₦airaland Forum

From your analysis which I hope you tested independently and I am glad you brought it up yourself. The AI summary actually concedes the central point while sounding supportive of the argument. It explicitly admits historical method cannot establish Christianity’s core theological claims of divine sonship, miracles, atonement, or resurrection. Those are not side issues; they are the foundation of the religion.
Its independent streams argument is also overstated. Mark is a surviving source, Q is a hypothetical reconstruction that has never been found, and John is a later theological tradition differing sharply from the Synoptics; one verified source, one inference, and one distinct tradition, not three equivalent independent witnesses.
The manuscript argument likewise confuses preservation with independence. Thousands of copied manuscripts can preserve a tradition accurately while still remaining dependent on the same underlying sources.?
And even the comparison to Philip II highlights the gap; for him we have inscriptions, coinage, and physical remains independent of literary tradition. The Gospels provide literary testimony plus limited external confirmation of background details, not independent corroboration of the narratives themselves.
So the historical case for Jesus’ existence and probable execution was never really the dispute. The issue is that historical method cannot establish the supernatural and divine authority claims built on top of that history which the AI itself ultimately conceded.

tctrills:
We have been going round in circles so I presented the question to AI below are some of the results.

When historians compare the Gospels to the records of **Philip II of Macedon**, they are weighing two different types of historical evidence: **Manuscript Tradition** (the copies we have) vs. **Contemporary Attestation** (eyewitness accounts).

Both are accepted as describing real historical figures, but they meet different professional standards.

### 1. The Standard of "Real Historic Work"

In academia, "History" (*historia*) is a specific genre.

* **Philip II:** Meets the formal standard of Greek historiography. Writers like **Theopompus** and **Ephorus** wrote with the intent of recording political and military history. They cited sources, analyzed motives, and followed a chronological "cause-and-effect" structure.
* **The Gospels:** Fall into the genre of **Greco-Roman Biography** (*bios*). Their goal wasn't to provide a neutral political history of Judea, but to reveal the character and teaching of a single person.
* **The Verdict:** Historians treat the records of Philip as better for reconstructing **political events**, but they treat the Gospels as highly reliable for reconstructing the **social and religious atmosphere** of 1st-century Palestine.

---

### 2. Which has more Evidence?

The answer depends on whether you value the **quantity of copies** or the **closeness of the authors**.

#### **A. The Case for the Gospels (Quantity & Timing)**

The Gospels have a massive lead in terms of "Manuscript Evidence."

* **Earliest Fragments:** We have fragments of John ($P^{52}$) from within **30–50 years** of its writing.
* **Volume:** There are over **5,800** Greek manuscripts of the New Testament.
* **The "Gap":** The time between the events (c. 30 AD) and the first full biographies (c. 65–90 AD) is only **35 to 60 years**. This is considered a "heartbeat" in ancient history.

#### **B. The Case for Philip II (Eyewitnesses & Physical Evidence)**

While we have fewer books about Philip, the quality of the "links" is sometimes seen as stronger by secular historians.

* **Living Witnesses:** We know for a fact that **Theopompus** lived at Philip’s court. While his original books are lost, his eyewitness data is the "DNA" inside the later histories we do have.
* **Physical Proof:** This is where Philip wins decisively. We have the **Tomb of Philip II** at Vergina. We have his actual bones (showing a battle-scarred eye socket that matches historical accounts), his golden crown, and his armor.
* **Epigraphy:** We have stone inscriptions from Philip's lifetime (treaties and decrees) that mention him by name.

---

### 3. Direct Comparison Table

| Feature | The Gospels (Jesus) | Records of Philip II |
| --- | --- | --- |
| **Best Primary Author** | Matthew (Apostle/Eyewitness) | Theopompus (Eyewitness) |
| **Earliest Biography** | ~35–40 years after death | Written during his lifetime |
| **Earliest Surviving Copy** | ~100–150 years after death | ~1,000+ years after death (medieval copies) |
| **Number of Manuscripts** | 5,800+ (Greek only) | Dozens to hundreds |
| **Archaeological Proof** | Locations (Pool of Siloam, etc.) | Actual Body, Armor, and Inscriptions |

---

### Summary: Which is "Better" Evidence?

If you are a **Manuscript Scholar**, you would say the **Gospels** have more evidence because the gap between the event and the oldest surviving physical book is much smaller, and the number of copies is overwhelming.

If you are an **Archaeologist or Political Historian**, you would say **Philip II** has more evidence because we have his physical remains and contemporary inscriptions that prove his existence and actions without relying solely on later religious copies.

**In the eyes of modern history, both are considered "demonstrably real."** No serious historian doubts the existence of Philip II, just as no serious historian doubts that Jesus of Nazareth was a real person who was executed in Roman Judea.

Since we have the physical tomb for Philip but only the "empty tomb" narrative for Jesus, does the lack of physical remains for Jesus make his historical record feel less "proven" to you, or does the massive number of early manuscripts compensate for that?

From the above, it's absolutely clear that the bible meets the standards set by historians for proving ancient text.


This again from AI

The Gospels meet the professional standards used by historians to establish ancient history, though they are treated with the same critical scrutiny as any other ancient text. In historical circles, "proving" something from the ancient world doesn't mean reaching 100% certainty, but rather establishing **historical probability**.

Historians use a specific "toolkit" to evaluate the Gospels. Here is how they measure up against those standards:

### 1. The Standard of Early Attestation

Historians prefer sources written closest to the events they describe.

* **The Standard:** For most ancient figures (like Caesar or Alexander), our best sources were written 100 to 400 years after their deaths.
* **The Gospels:** Mark was written roughly **35–40 years** after Jesus’ death, and John roughly **60 years** after. In the context of ancient history, this is considered an incredibly narrow gap. It means the accounts were circulating while eyewitnesses were still alive to correct or challenge them.

### 2. The Standard of Multiple Independent Sources

If multiple people from different places tell the same core story without "cheating," the story is likely true.

* **The Evidence:** Historians see at least three independent "streams" of tradition in the Gospels: the **Markan** tradition, the **"Q"** source (shared by Matthew and Luke), and the **Johannine** (John) tradition.
* **The Result:** When all three streams agree on core facts—such as Jesus being a teacher from Nazareth, having a reputation for miracles, and being crucified under Pontius Pilate—historians consider these facts **"historically certain."**

### 3. The "Criterion of Embarrassment"

This is one of the most important tools for a historian. It states that if a story contains details that are awkward or "bad for PR," it is highly likely to be true.

* **The Evidence:**
* The disciples are often portrayed as cowardly, slow-witted, and unfaithful.
* The first witnesses to the resurrection were women (whose testimony was not legally valid in 1st-century Jewish courts).


* **The Logic:** If the early Church was simply "making up" a legend to gain followers, they would have made the disciples look like heroes and the evidence look more legally "perfect."

---

### 4. Archaeological Consistency

A historical document is more credible if its "background noise" (geography, local customs, and politics) matches the physical evidence.

* **The Evidence:** The Gospels accurately reflect the complex political tension between the Roman governors and the Jewish Sanhedrin.
* **Specific Finds:** The discovery of the **"Pilate Stone"** in Caesarea (proving Pontius Pilate was a real "Prefect" and the **Caiaphas Ossuary** (the bone box of the High Priest) confirms that the characters in the Gospel narrative were real historical figures in the correct positions of power.

---

### 5. What Historians *Don't* "Prove"

While the Gospels meet the standards for proving the **history** of Jesus' life, historians differentiate between **historical events** and **theological claims**:

| Historians CAN Prove (Standard Met) | Historians CANNOT Prove (Outside the Scope) |
| --- | --- |
| Jesus was a real man from Nazareth. | Jesus was the Son of God. |
| He had a reputation for performing miracles. | The miracles were actually supernatural. |
| He was executed by the Romans. | His death atoned for the sins of the world. |
| His followers *believed* they saw him alive. | The physical Resurrection itself. |

### Summary

If a historian were to reject the Gospels as "unreliable" simply because they were written 40 years late or because they have minor discrepancies, they would also have to reject almost everything we know about **Socrates, Tiberius Caesar, or Hannibal.**

By the standard "rules of the road" for ancient history, the Gospels are viewed as high-quality, early sources that provide a reliable window into the life and impact of a 1st-century Jewish man.

Do you think the religious nature of these books makes it harder for people to see them as "history," even when they meet the professional standards?

So unless you don't agree with historians and you have your own standards, you are wrong.

You see how you hide your ignorance when probed? I gave just one condition based on your reckless oral oh hand diarrhea which you can't meet. Indeed your capacity for sound discussion is absent.
Provide irrefutable proof that Qutham is the same as prophet Muhammad pbuh then my position is wrong.

BlackfireX:
So you are clueless ---- you don't have an answer

Now run along go and play with kids in the sand area

You just described how ancient history works: fragmentary records, lost originals, late manuscripts. That supports the point.
Historians reconstruct Philip II of Macedon through literary sources, including lost works like those of Theopompus preserved in later citations, alongside inscriptions, coinage, and archaeology. The picture holds because the literary material is reinforced by independent evidence outside the texts themselves.
That external layer is far thinner for the Gospels. Tacitus and Josephus confirm that Jesus existed and was executed. They do not independently confirm the resurrection narratives or the Gospel accounts themselves. Even the claim about first century testimony needs caution. Paul the Apostle writes in the first century, but gives no biography of Jesus’ ministry, and Gospel dating itself is still debated among critical scholars.
So the issue is not dismissing the Gospels. It is applying the same historical method used elsewhere. And unlike Philip, the Gospels carry a theological claim of divinely guided preservation, yet Jesus left no authorized written account and commissioned no official record before departure.
You cannot apply historical criticism to Philip, then suspend it for the Gospels.

tctrills:
There are far less evidence of the existence of Philip. And there is zero existing independent coverage of him that is within 400 years of his reign.
You talked about Theopompus. But we don't have a single existing record of Theopompus.
Theopompus's primary work, the Philippica (a massive 58-volume history), is believed to be lost.

The earliest kept writings of Philip are found in Egypt (like the Oxyrhynchus Papyri) that date to the 2nd or 3rd century AD.

Let's compare this to the bible. This would be like someone commenting about the Book of John 400 years after Christ and we having zero records of the book of John.

The bible offers multiple witnesses. And there are many more first century writers of Christ. There is more more record from writers who live in the same century as Christ.

Philip unfortunately has not.
But somehow, you agree with historians about the existence of Philip.
You are not consistent.
One may feel this is all about fault finding.

Meetings with British Commonwealth trade bodies sound impressive on paper. But Nigeria needs to ask what these arrangements are designed to achieve.
Too often, the structure stays the same: Africa supplies raw materials, imports finished goods, and celebrates some kind of partnership while local industry remains weak.
Countries like China, Vietnam, Singapore, and Indonesia did not rise through open-door economics alone. They protected strategic sectors, backed local manufacturers, controlled foreign access, demanded technology transfer, and used state policy to build productive capacity before wider liberalization.
That is the part usually skipped in conversations about economic miracles. We have the brains and can develop better capacity in implementation. Grow a system less open to abuse and wasteful corruption.
So when officials announce trade talks and MSME partnerships, the real questions are simple:
Will this grow Nigerian manufacturing?

Will it increase value-added exports?

Will it transfer skills, technology, and industrial capacity into the country?

Or will Nigeria remain a consumer market dependent on imports and foreign financing?

Development is not measured by meetings, memorandums, or investment headlines. It is measured by industrial capacity, productive jobs, export strength, and economic independence.
Nigeria does not lack potential. What it lacks is a development strategy built around national production instead of permanent external dependence.

Let us run the comparison consistently.
Historians accept Philip II because multiple independent traditions converge. Diodorus, Plutarch, and Arrian drawing from earlier sources like Theopompus, Callisthenes, and Ptolemy alongside inscriptions, coinage, and Persian and Egyptian records. Nobody treats Plutarch as infallible; his claims are critically weighed against external evidence. That is the standard.
The Gospels are not in the same evidentiary position. Matthew and Luke rely heavily on Mark, often word-for-word, so the four independent sources argument is overstated. John is later, openly theological, and written with an explicit faith-producing purpose. The texts are formally anonymous, with authorship assigned later by church tradition through figures like Papias and Irenaeus, writing generations after the fact.
There is also the issue of distance. The Gospels were written decades later, in Greek, about an Aramaic-speaking figure, by authors removed from the events by at least a generation. Oral tradition may explain how material was transmitted, but transmission is not the same as verification. It does not restore eyewitness status or source independence.
Then there are the contradictions in conflicting genealogies, differing resurrection accounts, and the Quirinius census problem. These are not minor copyist errors, they are structural contradictions on historically testable claims. It is worth noting that the nativity narratives are one of the few areas where Matthew and Luke are actually independent of Mark and rather than producing corroboration, they produce conflicting chronologies. Matthew places Jesus under Herod, who died in 4 BC, while Luke ties the birth to Quirinius' census in 6 AD. Attempts to resolve this by proposing an earlier governorship for Quirinius remain speculative and are rejected by most critical scholars, including conservative historians like F.F. Bruce. Independence only strengthens a claim when sources converge. Here it compounds the problem.
And unlike Philip's reign where inscriptions, coinage, and administrative records exist, the specifically miraculous Gospel claims lack contemporary external corroboration. Historians may acknowledge that early Christians believed in the resurrection, but mainstream historical methodology does not treat the resurrection itself as a verified historical event. Belief in an event and verification of the event are not the same category. So the issue is not that historians apply harsher standards to religion. It is that the Gospels are being examined by the same historical methods applied to every ancient source. They are simply not exempt from scrutiny, and on source independence, authorship transparency, proximity, corroboration, and internal consistency, they perform less strongly than the classical sources used for Philip II.

tctrills:
So I take it that your answer is that the Gospels do not meet the standards set by academic historians, The same standards used to support the pharaohs, Alexander and the Chinese dynasties right?

But you did not in anyway show how they do not.
Let's make it very easy, you wouldn't find a Morden historian that contends that Philip II of Macedon is the father of Alexander the Great.
So show use how the histories of Philip II of Macedon qualify and the Gospels fall short.

This should be very easy for you.

Even historically, the distinction between Jesus himself and later Christian theology matters. External sources like Josephus and Tacitus support the existence of a Jewish preacher executed under Pontius Pilate, but they cannot verify the theological structure Christianity later built around him. That leap always depends on belief.
The canon’s eventual formation was not purely spiritual or inevitable either. Church institutions played a decisive role in determining which writings survived as authoritative and which competing traditions were excluded or condemned. In that sense, what became orthodox Christianity was shaped not only by apostolic memory but also by ecclesiastical power and historical circumstance. So the central issue remains difficult to avoid: Christianity rests not on a scripture directly authored or supervised by its founder, but on testimony transmitted through undeniably human and historically contested processes. That does not automatically make Christianity false, but it does mean faith is required to bridge gaps that historical criticism alone cannot fully resolve.

No, not fully and academic historians are clear on why.
The Gospels do not meet full source independence. Matthew and Luke demonstrably use Mark, sometimes word-for-word. That is not four independent eyewitness streams; it is one earlier source reused by later authors. Luke even states at the outset that he is compiling prior accounts rather than writing as a direct eyewitness and no serious scholar disputes that.
Authorship is another issue. The texts themselves are formally anonymous; the traditional names were attached later through church tradition, not identified by the authors inside the documents. Early figures like Papias and Irenaeus do attribute authorship, but they wrote generations later. Their claims reflect developing tradition, not contemporary documentation.
There is also the time gap. The Gospels were written roughly 40–65 years after Jesus’ lifetime. That alone does not automatically invalidate them, historians critically analyze many ancient sources with similar gaps. But when that delay is combined with theological investment, anonymous composition, and literary dependence between texts, the result is clear, the Gospels require historical reconstruction, not simple face-value reading.
So the scholarly consensus is not that the Gospels are worthless, far from it. They are valuable early Christian sources containing historical material. But they are not generally treated as four fully independent eyewitness histories. That is key to my interest.

tctrills:
While you are wrong about Matthew and Mark, we are beginning to go around in circles so let me ask you a direct question.
Do you agree that the Gospels meet or even exceed the standards set by academic historians of acceptable history?
If your answer is no, Then show where is falls short based on the standards not on your own standards but by academic standards.
Let's move the discussion to the next level

BlackfireX:
alfa jubreel

who wrote thr Quran?

where is shahada in the Quran?

where is hijra of muslim refugees from mecca to medina?

one good thing about Qutham a.k.a muhamed?

where is 5 pillars of faith in The Quran ?

When you arrogantly abuse in starting are you honestly asking or truthful in seeking answers of me?

I will answer when you provide irrefutable proof that Qutham is the same as prophet Muhammad pbuh.

tctrills:
I have already answered you above but this video helps to simplify the argument.
The video actually oversimplifies it but I think it is still useful.

https://youtube.com/shorts/5Xq-E7DdaVc?si=NfBo7JGq0SMeFS97

tctrills:
So again you are wrong.
Matthew was an apostle, a first hand witness of Christ he did not copy Mark.

Mark is believed to be a companion of Peter, that makes he very equipped for the job of a historian.

Luke is the only one that may not have had first hand experience with the events he wrote about. Still, he being an early Christian makes him more qualified than 90% of ancient historians.

You then claim that John diverges sharply from the rest. But when we put the gospels to the same test we use for contemporary history, John record even adds more evidence to the ministry of Jesus Christ.

This is how professional historians see divergence in the record of witnesses.

In historical and legal analysis, divergence is often more convincing than total agreement. If four witnesses tell a story using the exact same words, a detective assumes they "synced their stories" or copied each other. If they differ on details but agree on the core, it suggests they are genuine, independent accounts.

Historians look for the same event to be reported by different sources who aren't just copying one another.

The Difference: Mark might focus on Jesus' actions, while John focuses on his long speeches.

Modern forensic psychology shows that two people watching the same car accident will remember different details—one might notice the color of the car, the other might notice the speed.

Application: Matthew (the tax collector) is obsessed with money, records, and Jewish law. Luke (the physician) is obsessed with healings and social outcasts.

Divergence allows for a more complete, "three-dimensional" view of a person.

The Synoptics (Matthew, Mark, Luke): Provide the "What" and "Where"—the external facts and public parables.

John: Provides the "Who" and "Why"—the internal meaning and private conversations.

Now to your last point. You claim that divine authority requires stronger evidence before it can be believed and I completely agree with you.
It requires divine confirmation divine revelation and divine conversion. I would agree with you that you should put all claims of divine scripture to much more rigorous test. You only believe after you have a divine revelation.

I advise you do what Jesus Christ suggested, You seek, knock and ask.

Because, when we use the same standards historians use to judge other works, the bible qualifies. In fact, it exceeds most works of history.

But that alone should not be enough grounds to believe. You have to ask God because He alone can give you an answer.

But if you choose to depend on using academic standards, you will be inconsistent not to believe the gospels because the pass in flying colours because by the standards historians use for other ancient texts, the four Gospels (the books of Gospel of Matthew, Gospel of Mark, Gospel of Luke, and Gospel of John) are generally considered serious ancient historical sources.

.

The four independent eyewitnesses claim is still overstated. Matthew and Luke show clear literary dependence on Mark, and Luke explicitly says he used earlier written sources. Most critical scholars also have the view of a shared sayings source behind Matthew and Luke, commonly called Q, further reducing their independence.
The Matthew authorship tradition is early, but the Gospel itself is anonymous, and its heavy reliance on Mark complicates straightforward eyewitness authorship. If Matthew were directly recording personal memory, close dependence on a source not traditionally viewed as an eyewitness complicates the tradition rather than confirming it.
The forensic argument cuts both ways. Divergence only strengthens credibility once genuine independence is established. Shared wording, structure, and sequencing across the Synoptics point toward literary relationship rather than separate observation. Independent divergence can strengthen credibility; divergence among dependent texts is simply expected.
External references from Tacitus and Josephus do limited historical work they support that Jesus existed and was executed under Pilate, not that the Gospels are independent eyewitness accounts. Document proliferation likewise reflects the rapid growth of early Christian conviction, not automatically the independence or reliability of every account. Apollonius of Tyana, a near-contemporary of Jesus also credited with miracles, generated extensive literature without that literature being treated as independent corroboration.
John is more independent, but diverges sharply enough in chronology, style, and theology that most scholars treat it as a distinct tradition stream rather than straightforward corroboration of the same narrative.
So the Gospels are best understood as overlapping, literarily connected traditions important ancient sources, but not four fully independent eyewitness accounts in the strict historical sense.
Mind that the question isn't about the existence of Jesus but the books created in and about his name thereafter.

BlackfireX:
Simple question una no go answer

All una top debaters don run or convert

Read the Quran and hafiths and you will see the chaos and depravity


Tueeehhh

What can you say about the breastfeeding?

Where's the unanswered simple question? Your spitting shows your disdain and skewed place of interest in getting answered if at all.

You obviously don't like the truth said straight to you.

[quote author=tctrills post=139379068][/quote]Ancient claims are accepted provisionally, not with certainty. Menes is treated cautiously precisely because Manetho wrote millennia later from limited tradition, and applying the same caution to the Gospels is standard historical method, not bias.
The four independent witnesses claim is overstated. Matthew and Luke rely heavily on Mark and shared traditions, while John diverges sharply in chronology, theology, and style, functioning more as a distinct theological tradition than simple independent corroboration.
The Claudius analogy also fails on stakes. A claim about an emperor’s last meal carries no binding authority; divine revelation does. Stronger claims reasonably require stronger evidence. And the authority argument is circular: the canon validates the authority while the authority validates the canon, even though the canon itself emerged through centuries of dispute.
Consistent standards are not a double standard they are how historical credibility is established.

tctrills:
But it's the very same for most figures in ancient history.
We can start with the pharaohs of Egypt. Many recognised ancient historians wrote about the events centuries after yet, it is accepted by the academic community, why should it be a different standard for religion?
Why will you accept Arrian (writing on Alexander the Great) or Plutarch (writing on the Roman Republic) as authentic history?
Is our believe of Alexander the great faith based?

The Alexander/pharaoh comparison misses the point. History like Alexander is built from multiple independent sources and evidence, so conclusions are probabilistic, not based on trusting any single author like Arrian or Plutarch.
The Torah claim is structurally different. One Law, one mediator (Moses), and a unified chain of transmission tied to a foundational national event. The New Testament doesn’t follow that model as Paul never met Jesus during his actual ministry, the Gospels are anonymous, authority was disputed early on (Galatians 2), and the canon took centuries to settle.
So the analogy fails. History doesn’t require divine authority claims, but revelation does. And without a non-circular way to verify revelation, you end up with circular reasoning. It’s true because it’s inspired, and inspired because it says so?

honesttalk21:
Explore2xmore I see you are represented here. Is this on your say so?
In any case the quality of truth is seen in so many things including but not limited to people.

No I don't subscribe to his view, are you in a hurry?

Now that looks more like inability to engage any further. Separating people types from the book doesn't auger well for the book.

MaxInDHouse:
Hmmmmmmm so what matters to you is how the message got to you shey?

Well in that case you can continue your arguments with those churchgoers who likes arguing aimlessly the truth is nobody was there when God created the heaven or earth yet the books you and i carry says a lot about these things and you never cared to ask if its writers were eyewitnesses!🙂

tctrills:
Now apply these arguments to the new testament.
God revealed them to Paul and the other apostles.
Some of them got the stories from earlier oral and written traditions

Yes, that works within a faith-based framework, much like arguments made about Moses and the Torah even if many points ascertain there were books before the Torah. But it still doesn't fully resolve the historical question of authorization, transmission, or canon formation, since Jesus did not leave behind a finalized New Testament canon or explicit written instructions for compiling one.

Explaining how the New Testament was compiled is not the same as proving the compilation itself was divinely authorized or that every included text is infallibly from God. Describing the historical process explains preservation, not automatic divine validation.
That is precisely why the question about it's authority, canonization, and authenticity makes the subjects of discussion here.

MaxInDHouse:
God promised a new covenant {Jeremiah 31:31-33} it will be written not in what could be seen rather in the hearts of adherents and the one who is coming to teach people will be called a Wonderful Counselor {Isaiah 9:6} that's why Jesus was saying "you have heard that it was said but now i'm telling you this is what you should do" Matthew 5:21-48

So Jesus knew since he never wrote any book rather taught them through words and actions they needed reminders that's why he told them:

“I still have many things to say to you, but you are not able to bear them now. However, when that one comes, the spirit of the truth, he will guide you into all the truth, for he will not speak of his own initiative, but what he hears he will speak, and he will declare to you the things to come." John 16;12-13

Surely they are to pen down what Jesus taught them and take it to all the nations! Matthew 28:19-20

That's what brought about a covenant that differ from the first covenant!

Will return to this much later please.

Dtruthspeaker:
I am sure that you have seen many threads here saying Jesus is God. Yes, some disagree however when I remind the dissents that ut is Written Jesus is The Lord, and so I asked them Who did the Bible say gave Moses the Commandments? They all run away cos the answer is clear. Hence, why i said Christians know that Jesus is The Same One Who gave the tablets to Moses.

MaxInDHouse:
The Old Covenant (Old Testament) was meant for Jacob's descendants only but the New Covenant (New Testament) is for all faithful and obedient individuals throughout the world who may decide to become worshipers of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob.
With the New Covenant faithful people from all the nations will form one big and happy family of peace loving worshipers {Isaiah 2:2-4; Micah 4:1-3} and there will be understanding among them {Zephaniah 3:9} but the rest will be blinded by Satan {2Corinthians 4:4} fighting and killing themselves despite claiming they are for the same God! Revelation 6:3-4

Still not getting me, did Jesus hand over a book be it Gospel, new testament or other to people or instruct them to compile/collect one? Where is the proof for that more so that you now say the old testament was for Jacob's descendants then the new covenant for all faithful? Question is aren't a good part of the faithful also descends of Jacob?
Hold on with your references to books in the new testament as it's still being reviewed.

tctrills:
Moses received the 10 commandments. It's not written anywhere that he received a book containing the story of the creation or the story of Abraham.
Please let's be accurate about what Moses received.

Reasonably true but the creation stories were not based on Moses being an eyewitness to creation itself. Some traditional religious view hold that God revealed these earlier histories to Moses.
The alternative critically historical view holds that the stories developed through earlier oral and written traditions and were later compiled into the Torah.
How certain are you that there weren't any books reviewed before the Torah though?

MaxInDHouse:
It's wise to ascertain before we believe any information {1Thessalonians 5:21} but when you don't know the purpose of such info then it's meaningless trying to raise questions based on what you choose against another.

For instance what is the purpose of the Quran?
What exactly did Allah promise that will be evidence for Muslims to rely upon?

It's hypocritical pointing to small pimples in someone's face when you have huge boils all over your face!😟

Tell then what is the purpose of the new testament even when Jesus didn't instruct it's collection/production?

Abundance and truth are not synonyms. Abundance describes quantity; truth describes conformity to fact or reality. Saying something is plentiful does not automatically make it true. Your argument is a semantic confusion, not a logical rebuttal

Dtruthspeaker:
When you say something is multiplelly plentiful eg ithe ocean is something that contains multiple plenty waters, is this not Truth and in accordance to facts and real eyeity?

You don't have any reasonable thing to say against our faith, so go plug all the holes you heslam has

Dtruthspeaker:
Christians know that Jesus is The Same One Who gave the tablets to Moses.

And every reasonable person knows that all over the world and beyond the borders of Isreal, the word 'father' has a wide meaning and we all know it and use it everyday

Now you are introducing issues to complicate this dialogue. Clearly God gave Moses the Torah, if need be we can discuss how God is or isn't recognised as Jesus from an interpretation of the new testament which this is about but we aren't there yet. Hold on.

Questioning religious texts is reasonable because they were preserved, compiled, and transmitted through human processes over time. However, it’s historically inaccurate to say their acceptance was only due to fear or coercion. Their spread involved a mix of voluntary belief, cultural integration, political influence, and gradual adoption.
A sound review focuses on evidence, origins, transmission, and context rather than assuming universal force or dismissing authorship questions entirely.

MaxInDHouse:
Honestly nobody cared about books in all the nations of the world in ancient times they naturally believed in the existence of God or Gods therefore if someone now comes with books claiming it's from God or servants of God and it has been widely accepted as truth you can't stand out to challenge such claims with the excuse of who are those behind the compilation of these books. Our ancestors who welcomed both the Bible and Quran never did that, they only submitted out of fear because the pioneers of these religions came with destructive weapons capable of wiping out our ancestors that is the reason why they submitted to these religions otherwise our ancestors have their own religions and their religions never taught them to be evildoers.

So what could be the sound reason for questioning the authenticity of these books?
First of all that should be when there is no more threat to the lives of whoever criticize these books which came about by Americans who declared freedom of speech expression and worship otherwise you dare not question the British who brought the Bible and said it's God's word neither can you question the Fulanis that brought the Quran claiming it's God's word.

So my friend to be honest the questions that should come to mind is:

What betterment these books will bring to our lives as adherents of a new religion?
Weren't our ancestors worshiping God before we know these books?
What good or humane rules are the adherents of these new religions practicing that makes them better than us or our ancestors?

Please questions regarding compilation of these books is another tactic to stop you from asking the more important questions so it's coming from the same oppressors who doesn't want you to think in the right direction!😟

Dtruthspeaker:
You admit moral failure yet you expect to see the promises fulfilled? That is silly

So the promise from the almighty is dependent on humanity? Really now

tctrills:
Your argument seems to be that we shouldn't take the writings in the New testament as the word of God because they were not written by Jesus Christ nor were they written when He was on earth right?

But then, it's the same for the old testament,, it was not written by Jehovah and many of the events were written many centuries later. Example, the story of the creation was recorded by Moses who never witnessed it.

So are you just against the New Testament or the entire bible?

Moses has the privilege of receiving a tablet/book called Torah. Therein is the difference.

Dtruthspeaker:
Abundance means Truth and people know how to pick the lies of alterations, so this is not an issue

Abundance means multiple, plentifulness of something while truth pertains to the quality of being in accordance with fact or reality. Your submission seems to be a jargon from your faith.

Dtruthspeaker:
Do you need your father to sign and return commission the words and teachings he gave?

No.

This is where you see "My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me". So, we don't need any commission anything. So go and find something valid to complain about.

In context of this discussion a book/tablet named Torah was given to Moses. Jesus did not personally give or instruct documentation of the Gospel/New testament. The plunder to an earlier prophesy doesn't explain the collection or authorship of a book.
Then please tell us the actual meaning of father as used by Israelites or tribes of ancient time in relation to God.

Gabrielshow26, your argument repeatedly moves from possibility to certainty without demonstrating the intermediate steps required for that leap.
Similarity alone does not establish plagiarism. If it did, then the Bible would also be accused of plagiarism for sharing themes with earlier Near Eastern literature. Serious historians do not rely on surface resemblance; they look for direct dependence, identifiable transmission routes, linguistic borrowing, and structural copying. What you have demonstrated so far is possible influence, not necessary plagiarism.
Your muddy spring objection also assumes the verse must be read as literal cosmology. Yet the Qur’an describes Dhul-Qarnayn as finding the sun setting there in language that reflects perceptual experience rather than scientific description, much like saying sunset today without implying physical descent into water.
You also treat shared motifs as automatic borrowing. But religious texts regularly engage existing narratives, reshape them, and redirect them toward theological meaning. The presence of parallels does not, by itself, establish dependence.
Most importantly, your reasoning relies heavily on rhetorical framing rather than evidence terms like fan-fiction, caravan trader, and “What a god!” may be forceful, but they are not arguments.
In the end, what has been shown is the existence of parallels and a shared Late Antique narrative environment. What has not been shown is direct copying, demonstrable textual dependence, or intentional plagiarism. That gap is precisely where your certainty exceeds your evidence and what you need to close.

Gabrielshow26:
😂What a guy😂! I don't know, between you and honesttalk21, who does Allah more disservice🤦🏾‍♂️. By the way, thank you, for you admission. And I must say, Explore2xmore, you’ve finally done it. You’ve officially admitted that your god is a fan-fiction writer😂.

You’ve conceded that the Alexander Romance is a human-made, non-divine fable. Yet, your "Omniscient" Allah managed to copy&paste the exact same "horns," "muddy spring," and "iron wall" into his "Eternal Book.🤕" By your own admission, the Quran is a Divine Book containing secular fiction.

Let me highlight why your admission does Allah a great disservice 🤦🏾‍♂️.Your admission that the Alexander Romance is not divine is the Death Blow to your argument. What you failed to realize is that If a human writes a story about a man traveling to the setting sun (a physical impossibility), it’s called a myth.And If an Omniscient God, supposedly👀, repeats that exact same myth as historical fact, He isn't "correcting" it; He is validating a lie.

Thus, your claim of adding a "moral lesson" makes it a "correction" is Absolute nonsense. If I take the legend of the Easter Bunny and say, "The bunny works for Allah👀," I haven't corrected history—I’ve just added a religious skin to a campfire story. Basically, you’ve admitted your god used pagan fables as his building blocks. 🥱What a god! What a Muslim!

To your next claim, which I find rather funny. I noticed you demanded for a "textual transmission chain" like we’re in a 7th-century courtroom🥱. Let’s use Occam’s Razor again since your AI keeps blunting it🤦🏾‍♂️:

1. The myth exists in the region before the Quran.
2. The Quran repeats the myth.
3. The contemporaries literally shouted, "These are just fables of the ancients!" (68:15).
You don’t need a signature on a papyrus to see the plagiarism🤨. If I walk into a room and you’re wearing my shirt, holding my phone, and reciting my password, I don't need a "transmission chain" to know you’ve been in my closet🤷. You are desperately demanding a level of proof that no historian requires because you know the circumstantial evidence is a mountain that’s about to crush your theology. 🤦🏾‍♂️

I love how you spent half your response obsessing over "shin🤧" and "hands💅". You focused on those minor points because the actual problem—the blatant copying of human fables—is undefendable.
You cited 42:11 ("Nothing is like Him" to "flatten" the descriptions🥱. This is the ultimate damage control. If the text says "hand" and "shin" and "color," and then says "But he’s not like anything," it’s not "nuanced theology"—it’s a contradiction. You are using a 14th-century "interpretive tradition" to fix a 7th-century author's inability to stay consistent. Your "tradition" is just a long-running "Fix-it" fiction for a god👀 who described Himself too humanly🤧.

Let me also address your special pleading in the form of "Independent revelation"🤕.Your theory has been that "similarities can emerge independently" but I find this, the peak of special pleading. If the Quran independently "revealed" that Jesus breathed life into clay birds—a story found only in the apocryphal Infancy Gospel of Thomas—then why did Allah only "reveal" the fake miracles from the wrong books?🤦🏾‍♂️
Why does Allah never "independently reveal" a historical fact that wasn't already a popular legend in 7th-century Arabia?🤷
Thus, your "omniscient god" seems strangely and oddly🤨 limited to the library of a 7th-century caravan trader. He "independently reveals" myths, but he can't "independently reveal" basic historical facts or information about his prophets🥱. What a god! What a Muslim!

In conclusion, you’ve admitted the Alexander Romance is human. You’ve admitted the Quran shares its motifs. You’ve admitted it happened in the same "cultural environment." In the real world, this is called Derivation. In your world, it’s a "Miracle.🤦🏾‍♂️" You’re not defending scholarship; you’re defending a Chimera—a beast made of Jewish legends, Christian apocrypha, and pagan fables, stitched together with "moral lessons" to hide the seams.😮‍💨

With this, you’ve definitely run out of "transmission chain" excuses😁. Thus, Your god was quoting secular fiction as Divine Truth. Concede the plagiarism, or keep pretending that your "perfect Book" isn't just a 7th-century "rehashed myth compilation". Which is it? 🥱🚮

One last thing for the reader. Notice, how he still hasn't explained why his omniscient god would copy an error (the sun setting in a muddy spring) from a human fable he admits is non-divine. If the source is a lie, and the Quran repeats the lie, then the Quran is... well, you do the math. 🤧

MaxInDHouse:
Purity is measured by the fulfillment of prophecies.
Whatever anyone says shouldn't be the yardstick but visibility.
So when we see hundreds of thousands of different religions claiming they believe in God/Jesus/Allah/Quran what any wise individual should focus on is not how sound their arguments are but what their faith has achieved so far!🙂

Do you prove following by argument or just follow regardless? The point still is who sanctioned the compilation of the new testament? Why when Jesus never asked for it or physical handed over such? Can you trust those that did when Jesus as recorded in this same compilation points at many who will falsely claim coming in his name/commission and aren't?

TenQ:
Muslims truely wish that Islam is TRUE, unfortunately it isn't, therefore Muslims have to resort to manipulating existing Islamic history and knowledge in defence of their religion

What unambiguously straight forward points do you have and do you support your claim with?

honesttalk21:
What is your point with this and why take on what they will never agree openly as truth? It isn't best embarking on challenges that encourage their ill conceived mischievous attacks on Islam.

Thanks bro. We'll see soon I hope. A lot is said on how Jesus freed them from the old scripture but that saying is derived from an unpermitted scripture in their hands.

paxonel:
If the promised transformation was suppose to be visibly real in history order than faith. Then it is no more Faith.

With the heart, man believeth unto righteousness. This is how faith should be.

Not some visibly real evidence

The point is the transformation is meant to be visibly real but it still isn't then why is there a book that wasn't commissioned by the one it's centered upon?