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paxonel: don't misunderstand me, read it again. i didn't ask you to continue in sin, rather i quoted scritures explaining why you shouldn't commit sin, and also we are under grace, that we should take advantage of the grace because everybody commit sin, nobody is perfectbut christ died for all. why wont everyone make heaven despite their sins? |
rinrin23: Don't get me wrong, I have nothing but respect for these men.they cant be questioned cos they did not force d money out of their customer's pocket. just allow them to be. |
false prophets in sheep clothing all over d place. God help us to expose them. |
rinrin23: This is why Nigerian pastors get away with all kinds of atrocities!but they did nt steal from u na? did they come to your house to steal ur money? |
should pastors be begging before? should pastors be poor? |
pls do u believe dat someone who is obedient can turn and become rebellious and disobedience like satan when he rebelled against God and he was cast out? |
paxonel: you commited a lot of fallacies in all the bible quotion you quoted which black men can never see because most of them lark quality education, by the way, do you know what fallacies are?my friend u were d one who lacked quality education because u don't understand scriptures. i sympathize with u on dat. |
paxonel: no it is not satan, when Paul was saying that the gift of salvation is free people thought it was too good to be true, so they thought he was saying people should go and comit sin and they begin to slander himu are only dragging us backward. so i can continue in sin after all when God look at me he will not see my sin but d blood of Jesus. is dat not what u are saying if i hear u correctly? whether we sin or not we would make heaven i.e everyone on earth will make heaven. is dis not what u are saying now? yes or no? |
@vest. In summary, there is not a shred of evidence in the Bible to support the idea that Mary remained a virgin and never had other children after giving birth to Jesus. In fact, as we have seen, there is much evidence to the contrary. Additionally, the notion that had Mary remained a virgin even though she was married to Joseph carries with it the idea that it was somehow noble and beautiful for this married woman to refrain from sexual intercourse with her husband, that sex would somehow have tainted her. This directly contradicts the Bible's teaching that sex in marriage is right and good and ought to be done. Scripture only indicates that Mary and Joseph refrained from sex until Jesus was born so as not to put His paternity in question and so that the Scripture would be fulfilled (Isaiah 7:14). But after that, they conducted themselves as a normal husband and wife, and Mary gave birth to the brothers and sisters of Jesus mentioned in the Scriptures. |
A Distorted View of Marriage Something I want to point out here is that the Catholic doctrine of Mary's perpetual virginity leads to a distorted view of sex in marriage. Catholics maintain—without any biblical evidence —that Mary herself was immaculately conceived and remained without sin all her life. The idea that she never had sex is a part of this doctrine. However, the Bible shows that this view backfires on itself. While sex outside of marriage is a sin, within marriage, sexual relations are clearly sanctified (Hebrews 13:4). Yet, the doctrine of Mary's perpetual virginity intimates that sexual intercourse with her husband would somehow have defiled her, and that she is to be revered because she remained a virgin. This makes a mockery of God's institution of marriage. The sin would have been in Mary's remaining a virgin (1 Corinthians 7:3-5). By the way, the Bible never so much as hints at other Catholic doctrines that Mary was born from an immaculate conception, that she was sinless at birth, or that she remained sinless. The Bible tells us, "For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God" (Romans 3:23). The only one born of a woman who knew no sin was Jesus Christ: "For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him" (2 Corinthians 5:21). The truth is that Mary was a human being and sinner like any other. To say otherwise is a denial of the Bible's teaching of the total depravity of all humans |
Jesus' Brothers and Sisters Toward the end of Matthew 13, we read that Jesus went to Nazareth, where He was brought up, and spoke in the synagogue. The townspeople, who all knew Him and His family well, said, "Is not this the carpenter's son? is not his mother called Mary? and his brethren, James, and Joses, and Simon, and Judas? And his sisters, are they not all with us? Whence then hath this man all these things?" (Matthew 13:55-56; see also Mark 6:3). This seems clear enough. But the Roman Catholic Church has this response: "Against this doctrine the objection is sometimes raised that the Bible mentions brothers and sisters of Jesus. The Church has always understood these passages as not referring to other children of the Virgin Mary. In fact James and Joseph, 'brothers of Jesus', are the sons of another Mary, a disciple of Christ, whom St. Matthew significantly calls 'the other Mary'. They are close relations of Jesus, according to an Old Testament expression" (paragraph 500, Catechism of the Catholic Church ). John Gill also insists, " And his brethren ; not strictly so, but either the sons of Joseph by a former wife; or Mary's, or Joseph's brothers or sisters sons, and so cousins to Christ; it being usual with the Jews to call such, and even more distant relations, brethren." Gill, following the Catholic theologians on this matter, seems willing to accept any other scenario but the most obvious. Do these people name Jesus' uncles and aunts? No. Why, then, should they name His cousins? Are they not referring to Joseph, the man they think of as Jesus' father (although Jesus was really the Son of God), when they say, "Is not this the carpenter's son?" Of course. Do they not directly name Mary as Jesus' mother? Yes. If they do this, even using the label "mother" for Mary, it would be completely inconsistent to use "brethren" to refer to Jesus' cousins. It is plain that they are naming the members of his immediate family. This is very strong evidence against the Catholic position. A Messianic Prophecy Apparently John Gill and the Catholics have forgotten or want to ignore the obvious wording of the Messianic prophecy in Psalm 69:8-9: "I am become a stranger unto my brethren, and an alien unto my mother's children. For the zeal of thine house hath eaten me up; and the reproaches of them that reproached thee are fallen upon me." In his commentary on verse 8, Gill takes "brethren" to mean the Jews in general and "also to such who were still nearer akin to him, according to the flesh." In commenting on "an alien unto my mother's children," Gill points out that "alien" can be taken as "Gentile" or "heathen," but completely ignores "my mother's children." For this prophecy to be fulfilled in Jesus Christ, He had to have had brethren, and His mother had to have had other children. In fact, the Psalmist was simply using the Hebraism of repeating something two different ways when he said, "I am become a stranger unto my brethren, and an alien unto my mother's children," for, of course, these two phrases mean exactly the same thing. Jesus' brethren were His mother's children. This prophecy is devastating evidence against the Catholic assertion that Mary had no other children. By the way, this also puts to rest Gill's suggestion that the brothers of Jesus might be the sons of Joseph by a former wife. They cannot be so if they are, as the Psalm says, His "mother's children." Other Scriptures that refer directly to Jesus' siblings are Matthew 12:46-49; Mark 3:31-34; Luke 8:19-21; John 2:12; John 7:3-10; Acts 1:14; 1 Corinthians 9:5; Galatians 1:19. Never once, in all the references to these people, are they referred to with the Greek word suggenēs , which has the general meaning of "cousin" or "kinsman." The word used is always adelphos, "brother." |
" This meaning is seen in many Scriptures. For example, in Matthew 2:13, 15, and 19-20, we read, "And when they were departed, behold, the angel of the Lord appeareth to Joseph in a dream, saying, Arise, and take the young child and his mother, and flee into Egypt, and be thou there until [heōs ] I bring thee word: for Herod will seek the young child to destroy him…. And was there until [heōs ] the death of Herod: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Out of Egypt have I called my son…. But when Herod was dead, behold, an angel of the Lord appeareth in a dream to Joseph in Egypt, Saying, Arise, and take the young child and his mother, and go into the land of Israel: for they are dead which sought the young child's life." Clearly, heōs in these verses means to do something (flee to and stay in Egypt) up to a given point (the reappearance of the angel upon the death of Herod) and then stop doing that (leave Egypt and go to Israel). This meaning is found in dozens of Scriptures referring to both time and place. I'll give a verse where heōs is used of place: "And he [Jesus] led them out as far as [ heōs ] to Bethany, and he lifted up his hands, and blessed them" (Luke 24:50). Did Jesus lead them farther than Bethany? No. The action of leading stopped at Bethany. |
@vest. All of us are probably aware that the Catholic and Orthodox churches believe and teach that Jesus was the only child born to Mary. In 411, Augustine wrote that Mary, "remained a virgin in conceiving her Son, a virgin in giving birth to him, a virgin in carrying him, a virgin in nursing him at her breast, always a virgin" ( Sermons 186, 1: PL 38, 999 as quoted in paragraph 510 of the Catechism of the Catholic Church ). We might also know that many Anglicans believe this. But we might be surprised that some Protestants believe this. In fact, Martin Luther, Huldrych (or Ulrich) Zwingli, Heinrich Bullinger, and John Calvin all believed it. In his Commentary on Matthew , Calvin even called anyone who disagreed "pigheaded and fatuous." Perhaps even more surprising is that the eminent Baptist theologian, John Gill, regularly waffled on this subject, seeming to believe it by comments he made, but never, as far as I know, making a clear statement committing himself to it. Is there clear, biblical proof one way or the other? Jesus' Birth The first Scriptural evidence is in Matthew 1:18: "Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost." The Greek word translated "before" is prin . It means "prior" or "before." "Came together" is translated from sunelthein, which means to convene. But it was also used to mean to come together in marital relations. So, in other words, before Joseph and Mary had consummated their marriage, Mary was found to be pregnant with a child from the Holy Spirit. Verses 24 and 25 are often cited by Catholics as evidence of Mary's perpetual virginity: "Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife: And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS." The word "knew" is from the Greek word, eginōskin . As Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament explains, this normal Greek word for "knew" was used by Jews as an "idiom for sexual intercourse between a man and a woman." "Till" serves a very great purpose in this verse. The Catholic argument is that the word "till" or "until" ( heōs in the Greek) does not necessarily mean that the action prior to the point indicated (in this case, sexual abstinence) does not continue afterward. In other words, Joseph and Mary may not have ended their sexual abstinence after Jesus' birth. They may have continued to refrain from sexual intercourse for the rest of their lives. Catholics say that this is, in fact, what happened. John Gill takes a similar position regarding the word "till": "Joseph knew her not till she had brought forth, the meaning is certain that he knew her not before. But whether he afterwards did or not, is not so manifest, nor is it a matter of any great importance." Oh, but it is important when millions of people who believe in Mary's perpetual virginity venerate her and pray to her. Yes, it is important that we find the truth of this matter. As I said above, "till" is translated from heōs . It is a conjunction that means "till" or "until." According to Merriam-Webster's Collegiate Dictionary , eleventh edition, the conjunction "until" means, "up to the time that: up to such time as." |
FringeWizard: I agree with the general sentiment here that one who is "saved" can be corrupted again and led to destruction but I don't buy into all the endless Christian nonsense.if u dnt buy it, then stay in ur corner. |
paxonel: i know, but you have not said anythingi have said a lot if u read my post. |
paxonel: lol, I'll rather read Romans 6:10 which saysso i'm now free to continue in sin. isn't it? satan is really using u to deceive people. |
Rich4god: You of all people shld knw where I belong, jst dat I dont like peeps like you going abt bashing oda pples faith... You still didnt prove to me how you concluded that yours is the true spirit... Paxonel has quoted from the bible to bck up his claim... So whats your say...if he read the post, he will not ignorantly quote those scriptures. |
Rich4god: lol... @lazy christians... Me thinks its a foolish christian that will waste his time reading that trash you wrote up there... @paxonel... Dont even bother reading cos its a waste of time...it is rather a foolish christian that will not read it. |
paxonel: lol, I'll rather read Romans 6:10 which saysmy people perish for lack of knowledge. Hosea 4:6. read to avert the danger of being ignorant. |
paxonel: lol, I'll rather read Romans 6:10 which saysmy people perish for lack of knowledge. Hosea 4:6. |
Rich4god: Keep spewing trash... Prove to me how your spirit is the true spirit and how theirs is the lying spirit. Just one proof is all I need. Mind you, if you quote from the bible, they too will quote from the same bible to show that yours is a lying spirit. So am waiting.pls dnt tell me u believe d crap of once saved always saved. i hv proved it from d post that it is a lie and nt consistent with d wholesome word of God. do u hv any contrary view? |
@paxonel. pls devote tym 2 read all through. it will help to clear every doubt. d bible said u shud study to show urself approved unto God. dnt be a lazy christian. |
Rich4god: And you think they dont have the spirit in them. How are you sure yours is the true spirit. Have you ever thought for ones if theirs is the true spirit and yours the false. They quote from same bible and virtually do everything that you do...some dnt have d spirit of God in them. what they have is a lying spirit. mine is d truth because i have the spirit of God and he reveal d truth to me. once saved is always saved is a doctrine from d pit of hell. |
Rich4god: How are you sure yours is the true faith... Considering the fact that they have biblical backing to this teaching...the spirit of God in us will always confirm d truth. he always reveals the truth. did u know that Satan's agents have their own gospel which is false. and they also have scripture to back it up. they can tell u dat adultery is nt a sin and they will quote scriptures to back it up. we must be vigilant. |
dragunov: another false teachings from these folks is the assumption that peter was the first pope. There was nothing like pope in jerusalem after the gospel started to spread. The favourite scripture these dudes use to confirm the popeship of peter is that in which jesus said: 'niether flesh or blood has revealed this......you are simon peter which means rock....... And upon this rock I will build my church....... Jesus was not refering to peter as the foundation of his church, but he was referring to the revelation that peter saw and uttered in reponse to jesus' question:who do you say I am. It is upon the revelation of christ that the church is built, not on any man or institution. Jesus was not endorsing the institutionalization of peter. He was basically referring to himself, the eternal rock. Rcc is false.100% correct. those guys are so hardhearted and stubborn. |
Rich4god: Ukutsgp... Allow peeps to practice their faith as it pleases them... Why do you have to bash them...allow them to practise what is false that will take them to hell? i cant. christ embassy should stop preaching this evil doctrine. |
God is no respecter of persons. Romans 2:6-11 - God distinguishes the saved from the lost "without respect of persons" or partiality. If Jesus' death was all there was to it, then He must save everybody or else be a respecter of person. Instead, there is a distinction on the basis of our conduct - whether we work evil or continue in doing good. Acts 10:34,35 - God is no respecter of persons, but those who fear Him and work righteousness are accepted. True, we cannot earn salvation. But there is a way God distinguishes between those who will be saved by His son's blood from those who will not - our faith and works. When people claim that Jesus' death is all there is to it and people do not need to do anything to be saved, they unknowingly make God a respecter of persons. If Jesus' blood saves by itself with no conditions to be met, then why is faith necessary? In practice, everyone admits there are some conditions necessary to be saved by Jesus' blood. Most people admit we must believe. Many agree we must repent and confess Christ. (See John 3:16; 8:24; 2 Pet. 3:9; Rom. 10:9,10; 6:3,4; Acts 2:38; 22:16; Mark. 16:16; etc.) But these are simply conditions we must meet to receive the benefit of Jesus' death. To admit this is to admit Jesus' death alone, without conditions people must meet, will not save. But if we agree there are conditions people must meet to be saved, then why object when we point out from the Scriptures that these necessary conditions include baptism and a faithful life? These no more deny the power of Jesus' death than do faith, repentance, etc. If you can recognize faith, etc., as necessary to salvation without denying the importance of Jesus' death, then in the same way we believe baptism and a faithful life are also necessary without denying the importance of Jesus' death. The Bible expressly shows that there are conditions children of God must meet to be cleansed by Jesus' blood. 1 John 1:7-9 - Children of God do sin (v8,10). To be cleansed by Jesus' blood, we must "walk in the light" and "confess our sins." To deny this is to deny the clear teaching of Scripture. Acts 8:22 - A child of God (v12,13) who sinned was clearly told that, to be cleansed of his sin, he must repent and pray. It is Jesus' blood that forgives. But just as there are conditions we must meet to be cleansed and become a child of God, so there are conditions we must meet to be cleansed after we are children of God. |
The fact life is "eternal" does not prove we cannot lose it. "Eternal" describes the nature of the life. It has nothing to do with whether it can or cannot be lost. Example: Suppose someone offers me a watch guaranteed to work for 50 years, but I must do some task in order to receive it. It is still a "50-year watch" regardless of whether or not I do the job and receive it. These passages discuss the reward believers will receive as a result of their current state. But they are not discussing what would happen if they change their state. The passages are not intended to discuss everything about what can happen to a child of God. They are written to help us appreciate the blessings we have, or to encourage people to become children of God. But God does not put all His will in a single verse or passage. We are expected to study other Scripture. When we do, we learn that we ultimately receive the reward only if faithful. It is misusing these verses to teach from them something they do not necessarily mean and which contradicts other passages. Consider the consequences if we used this reasoning on passages that describe the lost . John 3:36 says unbelievers shall not see life . Shall we conclude this too cannot change (like people argue on the first part of the verse)? If a person is lost, does this prove he can never change and be saved? "Once lost, always lost"? [Cf. John 5:24; Heb. 6:4-8; 10:26ff] If we can see how unsaved people can change their state and become saved, despite such verses as this, then in the same way we can understand how saved people can change their state and become lost. This same approach works with most other arguments for "once saved always saved." Consistently applied to passages about lost people, the same arguments would prove "once lost, always lost." Jesus' Blood Sacrifice Is Sufficient. Some folks say that Jesus' death is all we need to be saved. If we argue that there are things we need to do to be saved, including living a faithful life, they say we are denying the power of Jesus' death. We agree Jesus' blood has the power to cleanse all sin. But the question is whether it cleanses conditionally or unconditionally. We cannot earn salvation, but are there conditions we must meet to receive the forgiveness? Jesus died for all people. If His death is all we need, and people need do nothing at all, then all would be saved. 1 Timothy 2:6 - Jesus gave His life a ransom for all. Hebrews 2:9 - By the grace of God, Jesus tasted death for all men (the extent of this is shown in v15). John 3:16 - God gave His Son for the world because of His love. 1 John 2:2 - Jesus is propitiation for the sins, not just of Christians, but for the whole world. [cf. I John 4:14] Romans 5:18,19 - By Jesus' act of righteousness (His death - v8,9), justification came to all men. If Jesus' death is "sufficient" and "all we need," then why aren't all men saved, since He died for all? But we know that not all will be saved (Matt. 7:13,14; etc.). So there must be something that distinguishes the saved from the unsaved. There are conditions we must meet. |
The Body Sins, but the Spirit Does Not We are told that we may physically do things that violate God's word, but He does not hold our spirit accountable for what the body does. Those who teach this doctrine are obligated to produce Scripture to prove it. It is not enough to make the claim. They must give Scripture. Is the spirit responsible for the good deeds of the body? If so, why not also for the bad deeds? If they cite Rom. 7:25 & 8:1, note 7:23 and 8:6-17 which show the man is condemned for the sins of the body. Many Scriptures show that God holds the spirit (inner man) accountable for the sins of the outer man. 1 Corinthians 6:9,10,13,15,18-20 - Fornicators will not inherit the kingdom of God. But this is a sin of the body. The body is a member of Christ, a temple of the Spirit, and belongs to God so it should be used for His glory (this shows the people addressed are children of God, bought with a price, etc.). [cf. 3:16,17] Mark 7:20-23 - Evil (done by the body) proceeds from the heart and defiles a man. [Prov. 23:7; 4:23] 2 Corinthians 5:10 - We will be judged for deeds done in the body . Our spirits will be held accountable for what the body does. Romans 6:12,16,23 - People who have been baptized into Christ (v3,4) and made free from sin (v18), must not let sin reign in their mortal bodies. If we do, we are servants of sin and must die (v16,23). 1 Corinthians 9:27 - Paul buffeted his body to bring it in subjection, let he be a castaway. Romans 8:13 - We must put to death the deeds of the body in order to live. Otherwise, we will die. [2 Cor. 7:1; Rom. 12:1,2; Gal. 5:19-24; Acts 8:20-22] Passages that Say We Have Eternal Life Numerous passages are cited which say we have eternal life: John 10:28; 17:3; 5:24; 3:36; 6:47; 3:16; I John 5:12,13. Some argue that, if we have it, and if it is eternal, then we cannot lose it. If we do, it wasn't eternal. We have eternal life now only as a promise or hope. 1 John 2:25 - This is the promise He has promised us, even life eternal. James 1:12 - The crown of life which the Lord promised to those who love Him. Titus 1:2; 3:7 - The hope of eternal life, which God promised . We receive eternal life, in the sense of a present possession, only after earthly life is over and then only if we endure faithfully till life is over. Luke 18:30 - We receive eternal life "in the world to come." Romans 2:5-7 - Eternal life will be given at the judgment IF we continue patiently in well doing. [This is the same time that the wicked will receive eternal punishment - Matt. 25:46. Does this happen in this life?] Revelation 2:10 - Be faithful until death and receive the crown of life. In this life, we "have" eternal life in the sense of a promise or a hope based on faith. But we actually enter eternal life at the judgment if and only if we continue living faithfully till life is over. This is a conditional promise. We will be lost if we fail to meet the conditions. The proof texts, used to defend "present possession" of eternal life, themselves state conditions to be met. John 5:24 - He who hears and believes . But we have shown that one can cease doing these. John 6:47; 3:16,36 - He that believes . But one can cease believing. 1 John 5:13 - V11,12 speak of those who believe on the Son, and life is IN the Son. But we can cease believing and fail to abide in Him (John 15:1- .John 10:27,28 - Hear Jesus' voice and follow Him. John 17:3 - Know God. But one can forget God, turn from Him, and cease to know Him (I John 2:3-6; Jer. 3:21,22; Psa. 9:17; 106;12,21,24). Note also that saving faith requires obedience, and to cease to obey is to cease to have a saving faith - James 2:14-26; Heb. 10:39; chap. 11; Gal. 5:6; etc. |
We must take all the Bible says on any subject (Matt. 4:6,7; Acts 3:22,23). We have already shown many passages showing that it is possible for a child of God to sin. Many more verses, even in 1 John and addressed to these same people, show this is true: 1 John 1:8,10 - If we say we don't sin, we lie and truth is not in us. This is exactly the condition of some folks who argue for "once saved, always saved"! 1 John 2:1,2 - John wrote so we would avoid sin. Jesus is our propitiation if we do sin. If sin is impossible, why write, and why would we need propitiation? 1 John 2:15-17 - Love not the world. If we do, we don't love the Father (cf. I Cor. 16:22). Why warn us, if it is impossible to be guilty? 1 John 5:21 - Guard yourself from idols. Why, if it is impossible to be guilty of sin? 2 Peter 2:14 - Some children of God (v1,15) " cannot cease from sin"! If I John 3:9 means children of God cannot possibly commit sin, then this passage means these children of God cannot possibly quit sinning! Clearly 1 John 3:9 does not mean sin is impossible, else we have contradictions in the Bible. In fact, many people who believe "once saved, always saved," will admit sin is possible (see quotes in introduction). "Does not sin" refers to persisting in the practice of sin (see NASB). A true child of God may occasionally commit acts of sin, but he must repent, confess, and be forgiven by Jesus' blood (1:9; 2:2). He must not continue in the practice of sin. Why not? "God's seed abides" in the child of God. The seed that begets us, so we become children of God, is the word of God: 1 Peter 1:23-25 - We are begotten again by the incorruptible seed which is the Word of God. James 1:18 - We are begotten by the word of truth. 1 John 2:14,24 - The word of God, which we heard, abides in us. [Luke 8:11ff; I Cor. 4:15; I John 1:10; 2:5,7] How does the this seed abide in us? Can it cease abiding in us? 1 John 1:10 - If we say we do not sin, His word is not in us . We may still know what it says, but we have rejected it. John 5:38 - If we do not believe Jesus, God's word does not abide in us. Acts 2:41 - Those who gladly received the word were baptized. Receiving the word requires believing and obeying it. Otherwise we are rejecting it. (I Thess. 2:13) To have the word abiding in us means to have a receptive attitude toward it, believing and obeying it, applying it in our lives. If this is our attitude, 1 John 3:9 says we will not continue in the practice of sin. Of course not, because to do so would be to reject the word so it no longer abides in us! Note Psalms 119:11 - Your word I have hidden in my heart, That I might not sin against You! This is exactly what 1 John 3:9 says. But can we cease believing the word, studying it, and striving to live by it? We have shown that we can. If we do, the seed no longer abides in us, so we practice sin. "He cannot sin" Does this mean it is humanly impossible under any circumstances to transgress? "Can" (Gk DUNAMAI) means: "to be able, have power, whether by virtue of one's own ability and resources, or of state of mind, or through favorable circumstances, or by permission of law and custom" (Thayer). Examples elsewhere show it does not necessarily mean physical or human impossibility, but rather that law, state of mind, or circumstances do not allow it: 1 Corinthians 10:21 - You cannot drink the cup of the Lord and the cup of demons (it is not lawful). Acts 4:20 - We cannot but speak the things we have seen and heard (law and state of mind do not permit it). Mark 2:19 - Sons of the bridechamber cannot fast while the bridegroom is with them (circumstances make it such that no one would do it). Hence 1 John 3:9 means that, when one has accepted God's word into his heart and so becomes a child of God, his attitude and the principles of the word will not allow him to continue practicing sin. God's word (the seed) has become the guiding principle of his heart, and it would be inconsistent with this to continue practicing sin. For example, suppose an employer asks a Christian employee to tell a lie. The Christian replies, "I can't do a thing like that." Is it physically impossible? No, but it is completely contrary to his nature as a child of God. As long as his attitude toward God's word is right, he will not do it. |
Part 2: Evidence Offered to Show that a Child of God Cannot So Sin as to Be Lost Folks are sometimes confused by passages that are used to defend "once saved, always saved." We need to understand the arguments and how to answer them. Some of these passages do offer hope and security to believers, but they are conditional passages, and these conditions are often overlooked. If we study the verses in light of what we have already learned we will see that, while they do give security to those who are faithful, they do not teach unconditional "once saved, always saved." John 10:28,29 - "They shall never perish … no one shall snatch them out of my hand" This is a wonderful promise. But is it, as the preacher said, so unconditional that a person's soul cannot be lost no matter how he lives? The context gives conditions - v27,28. Note the word "and " repeated. Receiving life and never perishing are tied to hearing Jesus and following him . These are conditions, exactly like we have been teaching. As the Good Shepherd, Jesus protects His sheep so no one can destroy them, as long as the sheep hear Jesus and follow Him. But what if they cease to hear and follow, as we have learned elsewhere they can do? "Pluck" refers to an outside force. "Pluck" (KJV) or "snatch" (NKJV, ASV) means "to seize, carry off by force" (Thayer), like the thief might do (v10,12). Neither Satan nor any outside force can steal you from the Lord, as long as you meet the conditions. But we must "resist the devil," and then we have assurance he will flee from us (James 4:7). What happens if, through negligence or willful rebellion, we wander away from the protection of Jesus' fold? Sheep can stray from the shepherd's protection. Luke 15:3-7 - 100 sheep belonged to the shepherd (v4,6), but one became lost . Acts 20:28-30 - Wolves may enter among the flock, speak perverse things, and draw away the disciples. They cannot compel us to follow them and be lost. We may still choose to follow the Lord's voice. But false teachers can lure us, attract us, and tempt us. I Peter 5:8,9 - Satan is a roaring lion seeking to devour us. If we do not withstand him, he can capture and destroy us. But we can withstand him if we have faith and vigilance . This is what Jesus promised in John 10. (John 17; 6:37-40; I Pet. 2:25). If sheep cannot possibly stray, even of their own free will, then this would deny our free moral power to choose. We could not become lost even if we wanted to! 1 John 3:9 - One begotten of God "does not sin … he cannot sin" |
Acts 8:12-24 - Simon the Sorcerer Simon believed and was baptized (v13). This is what Jesus said one must do to be saved (Mark 16:16). This is what the other Samaritans did (v12). Simon did "ALSO" the same things the others did. If they were saved, he was saved. If he was not saved, then none of the others were saved. But Simon later sinned. His heart was not right (v21), he was guilty of wickedness (v22), and was in the gall of bitterness and the bond of iniquity (v23). As a result, he would perish (v20) if he did not repent and pray (v22). Galatians 5:1-4 - The Judaizers These people were children of God (3:26; cf. 1:2-4; 4:6), who had been set free by Christ (5:1). They had to be in grace if they fell from it (5:4). They sinned in that they desired to go back to the Old Testament yoke of bondage (5:1) and bound circumcision. As a result, Christ profited them nothing (v2), they were severed from Christ (v4), fallen from grace (v4). They were not obeying truth (v7). These were children of God who were in God's grace but then fell from that grace so that Christ profited them nothing and they were severed from Christ. Can one receive eternal life if he is severed from Christ (Eph. 1:3-7) and fallen from the grace that saves (Eph. 2: ?"Once saved, always saved" is a tempting doctrine because it is comforting. It tells people what they would like to hear. We would all like to think that, even if we or our loved ones fall into sin, they will still receive eternal life. But it is a false doctrine because it clearly contradicts Scriptures in nearly every book of the Bible. It is also a dangerous doctrine because it leads people to think they are safe even if they don't examine their lives, don't study the Bible, and don't repent of sin. Furthermore, it leads preachers to not warn sinners that they need to repent. I have personally known people who told me of terrible sins they deliberately and knowingly committed, justifying themselves because they believed it would not affect their salvation. I have known teachers who justified those very people saying that they would not have lost their salvation even when committed those sins. Suppose a child is about to cross a busy street. Shouldn't the parent warn the child to look carefully for traffic before they cross the street? People who advocate "once saved, always saved" are like a parent who not only does not warn the child, but worse yet tells him there is nothing to worry about because he can't get hit, and if he does get hit, he won't die! Why should the child be warned? Because there is a very real danger. And the situation is most dangerous if the child is not on guard. The worst thing anyone can do to the child is to tell him there is no danger. Yet that is exactly what preachers do when they teach "once saved, always saved." And this has eternal consequences, because souls are at stake. Nevertheless, if the child is careful, he can cross the street safely despite the danger. So the best favor anyone can do for the child is to warn him of the danger, so he can avoid it. That is exactly what we do when we preach the Bible passages that warn Christians to avoid sin. It is not that we believe Christians have no security, but we know people are only secure when they are aware of the dangers, so they can be on guard. |
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