Jessicha:


If he still exist after death , that means he never died . It means he only pretends to die but was actually alive .


The keyword is " death" nd it applies to All living things . Are you now saying when living things die they dont cease to exist ? Lol , goats and lion must be in heaven

Jesus is God
God is immortal
Jesus is immortal












Death does not apply to immortals. One would be tempted to ask what then happened to jesus? Its simple jesus was humanity and divinity personified so the part of him that died was the human part leading to the manifestation of his divinity which was why he could break the law of gravity

As Jesus, He was "The Son of Man" and therefore subject to Temptations like you and I. Christ in Heaven is "The Son of God" and is God in Heaven where there is no vacuum for temptation.

Richirich713:


DON'T PICK TRANSLATIONS !

ERV- "David knew this before it happened. That is why he said this about that future king: ‘He was not left in the place of death. His body did not rot in the grave.’ David was talking about the Messiah rising from death"


NLT- "David was looking into the future and speaking of the Messiah’s resurrection. He was saying that God would not leave him among the dead or allow his body to rot in the grave"

NIV "Seeing what was to come, he spoke of the resurrection of the Messiah, that he was not abandoned to the realm of the dead, nor did his body see decay"

Hades is the greek translation from the hebrew word Sheol which refers to the place where the dead goes.

Is HELL a wrong translation ?

Richirich713:


WAT ? U completely twisting scripture and still ignoring other passages which prove u wrong.

"And the devil, who deceived them, was thrown into the lake of burning sulfur, where the beast and the false prophet had been thrown. They will be tormented day and night for ever and ever" Revelation 20:10

"Then he will say to those on his left, ‘Depart from me, you who are cursed, into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels" Matthew 25:41

DOES THIS SAY THEY WILL CEASE TO EXIST ? Come on guy they will suffer for all eternity , u can't be serious with ur interpretation.

Revelation 21:4

Let's read the context shall we :

He will wipe every tear from their eyes. There will be no more death’ or mourning or crying or pain, for the old order of things has passed away.”

5 He who was seated on the throne said, “I am making everything new!” Then he said, “Write this down, for these words are trustworthy and true.”

 He said to me: “It is done. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the Beginning and the End. To the thirsty I will give water without cost from the spring of the water of life. 7 Those who are victorious will inherit all this, and I will be their God and they will be my children. 8 BUT the cowardly, the unbelieving, the vile, the murderers, the sexually immoral, those who practice magic arts, the idolaters and all liars—they will be consigned to the fiery lake of burning sulfur, THIS IS THE SECOND DEATH.” Revelation 21: 4-8

Obviously the above passage proves ur interpretation is completely incorrect.

Dont just say wat ? Explain Rev 20:14 " death was casted into the Lake Of Fire" , death was also casted into the fiery lake of burnig sulphur , what does it mean ?

A) death will be burning forever in the fiery lake .
Or

B) death will cease to exist .

pass111:
We should also consider Deuteronomy 6:16 , which instructs the
Israelites to be careful that they do not to tempt the Lord.
Likewise, Malachi 3:15 refers to the wicked who tempt God with
their evil lifestyles. Jesus even quoted the Old Testament
Scriptures when He warned others not to tempt the Lord (e.g.,
Matthew 4:7 and Luke 4:12 ).
Today we mostly use the term tempt specifically to mean to
“solicit to do evil.” However, the term has not always been quite so
narrowly interpreted. In the Bible this word conveys that idea at
times, but at other times it means to “put to the test.” The context
helps to determine which meaning is intended.
James clearly stated, “God cannot be tempted by evil ” . The phrase “by evil” is important because it highlights the
point James was trying to make. This clearly indicates that God
cannot be enticed to commit evil.
In the other passages above that referred to tempting God, the
writers were using the term to mean we must not put God to the
test. Here is the line of reasoning:
1. God has said He will judge sin.
2. When we sin, we are putting God to the test to see if He will
respond to our sin by doing what He has said He will do.
3. We must not “test” the extent of God’s grace but instead obey
what He has told us to do.
Now, along with this question of whether or not God can be
tempted, another potential dilemma arises, which is often stated like
this:
1. James 1:13 tells us God cannot be tempted by evil.
2. According to Luke 4, Matthew 4, and Hebrews 4:15 , Jesus
was tempted by evil.
3. Therefore, Jesus was not God or this is a contradiction.
There are two keys to understanding this mystery. First, we must
keep in mind the hypostatic union of the two natures of Christ.
That’s a pretty fancy way of saying that Jesus was fully man and
fully God at the same time. Jesus had a fully human nature (but
sinless), and He had the nature of God.
Second, it is important to understand the difference between internal
enticement and external enticement. When Jesus was tempted, His
temptation came from an external source: Satan (Luke 4:2 ;
Matthew 4:1 ). When we are tempted, this comes right from within
our own hearts due to our own sinful natures, although the
temptation to sin can be kindle by something external. James 1:14
tells us, “But each one is tempted when he is drawn away by his
own desires and enticed.”
So could Jesus sin or not? This question has been debated by
theologians for centuries, and although all true Christians agree that
Jesus did not sin, they do not agree on whether or not He could
have sinned. Other than agreeing that Jesus did not sin, Answers in
Genesis does not hold a position on this debate. We would urge you
to carefully and prayerfully study Scripture and consult with your
local church on this subject.
There are three common views on the subject. Some hold the
impeccability position (Latin non posse peccare ). This view
states that Christ could not have sinned, and thus was not even
tempted, during the “temptations.” Others hold the peccability view
(posse non peccare ), meaning that He could have sinned. A
third position attempts to find middle ground and is based on Christ
having both a human nature and divine nature. This view says that
in His human nature, He could have sinned, but in His divine
nature, He could not.

When we sin we are putting God to test weather he will punish us.


That is a very big lie.

we sin because of our weakness, and Adam was deceived.

NO BODY TEMPT GOD.

Jesus did not come to this world as God, he only come as man.
lamp of the world. And thats why they were able to kill him.


But when Jesus rise up from the grave he became untouchable.

He automatically comes back to his original glory when he was in heaven.

Thank you.

[quote author=Richirich713 post=39323128]

They will be no more cuz they will be in the lake of fire WHICH IS THE SECOND DEATH.

The fact that they are still somewhere and someplace means they still exist.[/quote)

What nonsense are talking about here, yes they will be no more, now they will in lake of fire? Dont you see you re the one twisting the bible here


You even said a man like you will burn to eternity.


You must be a very wicked fellow,

i doubt if Satan himself will have the gut to burn someone for eternity.

malvisguy212:


Philippians 2:6-8
being in the form of God, did not
consider it robbery to be equal with
God, but MADE HIMSELF OF NO REPUTATION [HE “EMPTIED HIMSELF”], taking the form of a bondservant, and coming in the likeness of men. And being found in
appearance as a man,HE HUMBLE
HIMSELF and became obedient to the
point of death, even the death of the
cross

While on Earth in the FLESH, Jesus Submit Himself VOLUNTARILY to the will of his father.
not a simple concept to grasp. When
Jesus came to Earth,He added humanity
to His divinity, He was made “in the
likeness of men” (Philippians 2:7). He
moved from the spiritual realm to put on flesh (John 1:14) and became subject to such things as hunger, thirst, weariness, and pain.

Satan knows all this that why He take advantage of the HUMAN nature of Jesus but he fail , satan wanted to repeat what he did to the first adam . Adam and eve wanted to size equality with God through the help of satan.but Jesus in the flesh humble Himself as a servant.

It was the human nature of Jesus satan tempt and not the DIVINE nature.
2 Corinthians 5:21
Indeed, He “who knew no sin” became “sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him”

Way to go!

vfactor:


I am more interested in the bolded. Implying that Jesus is a creature, but the first one to be created.

Also ever had of someone being his fathers "carbon copy"? Does it imply that they are the same person?

Does Colossians 1:15 bolded by you teach that Jesus was created? No.

The verse shows us that Jesus is called the "first-born" of all creation and the term "first-born" here does not imply "first-created" those two words mean two different things.   

You can see from the following points that Paul was not teaching that Jesus was created: 

1. Birth and creation are not equivalent terms.  For example, the Bible teaches that Jesus was born of a virgin, but this does not mean that Jesus was created the day He was born of Virgin Mary and since birth and creation happen at different times, they cannot mean the same thing.

2. There are two different Greek words for "first-born" and "first-created" and Paul used the word which means "first-born" not "first-created"

Paul was not teaching that Jesus Christ is a created being because he further taught that Jesus Christ was really the Creator of all things.  If all things were created by Christ, He  cannot be created, otherwise there is something that Christ did not create and this verse would be in error when it states that Christ created all things.

Hebrews 1:10 and John 1:3 confirms that:

The Lord Jesus Christ is the Creator of everything that has been created and thus He must not be created, but God.

What does the title "first-born" mean?

Reputable Bible scholars say:

"This title refers to Christ's preeminent position and sovereignty over creation, not that He Himself is a part of creation.  In the Old Testament, the first-born had certain rights and a certain status, such as preeminence, a double share of the inheritance, the right of the priesthood, and supremacy.  And it can be distinctly seen from Genesis 49:3 that the meaning "priority of birth" or in "in time" has been overshadowed and even sometimes lost to the implication of the term meaning "supremacy" or "preeminence."  In other words, one does not have to have been "born first" to be called "first-born" because the term's primary meaning came to be "preeminence" and "supremacy," sometimes with nothing to do about birth."

When Paul calls Jesus the first-born, He is saying that Jesus has all the rights of the first-born and that He has the first-born status of supremacy and preeminence.  When Paul adds that He is the first-born of all creation, He is merely specifying what Christ's preeminence (i.e., His first-born status) applies to -- namely, all creation.

Furthermore, this passage clearly teaches Christ's deity.  Since the Uncreated Creator alone created all things (Isaiah 44:24; Hebrews 3:4), and Colossians tells us that Christ is the Creator, we can then conclude that Jesus is the Uncreated Creator.

Other Bible scholars have demonstrated that the word "born" does not mean to be "created" when we look at it from Jesus' title "Son of God."  You might misconstrue this to mean that Jesus Christ must have come into existence at some point and that He is less than God, thinking that He is the Son of God, and not God, in just the same way that a human son comes into existence after their human father, which is etched in the minds of Muslims.  This might sound plausible at first, but upon proper observation it becomes clear that this cannot be the case. The Bible is very clear in defining the title "Son of God" to mean that Jesus is of the same nature as God, just like a child is of the same nature as their parent.  And if Jesus Christ has God's nature, then He is, by definition, God, and therefore without a beginning.

OLAADEGBU:


Does Colossians 1:15 bold by you teach that Jesus was created? No.

The verse shows us that Jesus is called the "first-born" of all creation and the term "first-born" here does not imply "first-created" those two words mean two different things.   

You can see from the following points that Paul was not teaching that Jesus was created: 

1. Birth and creation are not equivalent terms.  For example, the Bible teaches that Jesus was born of a virgin, but this does not mean that Jesus was created the day He was born of Virgin Mary and since birth and creation happen at different times, they cannot mean the same thing.

2. There are two different Greek words for "first-born" and "first-created" and Paul used the word which means "first-born" not "first-created"

Paul was not teaching that Jesus Christ is a created being because he further taught that Jesus Christ was really the Creator of all things.  If all things were created by Christ, He  cannot be created, otherwise there is something that Christ did not create and this verse would be in error when it states that Christ created all things.



Hebrews 1:10 and John 1:3 confirms that:

The Lord Jesus Christ is the Creator of everything that has been created and thus He must not be created, but God.

What does the title "first-born" mean?

Reputable Bible scholars say:

"This title refers to Christ's preeminent position and sovereignty over creation, not that He Himself is a part of creation.  In the Old Testament, the first-born had certain rights and a certain status, such as preeminence, a double share of the inheritance, the right of the priesthood, and supremacy.  And it can be distinctly seen from Genesis 49:3 that the meaning "priority of birth" or in "in time" has been overshadowed and even sometimes lost to the implication of the term meaning "supremacy" or "preeminence."  In other words, one does not have to have been "born first" to be called "first-born" because the term's primary meaning came to be "preeminence" and "supremacy," sometimes with nothing to do about birth."

When Paul calls Jesus the first-born, He is saying that Jesus has all the rights of the first-born and that He has the first-born status of supremacy and preeminence.  When Paul adds that He is the first-born of all creation, He is merely specifying what Christ's preeminence (i.e., His first-born status) applies to -- namely, all creation.

Furthermore, this passage clearly teaches Christ's deity.  Since the Uncreated Creator alone created all things (Isaiah 44:24; Hebrews 3:4), and Colossians tells us that Christ is the Creator, we can then conclude that Jesus is the Uncreated Creator.

Other Bible scholars have demonstrated that the word "born" does not mean to be "created" when we look at it from Jesus' title "Son of God."  You might misconstrue this to mean that Jesus Christ must have come into existence at some point and that He is less than God, thinking that He is the Son of God, and not God, in just the same way that a human son comes into existence after their human father, which is etched in the minds of Muslims.  This might sound plausible at first, but upon proper observation it becomes clear that this cannot be the case. The Bible is very clear in defining the title "Son of God" to mean that Jesus is of the same nature as God, just like a child is of the same nature as their parent.  And if Jesus Christ has God's nature, then He is, by definition, God, and therefore without a beginning. 

just one scripture overturns all the research you did:

Rev. 3:14 (KJV):

And unto the angel of the church of the Laodiceans write; These things saith the Amen, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation of God

In giving a message to his apostle John, Jesus is here described as the beginning of the creation of God. Note the terms beginning and creation.

Jesus is the sole and only creation directly created by God. That is why he is referred to as the only-begotten Son of God. (John 3:16). All other creations were created through Jesus as explained in Colossians 1:15-16. The angels and even man is referred to as sons of God (Job 2:1, Luke 3:28), but never only-begotten, cos they were all created thru Jesus. The relationship between Jesus and his Father in creation is like that of a builder and an Architect. God (the architect) has the master plan while Jesus (the builder) creates (or builds) according to God's master plan. (Proverbs 8:22,30).

vfactor:



just one scripture overturns all the research you did:

Rev. 3:14 (KJV):



In giving a message to his apostle John, Jesus is here described as the beginning of the creation of God. Note the terms beginning and creation.

Jesus is the sole and only creation directly created by God. That is why he is referred to as the only-begotten Son of God. (John 3:16). All other creations were created through Jesus as explained in Colossians 1:15-16. The angels and even man is referred to as sons of God (Job 2:1, Luke 3:28), but never only-begotten, cos they were all created thru Jesus. The relationship between Jesus and his Father in creation is like that of a builder and an Architect. God (the architect) has the master plan while Jesus (the builder) creates (or builds) according to God's master plan. (Proverbs 8:22,30).

Colossians 1:16 states:

"For by Him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones or dominions or principalities, or powers: all things were created by Him, and for Him"

This verse shows that Jesus is not a created being as you are proposing neither is He beginning or first created being. It is obvious from this verse that Jesus is the Creator of all things in heaven and earth, material and spiritual, visible or invisible. Only God can create and God did not create Himself, He is the Creator of all things.

In Revelation 3:14 Jesus was introducing Himself as the beginning of the creation of God which means He is the One who created the universe. That He is the Amen as well as the Creator, the Omega as well as the Alpha. Only God has these titles and Jesus is the Creator God.

OLAADEGBU:


Colossians 1:16 states:

" For by Him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones or dominions or principalities, or powers: all things were created by Him, and for Him"[/i]

This verse shows that Jesus is not a created being as you are proposing neither is He beginning or first created being. It is obvious from this verse that Jesus is the Creator of all things in heaven and earth, material and spiritual, visible or invisible. Only God can create and God did not create Himself, He is the Creator of all things.

In Revelation 3:14 Jesus was introducing Himself as the beginning of the creation of God which means He is the One who created the universe. That He is the Amen as well as the Creator, the Omega as well as the Alpha. Only God has these titles and Jesus is the Creator God.

The bolded indicates that Jesus is a means, medium through which God created all things. other translations uses through to indicate this.

You will have to do more than just quote peoples ideas. you have to reason on what the scriptures say. If someone were to read the term, beginning of the creation of God, in reference to a somebody or a thing, would you say that the person is referring to God himself, first thing or the first person God created? The scripture is very clear and don't too much explanation.

Rev: 3:14 clears states that Jesus has a beginning, the beginning of God's creation.


By the way, Humans create things also, so don't say only God creates, that's why we are made in his image.

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www.gospelph.com/download/?song=949
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vfactor:


The bolded indicates that Jesus is a means, medium through which God created all things. other translations uses through to indicate this.

You will have to define what you mean by the word God. That verse says that Jesus Created all things and He did not create Himself. If you say God created Him that means Jesus did not create all things and the Bible cannot contradict itself.

vfactor:


You will have to do more than just quote peoples ideas. you have to reason on what the scriptures say. If someone were to read the term, beginning of the creation of God, in reference to a somebody or a thing, would you say that the person is referring to God himself, first thing or the first person God created? The scripture is very clear and don't too much explanation.

Rev: 3:14 clears states that Jesus has a beginning, the beginning of God's creation.

And you want me to believe that you are speaking your own ideas without any imput from your organisation? You have to compare scriptures with scriptures to have a better understanding of what the Word says and not just run away with a single verse that you think fits into your own dogma.

Read John 1:1-3 and broaden your knowledge about the word "God":

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by Him; and without Him was not any thing made that was made"

vfactor:


By the way, Humans create things also, so don't say only God creates, that's why we are made in his image.

To create you will have to start from nothing. Tell me one thing humans created from nothing?

You are all humans, imagine a computer telling a human being that he is more intelligent than him because it can process and work faster than human. - God is still on the throne. Repent and don't match your reasoning with God, his thoughts are higher than yours.

OLAADEGBU:


You will have to define what you mean by the word God. That verse says that Jesus Created all things and He did not create Himself. If you say God created Him that means Jesus did not create all things and the Bible cannot contradict itself.



And you want me to believe that you are speaking your own ideas without any imput from your organisation? You have to compare scriptures with scriptures to have a better understanding of what the Word says and not just run away with a single verse that you think fits into your own dogma.

Read John 1:1-3 and broaden your knowledge about the word "God":

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by Him; and without Him was not any thing made that was made"\

.


Lemme give a host of scriptures to read:
John 14:28 (KJV), Jesus words:

Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I

John 20:17

Jesus said to her: “Stop clinging to me. For I have not yet ascended to the Father. But be on your way to my brothers and say to them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and YOUR Father and to my God and YOUR God.’

1Cor 11:3:

But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God

Please explain these verses, and tell me if it is dogma.

John 1:1-3 (KJV) describes Jesus as God. Other translations help us understand that description by using " a god" or "divine nature". Indicate that Jesus being begotten of God was of divine nature and not just a son of man (much like lion begets lion).

Verse 18 makes it clear by describing Jesus only "begotten god" (NWT and Kingdom Interlinear) or "only Born God" (Byington) to indicate the relationship of father and son.

vfactor:
.


Lemme give a host of scriptures to read:
John 14:28 (KJV), Jesus words:


John 20:17


1Cor 11:3:


Please explain these verses, and tell me if it is dogma.

Biblically speaking, it was in His humanity that Jesus prayed to the Father.  Since Christ came as a man -- and since one of the proper duties of man is to worship, pray to and adore God -- it was perfectly proper for Jesus to address the Father in prayer.  Positionally speaking as a man, as a Jew and as our High Priest -- "in all things He had to be made like His brethren" (Hebrews 2:7) -- Jesus could pray to the Father.  But this in no way detracts from His intrinsic deity.

vfactor:


John 1:1-3 (KJV) describes Jesus as God. Other translations help us understand that description by using " a god" or "divine nature". Indicate that Jesus being begotten of God was of divine nature and not just a son of man (much like lion begets lion).

Verse 18 makes it clear by describing Jesus only "begotten god" (NWT and Kingdom Interlinear) or "only Born God" (Byington) to indicate the relationship of father and son.

I asked you what you meant by God you evaded that question. Here is the evidence that Jesus is God with a capital "G" who created all things and not "a god" as your translation states.

"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

This is simple logic that you don't have to confuse yourself with:

THE WORD = GOD

In John 1:14 it states:

"The Word became flesh, and dwelt among us."

From these verses we can deduce the following:

JESUS = THE WORD

If A = B and

B = C  then

A = C.

Then,

JESUS = THE WORD and

THE WORD = GOD,

therefore:

JESUS = GOD

If you contend that John 1:1 should be translated as "The Word was a god," and not "The Word was God." And if you are using the same line of arguments of the JW's that since theos (the Greek word for God) is preceded by the definite article (the) when it first appears in the verse, and the second time it appears it is not preceded by the definite article, then you will be justified in translating the last part of John 1:1 "the Word was a god," because God appears without the definite article.  And you claim that John 1:1 does not say anything about Jesus' identity (i.e,  that He is God), but refers to a quality about Him.  There are, however, no reputable authorities or translations that support your JW translation of this verse.  In fact, your NWT has caused considerable outrage among Greek scholars because it is a major distortion of the text.

We are not surprised that the JW's don't even play by their own rules, it is inconsistently applied throughout your NWT.  Theos appears 6 times without the definite article in the first 18 verses of John's gospel (1,6,12,13 and twice in 18).  Yet, in the NWT, it is rendered God (referring to Jehovah), not a god, in each instance except for the last clause of 1:1, when it refers to Jesus! Do you see your inconsistencies?

To remain consistent, the JW's must hold that verse 6 should read thus:

"There arose a man that was sent forth as a representative of a god,"

that verse 12 should read:

"to become a god's children," and so on.

If you observe carefully you will note that the absence of the definite article does not refer to someone other than the true God.  The scholarly Arndt and Gingrich Greek Lexicon, p. 357, states that theos is used "quite predominantly of the true God, sometimes with, sometimes without, the article."

Ah wen JW's actually think men in the 19th century knew more about the NT then the disciples of the apostles

JW's why do u believe in 19 century interpretations of the bible instead of the Apostolic fathers such as clement, ignatius etc who knew the apostles ?

I mean y do u even believe in the NT gospels if u don't even believe the men who passed it down.

These early church fathers are the reason we even have the NT still 2day.

If clement and ignatuis and their followers interpreted the bible so "wrong" , why even believe they knew wat was scripture.

fabre4:













Jesus is God
God is immortal
Jesus is immortal












Death does not apply to immortals. One would be tempted to ask what then happened to jesus? Its simple jesus was humanity and divinity personified so the part of him that died was the human part leading to the manifestation of his divinity which was why he could break the law of gravity

The moment I see the underlined , I recognized the hypocrisy of you and Olaadegbu

@underlined ; " No, but he emptied himself and took a slave form and became human" Philipins 2:7

Since scripture said He emptied his divine nature and became human , who are you to say he came to earth with his divine nature and didnt empty it ?

Jessicha:


The moment I see the underlined , I recognized the hypocrisy of you and Olaadegbu

@underlined ; " No, but he emptied himself and took a slave form and became human" Philipins 2:7

Since scripture said He emptied his divine nature and became human , who are you to say he came to earth with his divine nature and didnt empty it ?

He took up his divine nature after conquering death and resurrecting

fabre4:


He took up his divine nature after conquering death and resurrecting

Then that proves ur statement that Jesus is immortal based on the fraud that he was both divine&human on earth is a pure lie . He is simply in a slaves form , human . And Jesus died .

Habakuk 1:12 , Almighty God do not die .

fabre4:


He took up his divine nature after conquering death and resurrecting

Then that proves ur statement that Jesus is immortal based on the fraud that he was both divine&human on earth is a pure lie . He is simply in a slaves form , human . And Jesus died .

Habakuk 1:12 , Almighty God do not die .

orunto27:


As Jesus, He was "The Son of Man" and therefore subject to Temptations like you and I. Christ in Heaven is "The Son of God" and is God in Heaven where there is no vacuum for temptation.

Good point.

Princewell2012:


When we sin we are putting God to test weather he will punish us.


That is a very big lie.

we sin because of our weakness, and Adam was deceived.

NO BODY TEMPT GOD.

Jesus did not come to this world as God, he only come as man.
lamp of the world. And thats why they were able to kill him.


But when Jesus rise up from the grave he became untouchable.

He automatically comes back to his original glory when he was in heaven.

Thank you.

Well said.

fabre4:


Jesus is God
God is immortal
Jesus is immortal

Death does not apply to immortals. One would be tempted to ask what then happened to jesus? Its simple jesus was humanity and divinity personified so the part of him that died was the human part leading to the manifestation of his divinity which was why he could break the law of gravity

Good job.

Jessicha:


Then that proves ur statement that Jesus is immortal based on the fraud that he was both divine&human on earth is a pure lie . He is simply in a slaves form , human . And Jesus died .

Habakuk 1:12 , Almighty God do not die .

Is almighty God in human form?
Humans all die and remain dead but death could not hold jesus captive he broke out of the grave with the key I.e he took control over the grave and resurrected that's why we celebrate easter. This is a very simple concept to understand





So to answer your question he died that was why he came to earth to die read philippians 2: 5-10 he died because he took human form but when he was in heaven without human form did he die ?No. The reason I said Jesus was immortal was because death could not keep him in the grave

fabre4:

Is almighty God in human form?
Humans all die and remain dead but death could not hold jesus captive he broke out of the grave with the key I.e he took control over the grave and resurrected that's why we celebrate easter. This is a very simple concept to understand
So to answer your question he died that was why he came to earth to die read philippians 2: 5-10 he died because he took human form but when he was in heaven without human form did he die ?No. The reason I said Jesus was immortal was because death could not keep him in the grave

*smiling* If wat you wrote above is wat makes Jesus the Almighty, then We Re Almighty Too

Okay, the reason why we died too is because we are in human form , u know ? And the bible promise a ressurection which means death wont us forever in the grave too . Infact some humans will even be sharers in divine nature like Christ ( 2pet 1:4 ). immortality (1 cor 15:53 ) , they wont die in heaven

OLAADEGBU:
God cannot be tempted. Jesus was tempted. Therefore, Jesus cannot be God. Explain.

"Let no one say when he is tempted, "I am being tempted by God"; for God cannot be tempted by evil, and He Himself does not tempt anyone" (James 1:13)

"For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin" (Hebrews 4:15).

How do we answer this objection?

Suggested answer:

Answering this objection is a bit more difficult than answering the other objections to Christ's deity because it deals with an area of Scripture that is not explicitly clear: the relation between the divine and human natures of Jesus. We see that Jesus has two natures as is taught in the chart below, but how they relate is not clarified in Scripture.

See chart in link below:

https://carm.org/god-cannot-be-tempted-jesus-was-tempted

cold:
Yeah,yeah but according to the bible,the devil was able to tempt god to put job to the test. Just to prove if job was a faithful servant because of his wealth or love for god.
Job 1:6-12
Then the Lord said to Satan, ‘Have you considered my servant Job? There is no one on earth like him; he is blameless and upright, a man who fears God and shuns evil.’

“ ‘Does Job fear God for nothing?’ Satan replied. ‘Have you not put a hedge around him and his household and everything he has? You have blessed the work of his hands, so that his flocks and herds are spread throughout the land. But stretch out your hand and strike everything he has, and he will surely curse you to your face.’ The Lord said to Satan, ‘Very well, then, everything he has is in your hands, but on the man himself do not lay a finger''
Maybe this wasn't the devil tempting god. Maybe it was just a bet,maybe i'm just reading the bible literally,maybe i need spiritual understanding,maybe a carnal mind can never understand matters of the spirit,maybe...huh anyways what do i know?

The devil cannot tempt God, God knows the end from the beginning.isaiah 46:10

OLAADEGBU:


Suggested answer:

Answering this objection is a bit more difficult than answering the other objections to Christ's deity because it deals with an area of Scripture that is not explicitly clear: the relation between the divine and human natures of Jesus. We see that Jesus has two natures as is taught in the chart below, but how they relate is not clarified in Scripture.

See chart in link below:

https://carm.org/god-cannot-be-tempted-jesus-was-tempted

Jesus as one person with two natures

GOD:
He is worshiped (Matt. 2:2, 11, 14:33, 28:9)
He is prayed to (Acts 7:59, 1 Cor. 1:1-2)
He was called God (John 20:28, Heb. 1:8.)
He was called Son of God (Mark 1:1)
He is sinless (1 Pet. 2:22, Heb. 4:15)
He knew all things (John 21:17)
He gives eternal life (John 10:28.)
The fullness of deity dwells in Him (Col. 2:9)

MAN:
He worshiped the Father (John 17)
He prayed to the Father (John 17:1)
He was called man (Mark 15:39, John 19:5).
He was called Son of Man (John 9:35-37)
He was tempted (Matt. 4:1)
He grew in wisdom (Luke 2:52)
He died (Rom. 5:8.)
He has a body of flesh and bones (Luke 24:39)

To be continued...

OLAADEGBU:


Biblically speaking, it was in His humanity that Jesus prayed to the Father.  Since Christ came as a man -- and since one of the proper duties of man is to worship, pray to and adore God -- it was perfectly proper for Jesus to address the Father in prayer.  Positionally speaking as a man, as a Jew and as our High Priest -- "in all things He had to be made like His brethren" (Hebrews 2:7) -- Jesus could pray to the Father.  But this in no way detracts from His intrinsic deity.

Who was Jesus praying to if he was God?

vfactor:



Who was Jesus praying to if he was God?

If you read my response you would see that Jesus was praying to the Father.

OLAADEGBU:


If you read my response you would see that Jesus was praying to the Father.

And yet he is the same as the father?