₦airaland Forum

winner01:
Christianity is not a religion.

udatso:
System.out.println(annunakiAndAssociates + "You are practising Altaqiyya" );

}

}
[/i][/color]
//the output of the program is in the pic below. It only gives a fixed output

The underlined got me really laughing out loud

Orikinla:
[size=20pt]Do I take any pleasure in the death of the wicked? declares the Sovereign LORD. Rather, am I not pleased when they turn from their ways and live?

~Ezekiel 18:23 , Holy Bible[/size]

on the contrary we see how Yahweh was ordering Moses and his other jihadist to kill pagans in the OT

Newnas:
People are just recycling the same crap they have posted before especially this heretic infidel calling himself AlBaqir

This guy though

annunaki2:
Al taquiya thread.

says a confused Christian

Medicis:
Haba, @op when did looking like a gorilla became you are a gorilla. It is well with ur soul.

Demmzy15:
Egbon kele tun shey?!

Nna, naso I replied one guy that was summoning thunder to fire me o.. the next thing I hear na BAN for my head

Will contribute to the thread when I am back.

Demmzy15:
Rilwayne001, Empi..ree, lexic..onkabir, carinm..om, haf..faze777, yaz..ack, mubara..kopeyemi, etc. You guys are welcome, everyone is welcome here!

Others contributing, immature posts would be dealt with!

Nna them don ban rilwayne again.. I am Thinking of quitting this useless site

dolphinheart:
op, it is quite evident that on the previous two occasions when the disciples asked jesus about where he was going, it was because of what jesus said.
its is also evident that on those two previous occasions , Jesus answered them. so jesus knew that they asked him the question two times.

This was the reason why on the third occasion he reminded them that they had not asked him "where are you going".
He now told them the reason why this time they had not asked him, this we can find in verse 6.

what he told them from verse 1 to 4 is enough to make his most trsuted disciples go into shock, hence his reason for not telling them earlier, and also because he was not leaving yet, now that he had now told them, they where too grieved to ask "where are you going".


so in pidgin jesus was saying " una no fit ask me where I dey go now because una don hear word we don make una fear fear!

Furthermore one should note that it's not easy to translate the entire meaning of a discussion from one language to another.

taking snippets from different verses is bad enough, using it to find fault tells who the person who does so really is!

Hahaha you just won it..

Oyiboman69:
Op,you need rehab....

Annunaki:
Mesopotamian civilisation predates islam by at least four thousand years so stop trying to give islam credit for mesopotamian achievements. Islam has contributed zilch to human development. Even the algebra you are ranting about is by an arab man and he did not derive the equation because he was muslim. It is the height of desperation for muslims to always try to credit islam for achievements by arabs, it betrays the type of inferiority complex muslims have.

umehmj:
bros the matter eh! i no know as i wan begin reason am. But bros J no try

maybe he was listening to Frank Edwards through his earphones, so he no hear.

Hehe

DeathStroke007:
Am surprised you asking.
Isn't it obvious?

DeathStroke007:
Absolutely NO

umehmj:
nawao

Is that all you've got to say?

DeathStroke007:
V) Conclusions

1. An anarthrous theos (θεος) can actually refer to God.
2. Articled theos (ο θεος) does not always refer to God.
3. θεος in John 1:1c is qualitative, not indefinite.

(John 1:1 [TR]) εν αρχη ην ο λογος και ο λογος ην προς τον θεον και θεος ην ο λογος

(John 1:1 [NIV]) In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

In the end, I’ll leave you with my favorite translation of this verse:
John 1 Aramaic Bible in Plain English
(John 1:1)
In the origin The Word had been existing, and That Word had been existing with God, and That Word was himself God.

Scholar8200:
Besides, Abiathar was the son of an high priest, and succeeded his father in the office: and might be at this time his deputy, who acted for him, or he by has advice; and according to a rule the Jews (l) themselves give,

"the son of an high priest, who is deputed by his father in his stead, , "lo! he is called an high priest".''

So that Abiathar might at this time be called the high priest; and is the rather mentioned, because he was the more eminent and famous man; and whom the Jews call (m) Urim and Thummim, because there was much inquiry made by them; in his and his father's days, and very little after:

BY
John Gill
biblehub.com


Reference:

(l) Siphra, fol. 17. 2. apud Kidder's Demonstration of the Messiah, par. 2. p. 73.

Summary means Jesus spoke using a style familiar to the Jews. That is why they made this accusation:

Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the sabbath, but said also that God was his Father, making himself equal with God.
John 5:18

They saw the son as equal to the father.

Hmmn.. Another nice lie. The son of an High Priest is also called an High priest..

Nice lie

Medicis:
Jesus did not say during the tenure of Abiathar the high priest, he used the phrase "in the days of Abiathar". Was Abiathar not alive when David ate the bread?? When Muslims talk about the childhood of prophet muhammad why do they call him prophet. Was he a prophet when he was Child??

Medicis:
First Samuel is correct in stating that the high
priest was Ahimelech. On the other hand neither
was Jesus wrong. When we take a closer look at
Christ’s words we notice that He used the
phrase “in the days of Abiathar” (v. 26) which
does not necessarily imply that Abiathar was
high priest at the time David ate the bread. After
David met Ahimelech and ate the bread, King
Saul had Ahimelech killed ( 1 Sam. 22:17–19 ).
Abiathar escaped and went to David (v. 20) and
later took the place of the high priest. So even
though Abiathar was made high priest after David
ate the bread, it is still correct to speak in this
manner. After all, Abiathar was alive when David
did this, and soon following he became the high
priest after his father’s death. Thus, it was during
the time of Abiathar, but not during his tenure in
office.
Abiathar was a high priest during David’s reign as
king, and he is mentioned some 29 times in the
Old Testament in relation to his priestly role.
Those familiar with the Hebrew Bible in the 1st
century (when The Gospel of Mark was written)
would easily connect Abiathar to David, so Mark
2:26 is merely reminding readers of the time
frame of David’s eating the consecrated bread.
The words “the high priest,” coming after
“Abiathar” are just his title, much like we might
say, “When President Obama attended college,
he made many friends.” Obama was not
president while he was in college, but whenever
we mention Obama, we refer to him as President
Obama.

abduljabbar4:
Truthman2013 single handedly silenced the stup!d liars. May Allah reward you my brother

truthman2013:
trust me, truthman2012 won't be coming back to this thread. And if he actually did, he will certainly evade all questions directed to him.

..truthman..

estijaz:
Please Muslim brodas and sistas,ansa dis question,is d word of God d creator or a creation?I don't nid long stories,just pick one n den I can analyse my point

truthman2012:
Muslims, let's assume allahh was absent when Muhammad was tasting the poison as he might not be omnipresent, why could he heal him after taking it?

Ajibam:
Watch this video.


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RVvsmc5YsGg

The man claim Quran converted him to Christianity, after he saw those verses, he asked his imam, the imam chased him away, after personal study, he was delivered, he saw the revelations, he was saved.
Glory be to Jesus