₦airaland Forum

Can an infinite task ever be done or completed? If, in order to reach a certain end, infinitely many steps had to precede it, could the end ever be reached? Of course not—not even in an infinite time. For an infinite time would be unending, just as the steps would be. In other words, no end would ever be reached. The task would—could—never be completed. But what about the step just before the end? Could that point
ever be reached? Well, if the task is really infinite, then an infinity of steps must also have preceded it. And therefore the step just before the end could also never be reached. But then neither could the step just before that one. In fact, no step in
the sequence could be reached, because an infinity of steps must always have preceded any step; must always have been gone through one by one before it. The problem comes from supposing that an infinite sequence could ever reach, by temporal succession, any point at all.

Cc: Johnydon22

Johnydon22,

I am convinced that the universe had a beginning. That does not depend on whether Hawking and co. agree or not. Nevertheless, here is a lecture by Hawking. In it, he concludes that "the universe has not existed forever. Rather, the universe, and time itself, had a beginning in the Big Bang, about 15 billion years ago."

Of course, Big Bang is nonsense, and I don't believe it.

Johnydon22,

The universe is not eternal. Even Stephen Hawking agrees. Moreover, the Kalam argument supports that position.

Since living cells can self arrange and non-living cells can’t in what way do you judge them under the same set of rules? Since living cells can self arrange and replicate, it means it does not necessarily require guidance to evolve.
A camera cannot self arrange because it’s constituents lack
the ability to therefore must be aided and designed. I am not saying because living cells can self arrange then they cannot or was not designed, I am only saying Judging living cells with benchmark set by inanimate designs is flawed and inconsistent with truthful approximation

Are you saying that life evolved?

Hello people,

I know that this might not be exactly the right place but how can I know/spot/get the real OEM Samsung Galaxy S5 charger + USB 3.0 data cable?

Cc: Noobody

AgentOfAllah,

The sperm technically does not "cease to exist", as its haploid number of chromosomes(which is its functional essence) can be found in the zygote.

I disagree with your claim that the useful work of a sperm cell ends immediately fertilization is over. Indeed, fertilization is simply fusing two sets of the haploid number of chromosomes(one from the sperm and one from the egg) to form a diploid number of chromosomes(zygote). The haploid number of chromosomes which the sperm cell contributes to the zygote continues to do "useful work" in participating in the process of replication. I say, therefore, that a sperm cell exists for the chromosomes contained in its head to replicate in union with the chromosomes of an egg cell. The work continues till we have 37 trillion cells.

AgentOfAllah,

A sperm contributes the haploid number of chromosomes to the zygote. Indeed, the 500 million sperm cells in question can be seen as 500 million sets of the haploid number of chromosomes.

Contrary to your claim, the 37 trillion cells have everything to do with the sperm. Without the sperm cell contributing its haploid number of chromosomes, the 37 trillion cells won't be.

Arguing along the same line, the key word here is "mature". Mature, man. We did away with 500 million cells which have undergone full development(and can no longer develop further) to get what? A single cell(zygote). What if we allow the single cell(zygote) undergo full development? We have 37 trillion cells.

Very efficient, man.

Bottom line is this: The human reproductive system is so inefficient that we eject 500,000,000 sperm cells to compete for 1 egg. If this was designed, it is the most underwhelming piece of engineering ever conceived. Such a designer, especially if marketed as omnipotent and omniscient, deserves not praise, but ridicule!

This statement seems to be ignorant of the fact that of the 500 million sperm cells released, only a handful get to the fallopian tube. The acidity of the vagina(which protects it from potential infections) kills many of the sperm cells, others get lost in the female reproductive tract. Others still are killed by the WBCs in the uterus which see the sperm cells as invaders. When the lucky ones locate the fallopian tube, they are first capacitated(in the isthmus) and then begin to make their way to the ampulla. Then again, in the ampulla, they must survive long enough to meet an egg. Can only one sperm beat all the odds to fertilize the egg? Can 10 million, for that matter?

If only 1 egg cell is present for fertilization, then the output of the system must necessarily be 1 in number(i.e. 1 sperm cell + 1 egg cell = 1 zygote). Now, if we calculate the efficiency using numbers only, the system appears inefficient in that 500 million sperm cells were put in to get only one human being. But that is just like saying the process of planting maize is inefficient, since you may put in 15 seeds and get one plant.

What if we factor in their complexities? If the complexity of a mature sperm cell can be quantified, and termed X, you can imagine the magnitude of the complexity of a mature human being in terms of multiples of X. Factor that in and see if the system is still inefficient.

I say, therefore, that doing away with 500 million mature sperm cells to get one mature human being(composed of tens of trillions of cells) is not wasteful at all.

Sorry the answer is coming in fragments. That's the best I can do for now.

AgentOfAllah:
I'm pretty sure a master designer should be able to make reproduction efficient enough that 1 sperm cell easily fertilises an egg cell...

That is merely what you see as designed, which isn't true. One can also claim that design should produce a baby boy and a baby girl with each childbirth. Merely opinions.

Every single one of those sperm cells has the potential to become an equally complex human if it manages to fertilize an egg

The potential of each sperm cell to fertilize the egg does not bear in calculating the efficiency of the system.

Your definition of the true efficiency, E, as "the number of successfully fertilized eggs/number of ejected sperms" is a funny play of words. Okay, let's do it like this:

successfully fertilized egg = human being = ~37 trillion cells.

Efficiency, E = (37 000 000 000 000/500 000 000) x 100%.

There you have your efficiency.

AgentOfAllah:
Well, I do think the process of reproduction is anything but perfect. During copulation, a human male ejects anything from 200 million to 500 million sperm cells, all of which die, but 1. So the male Instruments is less than 10^-7% efficient. Even humans have designed machines that are more efficient than this, so how can a powerful creator be less competent than we are?

This argument of "efficiency" is hogwash. That 500 million sperm cells try to fertilize 1 egg cell removes nothing from the fact that the reproductive system of man was created by an intelligent GOD. If anything, 500 million sperm cells are released with each ejaculation to ensure fertilization, in line with GOD's command "be fruitful and multiply".

If you want to calculate efficiency, do so using complexity and not number. In this case, take 500 million x the complexity of 1 sperm cell as the input, and 1 x the complexity of a human being as the output.

edited.

eleojo23:
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busuyi44:
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busuyi44:
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Hello people. Which banks currently support transaction on AliExpress with their naira debit cards(visa/mastercard)? And what are their dollar rates now? Thank you.

emaminaj:
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Relax while the work is done 


WhatsApp me and let's talk
Contact's in my signature
Cheers!!

Sent you a PM. Please reply, as I can't chat on whatsapp for now. If you don't see the PM, please send me a PM. Thank you.

boringnigerian:
I'm confused... . so..... scientists are Satan worshippers? I mean right here on this thread, someone has made mention of the fact that some of the greatest scientists over history believed in God as do lots of today's scientists so what are you on about?

Slowly read my post again, and this time look up any word you don't know its meaning in the dictionary.

Hello Jode,

I once found myself in a position similar to yours. I said similar because at that point I had no doubt in my heart that GOD existed(and I believe that nobody can sincerely doubt that). I was only fed up with the lifeless routine of activities in my church then. I began to long for truths which were not taught in my church then. That was until GOD mercifully opened my eyes. Today, I am happy because the truth has set me free.

Satan, through his godless agents masquerading as "scientists", has tried(and has gained considerable success) in presenting science as diametrically opposed to the Bible. This is a far from the truth as the East is from the West. GOD Himself is a Scientist.

I suggest you visit good sites like answersingenesis.org and creation ministeries international to see how good science is untangled from the threads of falsehood which godless people have woven around it. I tell you, science in its pure form reaffirms faith in GOD.

GOD bless you.

johnydon22:
Read that post again as many as times as it takes for you to get it.

Does the law totally apply or not?

Simple premise

I have sufficiently addressed all the points you raised in this thread. I have also given you valuable education on the "Law" in the Bible. I hope you begin to ask questions now like an enlightened man.

Do other Christians have a view different from mine? Yes, but I don't care, as far as this thread is concerned. I have not come to this thread to debate other Christians, but to educate you on the truth. And that I have done sufficiently. For the purpose of the argument BETWEEN YOU AND ME, you take what I taught you as the case.

I say again, if you opened this thread just to show us that all the Christians in the world don't believe the same thing and don't say the same thing, then this is a very useless thread. If you opened the thread to lure Christians into fighting each other, then this is a failed thread.

johnydon22:
It is not about falling for this, that particular post affirms the argument i raise: Does the law apply or not?

If the Law does then all of them holds[which ever type they may be, all can be summarised as the law]

if the law has been done away with then they all must have been done away with, thats the point.

Goshen raised an argument different from yours, he nullified the totality of the old testament law, so this is not a trap for you but another example of Christian doctrinal and theological contradiction

If your purpose of opening this thread is simply to show us that different denominations within Christianity believe different things, I must point out that this is quite a very useless thread.

johnydon22:
One may try to key into your reasons but surely will also be healthy to point out that this commandment does not say "I am the lord thy God, give me 10% of your income"

Just like you may never see any line in the Bible that says "thou shalt not smoke" or "thou shalt not cheat in the exam hall". You will also not see "thou shalt not lust after a lady" in the 10 commandments. How do we know these things are bad? We allow the law of GOD speak to us in depth. Expounding on the 7th commandments, for example, reveals to us that fornication begins in the heart. Expounding on the 6th and 8th commandments reveal to us that smoking and exam malpractice.

johnydon22:
Now here comes the twist.. Doctor Alien, felix Omor the party is right here.

So Goshen, no laws from the old testament is binding to anyone in this era?

LOL. You know I won't fall for this.

Proudgorgeousga:
CC Doctor Alien what do you think?

LOL. I won't fall into that pit you dug for me.

Proudgorgeousga:
so tithing isn't compulsory, failure to tithe doesn't lead to hell right?

Tithing is compulsory. As I said, it can be seen as a direct consequence of Commandment no.1 which says "I Am the Lord thy GOD, which have brought thee out of Egypt, out of the house of bondage. Thou shalt have no other gods before me."

No other gods. Not even money. Now, "to him that knoweth to do good, and doeth it not, to him it is sin."(James 4:17). GOD claims the tithe as His. GOD specifically commanded tithing. For what purpose? To sustain His work on earth(the priesthood and temple services, in the case of ancient Israel). Is GOD's work still on earth? Yes(Matt. 28:18-20). Since we know that tithing was a command to support the work of GOD, which is a good thing. Now, if we refuse to support GOD's work with our tithes and offerings, knowing that it is a good thing to do, we disobey Him and disobedience to GOD is sin(James 4:17).

Proudgorgeousga:
from your explanation non payment of tithe, ladies wearing jeans, eating pork and crayfish is not sinful while not keeping the Sabbath is sinful because it is among the ten commandments which is not ceremonial right?
I like your explanation

DoctorAlien:
In the first post I made on this thread, I stated something: "The totality of the laws given to Israel at Sinai is (roughly for now)divided into two parts..." ...

So I will, to the best of my ability, try now to divide the Laws given at Sinai into different parts which include: moral Law, ceremonial law, civil law, health law.

I have addressed tithing on this thread. The law on dressing can be classed as a civil law. This law was to protect Israel from the corrupting influences of the surrounding nations. The laws on kosher(clean, fit) food are obviously health laws prescribed by GOD in His Wisdom. The Weekly Sabbath is a part of the moral Law which is eternal.

Johnydon22,

I have shown you that the word "Law" is used to denote many things in the Bible. I have also enlightened you on the different parts of the totality of the Law which was given at Sinai. I also told you that some parts of the Law are no longer in force right now(the ceremonial laws and the civil laws which governed Israel as a theocratic state). You have an obligation to ask questions like an enlightened man now.

If you're asking whether the OT is still authoritative, I say yes(2 Tim. 3:15-16). Tattooing is obviously classed under the health laws. Apart from the fact that it doesn't project one in the best light possible, all of us know the risks of infection associated with tattooing. So, GOD forbade tattooing in His wisdom, and any wise Christian would avoid tattooing.

The same applies to the food. GOD forbade man from eating somethings(e.g. pork) because they are not the best for him. Since GOD, in His love, prescribed wholesome foods for man, I have no problem abiding by His laws.

Edenoscar2:
Which law does tithing fall under?

DoctorAlien:
In the first post I made on this thread, I stated something: "The totality of the laws given to Israel at Sinai is (roughly for now)divided into two parts..."...

So I will, to the best of my ability, try now to divide the Laws given at Sinai into different parts which include: moral Law, ceremonial law, civil law, health law.

These are the parts of the Law given at Sinai which I can state off my head right now.

Remember, tithing predated Sinai. Abraham gave the tithe to Melchizedek(Gen. 14:18-20). Tithing is clearly a commandment which a Christian would happily keep to show his gratitude to GOD for blessing him and also to show support for GOD's work on earth. You could see see tithing a direct consequence of Commandment 1 in the moral law.

johnydon22:
Kill a proven non-virgin wife : Deuteronomy 22:13-21
Kill stubborn son: Deuteronomy 21:18-21
So are these ceremonial or moral codecs?

Good. In the first post I made on this thread, I stated something: "The totality of the laws given to Israel at Sinai is (roughly for now)divided into two parts..." I stated that, thinking that this argument won't go any deeper than that would suffice. But now, this argument is going deeper and your question now borders on another topic.

So I will, to the best of my ability, try now to divide the Laws given at Sinai into different parts which include: moral Law, ceremonial law, civil law, health law.

Another noteworthy point is that ancient Israel was, politically, a theocratic nation i.e. GOD was her King, the law of GOD(and especially the civil law) was her constitution and the law prescribes punishments for offences. You now understand the death penalties for offences.

Anyway, no nation right now is theocratic.

johnydon22:
So tell me which law does this example fall under

"If your wife was not a virgin on her wedding night, bring her out and she'd be stoned to death"

" Kill members of your relation who wants to make you serve other gods"

Please are these morally hinged or ceremonial?

I think it would be proper to tell us the verses you quote.

Ranchhoddas:
I see Doctor Alien viewing. Maybe he has something to say.

Sure.

I must note that this is a nice question.

The word "Law" denotes many things throughout the Bible. Sometimes it refers to the 10 Commandments/moral Law which was given on Mt. Sinai(Deut. 33:2). Other times it refers to the totality of the Laws given to Israel while they were encamped at Sinai(Gal. 3:13). It is also used to refer to the 5 Books of Moses i.e Genesis to Deuteronomy(Matt. 22:40).

The totality of the Laws given to Israel at Sinai is (roughly for now)divided into two parts: the moral Law/10 Commandments and the ceremonial law. The moral Law was written on a stone(which symbolizes durability) and is eternal(Exod. 31:18; Psa. 119:152). The ceremonial law was written in a book(easily perishable) and had to do with sacrifices and oblations and other sabbaths which actually pointed to Jesus Christ, the Lamb of GOD. It was never intended to last forever(Dan. 9:27).

So, in answer to the question: we are done with the ceremonial laws which pointed to Jesus' sacrificial works.

Happy Sabbath.

[s]

Sarassin:
You are not in any position to give me conditions. I asked you a simple question about 10 posts ago, you have waffled, bombasted and insulted your way through your responses delivered with a healthy dollop of faux-self-righteous indignation further compounded by scrambling around for disparate biblical verses taken out of context but you cannot bring yourself to provide a simple answer.

I think we have nothing further to discuss, have a nice day.

[/s]

Dispute any of my points and I'll answer your question.

Sarassin, I'll answer the question when you dispute any of the points I made in this post:

DoctorAlien:
Your arguments are puerile. I have shown you that:

1. Atonement/reparation for sin must be made and it must be with blood.(Lev. 17:11) We cannot be forgiven unless someone pays for our sins.
2. The Scripture foretells that the blood of Christ must be shed to atone/make reparation for our sins(Isa. 53)
3. Jesus Christ agreed that He was about to do what the Scripture said He would do(Luke 22:20; 24:44).