross at Calvary. Therefore, if you reject this imaginary faith because of its foolishness to your logical reasoning, then you must also reject Christianity since the two faiths are telling us to believe the exact opposite of what we naturally know about God through our logical reasoning. As God is naturally known to always tell the truth and never to commit an act of lying for any greater purpose; He is also naturally known to always bless the innocent and righteous soul and never to curse the same soul for any greater purpose. God may allow an innocent and righteous soul to suffer for one reason or the other. But God would never "curse" an innocent and righteous soul for any reason whatsoever. This is because a god who could not devise a way to save those who believe in him except to curse and condemn an innocent and righteous soul is either not truly merciful or not truly omnipotent or not truly omniscient. Yet to believe in the existence of such a god is one of the fundamental doctrines you must embrace wholeheartedly for you to become a serious and devoted Christian. Therefore, there is need for God to send another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an was revealed by God to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an 4:157-158). In this way, the "curse of God" associated with any one that is crucified and died on a cross according to the Jewish law (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) was removed from the head of our beloved and innocent prophet called Jesus Christ (peace be upon him). This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked for this “cup of condemnation” to be taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44.ln fact, Bible confirmed that this very prayer of Jesus was answered by God :During the day of Jesus’ life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with fervent cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission (Hebrew 5:7NIV).If this prayer of Jesus was only heard but not answered by God as some Christians use to claim, then the phrase “because of his reverent submission” in the verse quoted above would no longer have any reasonable meaning. In fact, the King James Version of the Bible ends this verse with “and was heard in that he feared (Hebrew 5:7KJV).Of course, what Jesus feared was death on the cross. Hence, if Jesus was heard in that he feared, this implies that he escaped death on the cross. Therefore, an illogical and contradictory concept of "a merciful God who could not see any other way of saving those who believe in Him except to curse and condemn His only beloved and innocent son on the cross of Calvary" is completely far away from the truth.
The fact that the Holy Qur’an is the only religious book on earth that remove this negative and bad impression about God from the minds of the general humanity (and at the same time exonerate Jesus Christ from being under the curse of God) is a very great indicator that the book could never have come from no other person except God Himself.

As shown in the topic, this message is only meant for intelligent Christians. It is not for the ignorant people. It is either you respond as an intelligent person or just take your leave. I am for the truth and not to abuse anyone.
Christians believe that Jesus was sent to the entire world: yet Jesus( PEACE BE UPON HIM) said: I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24). Now compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic verse; AND WE HAVE NOT SENT YOU (O Muhammad-pbuh) EXCEPT AS A GIVER OF GLAD TIDINGS AND AS A WARNER TO ALL MANKIND (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind! In fact, when Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites: these twelve Jesus sent forth, and commanded them, saying, go not into the way of the gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was only sent to the Israelites. If it was already in the divine plan (i:e before Jesus came into the world) that the command of not preaching to the Gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 quoted above would later be canceled and no longer applicable, then Jesus’ statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL . If this submission is true and reasonable, then how could Jesus have said again; I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me (John 14:6)? Are we to believe that these two contradictory verses (Matthew 15:24 and John 14:6) came from the same mouth of Jesus? Besides, how could Jesus have said “NO ONE COMES TO THE FATHER except through him” when all the righteous believers in the Old Testament (who lived and died before Jesus arrival) were able to gain salvation and reconciliation back to God without having the opportunity to have any personal relationship with him. Because of this very fact, we are forced by reason to accept Jesus statement in Matthew 15:24 and neglect any other verses that opposed it.

Imagine you are invited by a friend to accept a religious faith claimed to be very rich in spirituality. But one of the fundamentals of this religious faith is to acknowledge that the salvation plan originally design by God to save the humanity from the fire of Hell would later require the same God to commit an act of lying. Would you just accept such faith because of its spiritual richness or reject it because of its foolishness to your logical reasoning? Now tell me the difference between this imaginary faith and the Christian faith which also compel us to accept that the salvation plan originally design by God to save the humanity from the fire of Hell would later require the same God to curse and condemn an innocent and righteous soul almost naked on the cross at Calvary. Therefore, if you reject this imaginary faith because of its foolishness to your logical reasoning, then you must also reject Christianity since the two faiths are telling us to believe the exact opposite of what we naturally know about God through our logical reasoning. As God is naturally known to always tell the truth and never to commit an act of lying for any greater purpose; He is also naturally known to always bless the innocent and righteous soul and never to curse the same soul for any greater purpose. God may allow an innocent and righteous soul to suffer for one reason or the other. But God would never "curse" an innocent and righteous soul for any reason whatsoever. This is because a god who could not devise a way to save those who believe in him except to curse and condemn an innocent and righteous soul is either not truly merciful or not truly omnipotent or not truly omniscient. Yet to believe in the existence of such a god is one of the fundamental doctrines you must embrace wholeheartedly for you to become a serious and devoted Christian. Therefore, there is need for God to send another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an was revealed by God to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an 4:157-158). In this way, the "curse of God" associated with any one that is crucified and died on a cross according to the Jewish law (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) was removed from the head of our beloved and innocent prophet called Jesus Christ (peace be upon him). This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked for this “cup of condemnation” to be taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44.ln fact, Bible confirmed that this very prayer of Jesus was answered by God :During the day of Jesus’ life on earth, he offered up prayers and petitions with fervent cries and tears to the one who could save him from death, and he was heard because of his reverent submission (Hebrew 5:7NIV).If this prayer of Jesus was only heard but not answered by God as some Christians use to claim, then the phrase “because of his reverent submission” in the verse quoted above would no longer have any reasonable meaning. In fact, the King James Version of the Bible ends this verse with “and was heard in that he feared (Hebrew 5:7KJV).Of course, what Jesus feared was death on the cross. Hence, if Jesus was heard in that he feared, this implies that he escaped death on the cross. Therefore, an illogical and contradictory concept of "a merciful God who could not see any other way of saving those who believe in Him except to curse and condemn His only beloved and innocent son on the cross of Calvary" is completely far away from the truth.
The fact that the Holy Qur’an is the only religious book on earth that remove this negative and bad impression about God from the minds of the general humanity (and at the same time exonerate Jesus Christ from being under the curse of God) is a very great indicator that the book could never have come from no other person except God Himself.

Despite all this exposition that Qur’an could not have come from no
other person except God, some people still want to gather some evidence
from Qur’an and Hadith to prove that prophet Muhammad (pbuh) was a false prophet and a great liar against God. Their evidence is as follows: God
Almighty says; It is a revelation from the Lord of the worlds. And if he
(Muhammad-pbuh) had fabricated against Us some of the sayings, We would certainly
have seized him by the right hand. Then We would certainly have cut off his
aorta (Qur’an 69:43-46). Based on these verses and the Hadith (narrated by
Aisha that the prophet ate food containing poison according to the plan of
the Jews and he used to say ; O Aisha I still feel the pain caused by the
food I ate at khaibar, and at this time I feel as if my jugular vein is
being cut from that poison);these people now argue that the prophet must be
a false prophet and
a deliberate liar against God. At first glance, you would think that their
argument is correct. But looking at those verses of the Qur’an and the
Hadith very carefully, you will discover that these people stand on a fake
platform based on the following cogent reasons: Those verses of Qur’an were
not talking about the nature of death the prophet would encounter in future
if he were to be a false prophet. But those verses were simply saying; if
the prophet had fabricated against God SOME OF THE SAYINGS (NOT the entire
message), then God should CERTAINLY HAVE CUT OFF (Laqo’tona) his aorta: the
term “ certainly have” indicate that this event should have taken place in
the PAST and NOT in the FUTURE(like after 23 years). Furthermore, the word
used in the Qur’an is Al-wateen which is translated as aorta: which is
quite different from the word Al-abhar used in the Hadith which means
jugular vein. Again, the Qur’an makes it clear that the aorta of such a
fabricator must ACTUALLY be cut off because of the word “certainly”. Yet
there is no any evidence or indication that the aorta of the prophet was
ACTUALLY cut off from that poison. If the poison has actually cut off his
aorta, he would never be the one to say; “I feel as if my vein is being cut
off” since he would have died before these words could ever come out from
his mouth. Feeling that something has happened is quite different from
‘that something has actually happened’. How could a poison, which would go
straight into the stomach, possess the power to ACTUALLY cut off the aorta? The
prophet only said those words metaphorically in order to express the kind
of pain and feelings he was passing through. If the prophet were truly a
fabricator and God wanted to use these verses of Qur’an to prove this case
to us, then one would expect his aorta to be cut off by THE SWORD (and
never by the poison) in the hand of his enemy during one of the many
battles he fought with the idol worshippers so that the fulfillment of
these verses can be clearly seen by all without any further argument. But
despite the fact that Qur’an said; We would CERTAINLY HAVE CUT OFF his aorta;
yet God did not allow the prophet to be struck on his neck by the SWORD or
KNIFE which would have been in perfect agreement with the what is written
in the Qur’an. From my own perspective, God allowed such words reported in
the Hadith to come out from prophet’s mouth only to serve as a test and
trial for those who are furiously searching for any slight evidence to
disqualify him as a true prophet of God. God wanted to test them: are they
going to base their judgment on this questionable evidence alone and
neglect all other clear evidence explained above which prove that the
prophet could never have fabricated the Holy Qur’an. This is exactly
similar to a kind of test and trial that God set forth for the atheists and
evolutionists: are they going to believe that human evolve from apes by
simply basing their judgment on the vague resemblance between the two
species and neglect all other evidence which prove that the entire process
of evolution could never have started at all due to natural law of entropy.
Even if the prophet was able to survive for 23 years after his claim as a
prophet of God but later died as a martyr by eating poison through the plan
of the Jews living at medina by that time, he has already achieved his aim.
In fact, that he was able to survive for complete 3 years after eating the
poison as narrated in another hadith while his companion who ate with him
died on the spot is another miracle on its own that also testified to his
prophet hood. In fact, God deliberately spare his life even after eating
the poison till concluding verse of his mission was revealed to him where
God Almighty declare as follows: This day, I have perfected your religion
for you, and I have completed My favor upon you, and I have chosen for you
Islam as your religion(Qur’an 5:3). If the prophet was a great impersonator
and great fabricator against God, then why would God have to wait for 23
years till this concluding verse was fabricated against Him? Yet He did not
even allow Hananiah ,the false prophet to even live for a year before he
removed him from the face of the earth (Jeremiah 28:1-17)

According to the Bible, anyone who is hanged and died on a cross is under the CURSE of God (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23). Yet despite this evil omen attached to dying on the cross, the Christians still believe that Jesus was crucified and died on the cross in accordance with the will of God. However, this very doctrine of an only beloved and innocent son who was under the curse of His own merciful and omnipotent Father is self contradictory and repugnant to human reasoning. Before the advent of Christianity, nobody would believe or imagine that such a doctrine can even exist. It is totally foreign and contradictory to our logical reasoning for God of love, mercy and justice to curse an innocent and righteous soul for any reason whatsoever. This is the reason why the message of atonement through Jesus crucifixion was a stumbling block to the Jews and foolishness to the Gentiles during the lifetime of Paul (1st Corinthians 1:23). But Paul tried to write some verses in an attempt to solve this problem of logical contradiction inherent in this very doctrine. Such verses are as follows: The natural man does not receive the things of the spirit, for they are foolishness to him; he cannot understand them because they are spiritually discerned (1st Corinthians 2:14).
For the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing (1st Corinthians 1:18). Because the foolishness of God is wiser than men, and the weakness of God is stronger than men (1st Corinthians 1:25).
This is the reason why many Christians see no logical problem again with the idea of “an innocent, beloved and righteous son who was under the curse and condemnation of his own merciful and omnipotent Father”. Therefore, base on the verses quoted above, Paul has succeeded in making the Christians to think that a fundamental spiritual doctrine which is completely foolish to our logical reasoning could actually be a great wisdom in the sight of God. But if Paul's assertion is really true, why would God of reason (Isaiah 1:18) ask a natural man to believe and accept a fundamental spiritual doctrine that cannot be understood and completely foolish to his logical reasoning especially when that reasoning is the ONLY INSTRUMENT at his disposal to recognize that true spirituality in the midst of many fake spiritualities? If there is only one spirituality in the entire world of human being, then Paul may be right in his claim. But there are many spiritualities like Christianity, Islam, Hinduism, Buddhism, Judaism, Confucianism, Jainism, Zoroastrianism, Baha’ism, Taoism and Sikhism. Since each of these spiritualities is claiming to be on the right path, it is now left for any natural man to use the only instrument (his logical reasoning) given to him by God to recognize the true spirituality in the midst of many fake spiritualities. This is exactly the reason why God must design the true spirituality in such a way that all its basic and fundamental doctrine would not be in conflict with the basic logical reasoning He bestowed upon a natural man. A fundamental true spiritual doctrine may support or be neutral to basic logical reasoning bestowed upon natural man; but they will never be in conflict with each other. How could true spirituality designed by God and basic logical reasoning originated from the same God be in conflict with each other? If they can be in conflict with each other, then how can a natural man decide whether to accept or reject a true spiritual faith in the midst of many fake spiritual faiths? Have you now seen how Paul gets it wrong by asserting that “the natural man does not receive the things of the spirit, for they are foolishness to him”? Is true spirituality not meant to be accepted and embraced by natural man? Now that it is foolishness to him; how is he going to accept and embrace it?
To see further that Paul is wrong in his claim; suppose you are invited by a friend to accept a religious faith that is very rich in spirituality. But one of its unique and fundamental doctrines you must embrace wholeheartedly is that you have to believe that God MUST commit an act of lying in order to achieve a particular greater purpose (May God be Exalted and glorified above such behavior). Now consider the following questions; 1. Would you just accept such faith because of its spiritual richness or reject it because of its foolishness to your logical reasoning? 2. Would you not ask about the actual connections that exist between that greater purpose and the act of lying that must be committed by God before the purpose can be achieved? 3. Would you not ask why All- knowing and Omnipotent God decided, at first instance, to give preference for such irrational way of lying over many rational ways He can design and create from His infinite knowledge and unlimited power to achieve that greater purpose? 4. Would you just accept that the way and the thought of such a lying God is higher and complex than your way and your thought? 5. Would you just fold your arms and accept that the foolishness of such a lying god is wiser than the wisdom of all men (see 1st Corinthians 1:25 quoted above)? 6. Would you just accept such faith relying on the claim that it has already been foretold in one old book that God would commit such act of lying (just like the Christians used to claim that it has already been foretold in the Old Testament that God would curse and condemn an innocent and righteous soul on the cross of Calvary for the sins of all men)? Now ponder over these six questions cited above and then tell me the difference between this imaginary faith which proclaim that God MUST commit an act of lying to achieve a particular greater purpose and the Christian faith which also proclaim that God MUST curse (Galatians 3:13,Deuteronomy 21:23) and condemn an innocent and righteous soul on a cross of Calvary to achieve a particular greater purpose (like solving the problem of sin with humanity or rescuing the humanity from bondage of Satan). Therefore, if you reject this imaginary faith because of its foolishness to your logical reasoning, then you must also reject Christianity since the two faiths are telling us to believe the exact opposite of what we naturally know about God through our logical reasoning. As God is naturally known to ALWAYS TELL THE TRUTH AND NEVER TO COMMIT AN ACT OF LYING for any greater purpose; He is also naturally known to ALWAYS BLESS THE INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL AND NEVER TO CURSE THE SAME SOUL for any greater purpose. God may allow an innocent and righteous soul to suffer for one reason or the other. But God would never "curse" an innocent and righteous soul for any reason whatsoever.
It is now clear that even if there are some spiritual benefits in the inner rooms of a true faith, there is still need for the logical reasoning to take us to the main door of those inner rooms at first encounter. But as we have pointed above, the doctrine of a merciful, omnipotent and omniscient God who cursed and condemned his only beloved and innocent son on the cross of Calvary for a particular greater purpose is totally in conflict with what we naturally know about God through our logical reasoning. This is because a god who could not devise a way to implement his plan except to curse and condemn an innocent and righteous soul is either not truly merciful or not truly omnipotent or not truly omniscient. Yet to believe in the existence of such a god is one of the fundamental doctrines you must embrace wholeheartedly for you to become a serious and devoted Christian. Therefore, there is need for God to send another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an was revealed by God to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an 4:157-158). In this way, the "curse of God" associated with any one that is crucified and died on a cross according to the Jewish law (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) was removed from the head of our beloved and innocent prophet called Jesus Christ (peace be upon him). This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked for this “cup of condemnation” to be taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44. Therefore, an illogical idea of God cursing an innocent and a righteous human soul on a cross of Calvary in order to solve the problem of sin with humanity (or to liberate the humanity from the bondage of Satan) is far away from the truth. The fact that the Holy Qur’an is the only religious book on earth that remove this negative and bad impression about God from the minds of the general humanity is a very great indicator that the book could never have come from no other person except God Himself.

Now go, attack the Amalekites and totally destroy all they have, and spare them not: but slay both man and woman, infant and suckling, ox and sheep, camels and donkeys ( 1st Samuel 15:3)
But those enemies of mine who did not want me to be their king- bring them here and kill them in front of me(Luke 19:27)
Do not think that I have come to bring peace to the earth. I did not come to bring peace but a sword. For I have come to turn a man against his father, a daughter against her mother (Matthew 10:34-35)
The people that kill your Christian fellows are not Muslims. They learn their ideology from biblical verse cited above. For Qur’an says; if anyone killed an innocent person, it would be as if he killed all mankind( Qur’an 5:32)

Christians are programmed to believe that THE WHOLE of the Bible is divine word of God: yet Paul wrote extensively and gave judgments on the issue of marriage and divorce without being inspired by God- " But to the rest, I PAUL, NOT THE LORD, say: If any brother has a wife who does not believe, and she is willing to live with him, let him not divorce her...... Now concerning virgins, I HAVE NO COMMANDMENT FROM THE LORD, yet I give judgment as one whom the Lord in His mercy has made trustworthy.(1st Corinthians 7:12-25) You see here how Paul is saying that he is using his best personal judgement,and that what is saying is not directly from God. Why would God “inspire” Paul to say that his words were NOT from Him? Have you now seen that Bible is a MIXTURE OF WORD OF GOD AND WORD OF MEN? It is not stated in any verse that EVERY WORD of the Bible is word of God. In fact, the author of the book of Luke wrote as follows: “IT SEEMED GOOD TO ME also, having had perfect understanding of all things from the beginning, to write to you an orderly account, most excellent Theophilus (Luke 1:3)”. We can see again that Luke wrote his Gospel not to the general humanity but to one specific influential person he addressed as "most excellent Theophilus" and also not because he was inspired by God but because it seemed good to him to write such an account due to his thought of having a sound knowledge on the matter. The only verse often used by Christians to prove that every word of the Bible is word of God is word of Paul in 2nd Timothy 3:16 which says “All scripture is given by inspiration of God”. But how can we believe that the term “All scripture” used by Paul refers to the entire Bible especially when the author of this very verse confessed that he wrote some things which were not actually inspired by God? Besides, at the time this verse was written by Paul, most of the New Testament books were yet to be penned down talk less of putting them together; therefore there is no any reason to believe that Paul has the other books of New Testament in mind when he was writing; “All scripture is given by inspiration of God". Even if we assume that this statement written by Paul refers to the entire Bible, there is still need for external evidence to prove that this very verse itself is also divinely inspired by God. The fact that a friend of yours simply told you “I AM NOT LYING" is not enough to prove that he has actually spoken the truth about the matter he was telling you. What if the statement “I AM NOT LYING” is another lie? Of course, this principle also applies to 2nd Timothy 3:16, 2nd peter 1:21 and any other verse used by Christians to claim divine origin for the entire Bible. The fact that these verses declare that the Bible writers were inspired by God and guided by the holy spirit are not enough to prove that the entire Bible is word of God because these verses themselves also require their own external evidence to prove their divinity; just like the statement “I AM NOT LYING” require its own external evidence to prove that this very statement itself is not another lie on its own. The only exception to this principle is when we have a verse COMING DIRECTLY from God's mouth. This kind of verse where God would be speaking to us directly using the first person pronouns like " I, ME,MY, WE, US etc" does not require any external evidence to establish its divine origin because God of truth would never allow a deliberate liar to impersonate Him ( Jeremiah 28:1-17, Psalm 101:7) just like a truthful man would never allow his friend-talk less of his enemy-to impersonate him. Therefore, the statements like "All scripture is given by inspiration of God (2nd Timothy 3:16)", “For the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men of God spoke as they moved by the holy spirit (2nd Peter 1:21)” and the likes cannot be used to establish the divine origin for all the books in the Bible because 1. The verses are not coming directly from God's mouth. 2. The verses are not specific enough for anyone to conclude that they refer exclusively to the entire Bible. However, the statements like " All scripture in this Bible is given by inspiration from Me”. These holy men were moved by My spirit to speak what is written inside this Bible” and the likes can be used to establish divine origin of all the books in the Bible because they are sufficient to prove their divine origin. However, such a direct statement which would not only come from God’s mouth but which would also establish the divine origin for all the books in the Bible is nowhere to be found inside the Bible. Even the word “BIBLE” cannot be found within the Bible; talk less of a verse coming directly from God’s mouth which would establish the divine origin for all the books in the Bible. Therefore, Bible still maintains its identity as being the word of God mixed together with the word of men; there are some verses which came directly from God’s mouth and yet there are some verses which came directly from men. Among those verses in the Bible which came directly from God's mouth, there is none that establish divine origin for all the books in the Bible. That is, statements like “This Bible was inspired by Me or these people were moved by My spirit to write down all the books in the Bible" are nowhere to be found inside the Bible. The reason why such a verse is important and necessary to be present in the Bible is that Bible is not a single book like Qur'an but a collection of books written by different authors at different times. Therefore, it is either each of every book in the Bible contains its own evidence for its divine origin or there is a verse uniting all the books in the Bible together as Bible and then establishing divine origin for the whole of such Bible. However, not all the books in the Bible contain such verses coming directly from God’s mouth. Again, there is no a single verse in the Bible uniting all the books in the Bible together as an entity called Bible( I:e the word “Bible” is not found inside the Bible)talk less of a direct verse from God that would establish divine origin for the whole of the Bible. This simply shows that selection and compilation of all the books in the Bible is not something commissioned by God Almighty. Therefore, the reason why Catholic Bible contains more books than the Protestant Bible is now clear to us. But does the Qur’an suffer similar problem? Certainly not! Beside the fact that Qur’an unite all its part together by making reference to its self as an entity called Qur’an (i:e the word “Qur’an” is found inside the Qur’an) in more than seventy times(in places like Qur’an 17:88, 10:37, 38:1, 47:24, 36:2, 50:1, 59:21 etc); there are also many verses coming directly from God’s mouth which establish the divine origin for the whole of the Qur’an. Examples of such verses are as follows: This is the revelation sent down from the Lord of the worlds. If he (Muhammad-pbuh) had forged some of the sayings concerning Us, We surely should have seized him by his right hand. And then We certainly should have cut off his life artery (Qur’an 69:43-46).
“O children of Israel! Remember My favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone(Qur’an 2:40-41).
We have not sent down the Qur’an unto you(O Muhammad-pbuh) to cause you distress. But only as a reminder to those who fear God. A revelation from Him who created the earth and the high heavens (Qur’an 20:2-3).
You can see that pronouns like “Us, We, MY, I, Me” are first person pronouns which can only be referred to God contextually. Other examples of similar verses can be found in Qur’an 15:9, 12:2-3, 21:10.50, 35:31-32, 17:105-106 16:101-103, 6:92 etc. However, such direct verses which would not only come from God’s mouth but which would also establish divine origin for the WHOLE of the Bible cannot be found inside the Bible.

Are you saying there is no original language for the Bible before its translation to various language? The original languages of the Bible are Hebrew and Greek. Similarly, the original language of Qur'an is Arabic. And it has been translated into many languages like English, French etc. So what is your point

Many of the Christians reject the Qur’an out rightly (even before having an opportunity to read what is written inside it) because they have been programmed right from childhood with the belief that Jesus (peace be upon him) was the last prophet of God sent to the entire world to die for the sins of all mankind. But how true is this claim? Have we not really been fooled with the assumption that religious faith of our parents is always right? Is it not high time for us to wake up from our slumber and then seek the truth with all diligence and open-mindedness? Was Jesus actually sent to the entire world? If Jesus (pbuh) was actually the last prophet of God sent to the entire world, then why did he have to say: I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? Now compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic verse; And We have not sent you (O Muhammad-pbuh) except as a giver of glad tidings and as a Warner to all mankind, but most men do not know (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind! There is no any indication in that Biblical verse that Jesus (pbuh) would later have anything to do with the Non- Israelites. In fact, when Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM,SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES,AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent only to the Israelites. But many of the Christian scholars proclaimed that this command of not preaching to the Gentiles was later cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, where Jesus was reported to have commanded the apostles to make disciples of all nations. Therefore, according to these Christian scholars, Jesus (pbuh) who was originally sent only to the Israelites later became the last prophet sent to the entire world. But should we really accept Matthew 28:19 as the actual word of Jesus (pbuh)? If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world as spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then why did Peter have to tell some of the Gentiles (Cornelius and his households) that sent for him as follows; YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28 NIV)? This very incident occurred many years after Jesus’ departure from this world. Was Peter, who happened to be a Jewish man, not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations stated in Matthew 28:19? Then why did peter have to say it is unlawful for him to associate with or visit a Gentile i:e the Non-Israelite after Jesus departure? Has he forgotten such a very great and important command in Matthew 28:19? Very hard to believe! The fact that the other apostles also criticized peter and became astonished when they overheard that Peter later honored the invitation of those Gentiles ( Acts 11:1-18) prove further that Peter and other apostles were completely unaware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19; Not that they had all forgotten. How could all apostles have forgotten such a very great and important command from their master? Even when Peter was justifying his visitation to those gentiles, he only defended himself and convinced the other apostles by making reference to the vision he had before he received the message from those Gentiles (Acts 10:1-28, 11:4-18) instead of simply reminding the other apostles about the so-called new command in Matthew 28:19.
After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek-speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts.
Moreover, if it was already in the divine plan ( i:e before Jesus came into the world) that the command of not preaching to the Gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus’ statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. All these facts are enough to prove that the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed to Jesus in Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it in other books of the New Testament are nothing but forgery.

Many of the Christians reject the Qur’an out rightly (even before having an opportunity to read what is written inside it) because they have been programmed right from childhood with the belief that Jesus (peace be upon him) was the last prophet of God sent to the entire world to die for the sins of all mankind. But how true is this claim? Have we not really been fooled with the assumption that religious faith of our parents is always right? Is it not high time for us to wake up from our slumber and then seek the truth with all diligence and open-mindedness? Was Jesus actually sent to the entire world? If Jesus (pbuh) was actually the last prophet of God sent to the entire world, then why did he have to say: I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? Now compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic verse; And We have not sent you (O Muhammad-pbuh) except as a giver of glad tidings and as a Warner to all mankind, but most men do not know (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind! There is no any indication in that Biblical verse that Jesus (pbuh) would later have anything to do with the Non- Israelites. In fact, when Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM,SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES,AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent only to the Israelites. But many of the Christian scholars proclaimed that this command of not preaching to the Gentiles was later cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, where Jesus was reported to have commanded the apostles to make disciples of all nations. Therefore, according to these Christian scholars, Jesus (pbuh) who was originally sent only to the Israelites later became the last prophet sent to the entire world. But should we really accept Matthew 28:19 as the actual word of Jesus (pbuh)? If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world as spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then why did Peter have to tell some of the Gentiles (Cornelius and his households) that sent for him as follows; YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28 NIV)? This very incident occurred many years after Jesus’ departure from this world. Was Peter, who happened to be a Jewish man, not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations stated in Matthew 28:19? Then why did peter have to say it is unlawful for him to associate with or visit a Gentile i:e the Non-Israelite after Jesus departure? Has he forgotten such a very great and important command in Matthew 28:19? Very hard to believe! The fact that the other apostles also criticized peter and became astonished when they overheard that Peter later honored the invitation of those Gentiles ( Acts 11:1-18) prove further that Peter and other apostles were completely unaware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19; Not that they had all forgotten. How could all apostles have forgotten such a very great and important command from their master? Even when Peter was justifying his visitation to those gentiles, he only defended himself and convinced the other apostles by making reference to the vision he had before he received the message from those Gentiles (Acts 10:1-28, 11:4-18) instead of simply reminding the other apostles about the so-called new command in Matthew 28:19.
After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek-speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts.
Moreover, if it was already in the divine plan ( i:e before Jesus came into the world) that the command of not preaching to the Gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus’ statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. All these facts are enough to prove that the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed to Jesus in Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it in other books of the New Testament are nothing but forgery.

Many of the Christians reject the Qur’an out rightly (even before having an opportunity to read what is written inside it) because they have been programmed right from childhood with the belief that Jesus (peace be upon him) was the last prophet of God sent to the entire world to die for the sins of all mankind. But how true is this claim? Have we not really been fooled with the assumption that religious faith of our parents is always right? Is it not high time for us to wake up from our slumber and then seek the truth with all diligence and open-mindedness? Was Jesus actually sent to the entire world? If Jesus (pbuh) was actually the last prophet of God sent to the entire world, then why did he have to say: I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? Now compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic verse; And We have not sent you (O Muhammad-pbuh) except as a giver of glad tidings and as a Warner to all mankind, but most men do not know (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind! There is no any indication in that Biblical verse that Jesus (pbuh) would later have anything to do with the Non- Israelites. In fact, when Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM,SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES,AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent only to the Israelites. But many of the Christian scholars proclaimed that this command of not preaching to the Gentiles was later cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, where Jesus was reported to have commanded the apostles to make disciples of all nations. Therefore, according to these Christian scholars, Jesus (pbuh) who was originally sent only to the Israelites later became the last prophet sent to the entire world. But should we really accept Matthew 28:19 as the actual word of Jesus (pbuh)? If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world as spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then why did Peter have to tell some of the Gentiles (Cornelius and his households) that sent for him as follows; YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28 NIV)? This very incident occurred many years after Jesus’ departure from this world. Was Peter, who happened to be a Jewish man, not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations stated in Matthew 28:19? Then why did peter have to say it is unlawful for him to associate with or visit a Gentile i:e the Non-Israelite after Jesus departure? Has he forgotten such a very great and important command in Matthew 28:19? Very hard to believe! The fact that the other apostles also criticized peter and became astonished when they overheard that Peter later honored the invitation of those Gentiles ( Acts 11:1-18) prove further that Peter and other apostles were completely unaware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19; Not that they had all forgotten. How could all apostles have forgotten such a very great and important command from their master? Even when Peter was justifying his visitation to those gentiles, he only defended himself and convinced the other apostles by making reference to the vision he had before he received the message from those Gentiles (Acts 10:1-28, 11:4-18) instead of simply reminding the other apostles about the so-called new command in Matthew 28:19.
After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek-speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts.
Moreover, if it was already in the divine plan ( i:e before Jesus came into the world) that the command of not preaching to the Gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus’ statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. All these facts are enough to prove that the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed to Jesus in Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it in other books of the New Testament are nothing but forgery.

Many of the Christians reject the Qur’an out rightly (even before having an opportunity to read what is written inside it) because they have been programmed right from childhood with the belief that Jesus (peace be upon him) was the last prophet of God sent to the entire world to die for the sins of all mankind. But how true is this claim? Have we not really been fooled with the assumption that religious faith of our parents is always right? Is it not high time for us to wake up from our slumber and then seek the truth with all diligence and open-mindedness? Was Jesus actually sent to the entire world? If Jesus (pbuh) was actually the last prophet of God sent to the entire world, then why did he have to say: I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? Now compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic verse; And We have not sent you (O Muhammad-pbuh) except as a giver of glad tidings and as a Warner to all mankind, but most men do not know (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind! There is no any indication in that Biblical verse that Jesus (pbuh) would later have anything to do with the Non- Israelites. In fact, when Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM,SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES,AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent only to the Israelites. But many of the Christian scholars proclaimed that this command of not preaching to the Gentiles was later cancelled and replaced by new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, where Jesus was reported to have commanded the apostles to make disciples of all nations. Therefore, according to these Christian scholars, Jesus (pbuh) who was originally sent only to the Israelites later became the last prophet sent to the entire world. But should we really accept Matthew 28:19 as the actual word of Jesus (pbuh)? If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world as spuriously stated in Matthew 28:19, then why did Peter have to tell some of the Gentiles (Cornelius and his households) that sent for him as follows; YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28 NIV)? This very incident occurred many years after Jesus’ departure from this world. Was Peter, who happened to be a Jewish man, not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations stated in Matthew 28:19? Then why did peter have to say it is unlawful for him to associate with or visit a Gentile i:e the Non-Israelite after Jesus departure? Has he forgotten such a very great and important command in Matthew 28:19? Very hard to believe! The fact that the other apostles also criticized peter and became astonished when they overheard that Peter later honored the invitation of those Gentiles ( Acts 11:1-18) prove further that Peter and other apostles were completely unaware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19; Not that they had all forgotten. How could all apostles have forgotten such a very great and important command from their master? Even when Peter was justifying his visitation to those gentiles, he only defended himself and convinced the other apostles by making reference to the vision he had before he received the message from those Gentiles (Acts 10:1-28, 11:4-18) instead of simply reminding the other apostles about the so-called new command in Matthew 28:19.
After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek-speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts.
Moreover, if it was already in the divine plan ( i:e before Jesus came into the world) that the command of not preaching to the Gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus’ statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. All these facts are enough to prove that the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed to Jesus in Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it in other books of the New Testament are nothing but forgery.