^^^This Qur’anic verse specifically mentions the death of Jesus before his ascension to heaven:
Surah 3:55: Lo! God said: “O Jesus! Verily, I shall cause thee to die, and shall exalt thee unto Me, and cleanse thee of the presence of those who are bent on denying the truth; and I shall place those who follow thee far above those who are bent on denying the truth, unto the Day of Resurrection.” (Asad)
This verse emphasizes that Allah caused Jesus to die before he was raised to heaven. But more importantly, this verse shows that the death and ascension of Jesus occurred before the “Day of Judgement.” In other words, before the second coming of Jesus. This is verified by the fact that after mentioning the death and ascension of Jesus, the Qur’an states that the disciples of Jesus will be placed above the disbelievers until the “Day of Judgement” – clearly a future event that is yet to occur.
mubarakopeyemi: I'm tired of explaining thesm thing all over again. refer to my earlier post...
and still ultimately, refer your whole bullsh.it to Quran 4:157
you failed absolutely by saying there is a CHRONOLOGICAL SEQUENCE in the statement. English here and comprehension is your problem. the day I was born - Past event. The day I die - Future Event (the person talking is still alive while he say this). and the day I "shall" be raised - Future event. So where here does it look like he was actually Born and he died and was raised. SMH. the other two days apart from the day he was born is referring to a future time which the days will come. stop goofing around. Quran 4:157 still exterminates your claim any day any time.
you're just trying to divert the meaing to mean what it doesn't mean. Looking for a rat where there's no hole. So if as you claim that Quran 4:157 that the Jews can never say they killed the Messiah, Jesus son of mariam, meseneger of Allah who then are they saying they kill. lol. They can call him messiah or whatever they like but they didn't accept the Messiah-hood of the Bible Jesus since he didn't meet their requirements of Messiah. What they expected him to do as a Messiah for them he didn't fulfil it. So therefore they specified the Messiah he is saying; "Indeed, we have killed the Messiah, Jesus, the son of Mary, the messenger of Allah." The messiah Jesus who's the son of Mary and the mesanger of Allah.
no where here were they claiming him or accepting him as their Messiah. They didn't call him their Messiah.
its high time you quit goofing around
Good luck.
see how you twist the oder of event concerning the death of Jesus, can you do the same in the verse of John the baptist?
If your interpretation is correct, then Surah 19:33 should have Jesus saying: “Peace on me the day I was born, and the day I shall be raised alive and the day I shall die” in harmony with your claimed chronological sequence of events. But it does not.
If I may ask, since Surah 19:33 and Surah 19:15 are identical in the sequence of events, why don’t they also shift the death of John the Baptist to the future ,after his resurrection , as they did in the case of Jesus? Why the discrepancy?
In fact, the is NOT A SINGLE verse in the quran that say Jesus will come and Die again, muslims believe that Jesus will come and die again rest in surah 19:33,if that should be the case, John the Baptist will come and die again.
Yusuf Ali, in his footnote of Surah 19:33:
“…Christ was not crucified (S. IV. 157). But those who believe that he never died should ponder over this verse.” (Ali, “The Holy Qur’an”, p.774, f. 2485.)
Will the Jews boast in killing thw messiah ?according to the Jews, it is the messiah who will deliver the kingdom to the Jews, why will the boast in killing Him ? It seems like muhammed do not understand the earlier scripture because if he does, he will not make such big blunder.
Quran 19:33 does not anyway relates to what you ascribed it to.
Quran 19:33: Peace on me the day I was born, and the day I die, and the day I shall be raised alive! (Pickthall)
The day I die here doesn't anyway mean to be the day he died on the cross as the Christians believe. There shall be a time during alkiyamah (judgement day) that All things shall die and only Allah shall remain for a period of time During Alkiyamah before he shall raise all up again showing he is the Greatest. And even before then Iesa would have come back to destroy Al Massih Addajjal (Imposter Messiah) and would have died a Natural Death which he would be buried in the Arabia. This story is a whole different issue which I won't beat much on that. Then back to the matter, Iesa here is making reference to that one day he would die a Natural death since he wasn't killed as said in
Quran 4:157 And [for] their saying, "Indeed, we have killed the Messiah, Jesus, the son of Mary, the messenger of Allah ." And they did not kill him, nor did they crucify him; but [another] was made to resemble him to them. And indeed, those who differ over it are in doubt about it. They have no knowledge of it except the following of assumption. And they did not kill him, for certain.
so this verse has written off your intention of trying to link Quran 19:33 with Jesus' being dead.
And as per the day I shall be raised to life that's simple. He was simply referring to when all living things shall be raised again from dead. During the time of recompense /ressurection
Relate
Quran 40:11 They will say: "Our Lord! You have made us to die twice (i.e. we were dead in the loins of our fathers and dead after our deaths in this world), and You have given us life twice (i.e. life when we were born and life when we are Resurrected)! Now we confess our sins, then is there any way to get out (of the Fire)?"
here as above it means God made us die and also raised us not from this world but on the day of ressirectiont.
The day he will die and be raised again is not in any way linked to what u linked it to. Thanks.
matter of fact even Quran 4:157 is enough to debunk your claims.
you failed woefully. The chronological sequence of event here is BORN , DIE ,RESSURECTED but you change it to "raised alive,come back again ,and die. is this how the quranic verse put it ? Alright the same phrase is use in the verse concerning the death of John the baptist. Note the similarity in the wordings:
Surah 19:15: And peace on him on the day he was born, and on the day he dies, and on the day he is raised to life. (Shakir)
Why dint you twist the verse concerning John? Abi! John did not die either?
concerning surah 4:157, let us review it.
Surah 4:157: And their saying: Surely we have killed the Messiah, Isa son of Marium, the messenger of Allah; and they did not kill him nor did they crucify him, but it appeared to them so (like Isa) and most surely those who differ therein are only in a doubt about it; they have no knowledge respecting it, but only follow a conjecture, and they killed him not for sure. (Shakir)
If you read this account in its entirety from Surah 4:153 to Surah 4:162, you will understand who they are that are saying, “Surely we have killed the Messiah, Isa son of Marium, the messenger of Allah.” According to the Qur’an, it is the Jews saying this. Think! Would the hostile Jews call Jesus the “Messiah” when they have rejected him as the Messiah? It must be remembered that the Jewish religious leaders even objected when Pilate wrote a title saying, “King of the Jews.” (John 19:19-22). It is, therefore, illogical for the Jews to boastfully say that “we have killed the Messiah” when they did not accept Jesus as the Messiah in the first place. And if they did recognize him as the Messiah, as this verse implies , would they have killed him? Whether they accept Jesus or not, the Jews will never make such a statement, sarcastically or otherwise, regarding the Messiah because the Messiah is a reverential figure for whom they waiting for deliverance. No Jews will boast that they have killed the Messiah. And the Jews are still devotedly waiting for the Messiah.
mubarakopeyemi: Bullshit. Shall we blame the bible for your lack of reason and direct thinking or we shall blame you for your ignorance.
Rather, Jesus himself is in hell.
In Matthew 5:22 Jesus said this NIV But I tell you that anyone who is angry with a brother or sister will be subject to judgment. Again, anyone who says to a brother or sister, 'Raca,' is answerable to the court. And anyone who says, 'You fool!' will be in danger of the fire of hell.
this means that anyone who calls someone a fool shall be in fire of hell.
Forward to Mathew 23:17 Jesus said this: NIV You blind fools! Which is greater: the gold, or the temple that makes the gold sacred?
Jesus has said that anyone who calls someone a fool shall be in fire of hell. Well apparently he also called a group of people blind fools.
Jesus is in the danger of fire of hell.
No. This verse is taken out of context. One key to understanding Matthew 5:22-24 is to recognize that it deals with a disciple's relationship to his "brother." "Brother" does not refer to males having the same parent, but to those of the same spiritual family -- in this case, to Jesus' disciples (Matthew 12:48-50). A brother is a member of the Christ's assembly (Matthew 18:15-17; 28:10). The term is a general reference to the members of the household of faith. Never to enemies.
In Mathew 23, Jesus was calling his enemies, the scribes and Pharisees, "fools". Matthew 5 is in reference to calling a "brother" a fool. To properly apply Matthew 5:22 to enemies, Jesus must, at times, use "brother" to refer to an enemy. Yet, nowhere in Jesus' teaching, nowhere in the New Testament,does brother ever refer to an enemy. Moreover, 2 Thessalonians 3:15 tells us that if we find it necessary to disfellowship a brother for moral reasons, we are not to regard him as an enemy. An enemy is not a brother.
So when Jesus teaches against anger directed toward a brother, Jesus is teaching his disciples to love one another. He is not commenting on their relationships with those outside the faith, or with those who have departed from the faith, or with enemies. What he would not stand for was for one of his disciples calling another disciple a fool.
The following Qur’anic verse records Jesus as saying: Surah 19:33: Peace on me the day I was born, and the day I die, and the day I shall be raised alive! (Pickthall)
Surah 19:33 clearly proves that he died BEFORE his ascension to heaven, many Muslim apologists attempt to respond by saying that this is a future event. They try to explain away this Qur’anic verse by saying that Jesus will die when he comes back the second time and then be raised back to life. Well, what evidence do they provide to make such an outrageous claim? None! But, this interpretation poses a problem for Muslim scholars because the very same phrase is also expressed just a few verses earlier in the Qur’an regarding John the Baptist (Yahya). We can read an almost identical passage about John the Baptist in Surah 19:15. Note the similarity in the wordings:
Surah 19:15: And peace on him on the day he was born, and on the day he dies, and on the day he is raised to life. (Shakir)
In case of John the Baptist, Muslims have no trouble recognizing the fact that this verse is speaking about his immediate death.And they also have no problem in understanding that it is only after his death that he will be raised to life in Paradise on the Day of Resurrection. The chronological sequence of event is clearly understood and correctly applied here. Yet, in the case of Jesus, we find Muslims having Jesus ascending to God before dying. They deliberately distort the chronological sequence of event just to avoid contradictions in the quran. If muslims believe Jesus did not die, then John did not die also.
Surah 19:71: “It is the inevitable decree of your Lord that every one of you will be taken to hell.” “ And the very next verse tells us:
Surah 19:72: “THEN (Thumma) We shall rescue those who kept from evil, and leave the evil-doers crouching there.” (Pickthall)
The word “Then” (Thumma) used in this verse exemplify that there is a chronological order of events. First the entry into Hell. “Then” being saved from it. Note the wordings of Surah 19:72: “We shall rescue those who kept from evil, and leave the evil-doers crouching there.” You only “rescue” someone who is in some kind of danger. However, this rescue operation will only take place on “Judgment Day.” Until then , for centuries, pious Muslims will be consumed by fire. Only the dark spots on the skin of their foreheads caused by years of prostration to Allah will escape the effects of the fire. This is Allah’s reward for their faithful prayers to him.
Sahih Muslim, Book 001, Number 0349: “They (the angels) would recognise them in the Fire by the marks of PROSTRATION , for Hell-fire will devour everything (limb) of the sons of Adam except the marks of prostration. Allah has forbidden the fire to consume the marks of prostration. They will be taken out of the Fire having been burnt …”
The angels will recognized them through the mark of prostration,am sure you know who they are referring to.
His mouth is sweetness itself; he is
Muhammad . This is my beloved,
this is my friend, daughters of
Jerusalem.
Notice a couple of points here. First, this
is Solomon's bride talking. So if
Solomon's bride is delivering a prophecy
about Muhammad, then she is a
prophetess, according to our Muslim
friends (unless the author of Song of
Solomon is merely portraying her as a
prophetess).
Second, the bride is praising a man's
body. This makes perfect sense if she's
talking about her husband. But if our
Muslim friends insist that she's talking
about Muhammad, they're accusing
Solomon's bride of lusting after another
man (Muhammad) in a vision given to
her by God.
Third, if 5:16 is about Muhammad, then
Solomon's wife calls Muhammad her
"beloved." But in chapter 7, verse 10,
she says, "I belong to my beloved, and
his desire is for me." Since Muhammad
is her beloved (according to the Islamic
interpretation), she declares in 7:10 that
she belongs to Muhammad and that
Muhammad desires her. How did
Solomon's bride belong to Muhammad?
Why would Muhammad desire a woman
who had been dead for more than
fifteen centuries?
Either Song of Solomon is an extremely
troubling story about a time-traveling
adulterous love affair between
Solomon's bride and Muhammad, or the
book simply has nothing to do with
Muhammad.
But things get worse for our Muslim
friends. The word machmad is used in
many places in the Old Testament. It
refers to something pleasing, treasured,
or lovely.
mahdino: The word "Muhammad" in the Bible (in Original Hebrew)
The name "Muhammad" is written in the Bible in the original Hebrew language.
In the 5th chapter of the Shir haShirim ( שיר השירים ), which is one of the five megilot or Sacred Scrolls that are part of the Hebrew Bible or for short the "Song of Solomon" (also called "Song of Songs". That chapter is giving a prophecy about an individual to come, a mystery man.
Song of Songs 5:15 compares this prophetic mystery man to the land of "Lebanon" which is the land of the Arabs. This implies that the mystery man would be an Arab.
Verse 15 of the NIV Bible says: “His appearance is like Lebanon", so this is an Arabic gentleman (or Arab looking).
Verse 11 says: "his head is as the most fine gold, his locks are wavy, and black as a raven". Verse 10 describes this man as being "radiant and ruddy" which means he was slightly light-skinned with a rosy color. This physical description matches exactly with the authentic Islamic sources. Sahih Al Bukhari, Volume 4, Book 56, Number 747, says Muhammad was slightly light skinned, with a rosy color (and has the same hair as is mentioned in verse 11)
Song of Songs 5:10 says: "My beloved is white and ruddy, pre-eminent above ten thousand." This is a prophecy of Prophet Muhammad as he conquered Mecca. It is a well known historically documented fact that in the year 630 CE Muhammad entered Mecca as the leader of an army of "ten thousand men".
In reading the English translation of Song of Songs 5:16 it finishes the description by saying: "He is altogether lovely" but what most people don't know is that the name of that man was given in the original megilot. Here is the name written in ancient Hebrew as it appears in verse sixteen: מחמד . It is read as : "Mahammad".
English: His mouth is most sweet; yea, he is ALTOGETHER LOVELY. This is my beloved, and this is my friend, O daughters of Jerusalem.
There is a plural used together with this Hebrew word, with the plural it’s pronounced “Mahamadd-im”. The ending letters 'im' is a plural of respect, majesty and grandeur for God’s prophet, just as in the word Eloh-im.
According to Ben Yehuda's Hebrew-English Dictionary, it is correctly pronounced as "Mahammad".
If you don't believe me, go to these translator links, paste the name מחמד and then translate it into English. You will see that מחמד is translated as "Muhammad".
You can also see and listen to the Song of Songs in its original form, in Hebrew where Muhammad is mentioned by name in the below link (please notice the "im" in Hebrew is a plural of respect):
according to you songs of solomon prophecies muhammed? Unfortunately for you the songs of solomon is not a book of prophecy, let me adress your problem here.
Songs of solomon 5:16 His mouth is sweetness itself; he is ALTOGETHER LOVINGLY . This is my beloved, this is my friend, daughters of Jerusalem.
This last verse, according to our Muslim friends, is somehow about Muhammad. Why should we interpret this verse as a prophecy about Muhammad? Muslims reason that, since the Hebrew for "altogether lovely" is machmadim, and machmadim sounds somewhat similar to the name "Muhammad," the verse is actually referring to Muhammad by name. Then the verse should be translated like this:
His mouth IS sweetness itself; he IS Muhammad . This IS my beloved, this is my friend, daughters of Jerusalem.
Lie number one, this verse is in present tense, it is impossible for the woman to described the body of the man who never exist as of that time. Lie numbers two. The woman is not a Prophetess.neither does the book record a single vision.further more the SAME word is use in the book of ezekiel, Ezekiel24:16 "Son of man, with one blow I am about to take away from you the DELIGHT OF YOUR EYES. Yet do not lament or weep or shed any tears.
In Ezekiel 24:16, Ezekiel's wife is called " machmad," because she's treasured by Ezekiel. So if machmad means "Muhammad," Muhammad must have been Ezekiel's wife! Is that what any Muslim believes? Of course not. So why do Muslims keep telling us that machmad means "Muhammad"?
Just five verses later in Ezekiel, God tells the children of Israel that Jerusalem will be conquered and that the temple will be destroyed. He says, "
I am about to desecrate my sanctuary the stronghold in which you take pride, the DELIGHT OF YOUR EYES " (Ezekiel 24:21). The word "delight" here is machmad. So if machmad is the name "Muhammad," God is promising to desecrate Muhammad! Alright.
madjnr: 7)two different times ? How are they different you're just beating around the bush
The numbering given in Chronicles is more specific, whereas the Kings figure simply rounds off the number of months,assuming that the additional ten days is not significant enough to mention. Recording times always involves rounding, otherwise we should have to insist on always reading the hours, minutes and seconds as well, which is rather ridiculous. Three months is a perfectly normal way of expressing three months and ten days.
Let me give you an example in the quran:
Sura Luqman 14 and Baqara 233 tell us that weaning is complete in two years, while Sura Al-Ahqaf 46:15 tells us that the total period of carrying a baby in the womb (gestation) and weaning is thirty months. If we subtract 24 months from thirty, we are left with only six months for gestation, which actually takes ten lunar months.
In a similar way Ibn Abbas rounded Muhammad's years in Mecca, saying in one place 13 years1 and in another 10 years.2The Qur'ān has similar numerical discrepancies Sura ‘Imran describes multiple angels announcing to Maryam Jesus' birth, whereas in Sura Maryam 19:17-21 it only indicates one angel. Sura Qamar 54:19 says Allah took one day to destroy the people of Aad, but Sura Hakka 69:6-7 says it was eight long days.
madjnr: 6) officiall and unofficial ??in the Bible.. That's a weak argument
the problem with you muslims is that you copy and paste contradictions which your self did not understand. Now open your mind and listen, can a 8years old rule ? his father became a co-ruler with him to train him and at the age of 18 when Madehim had died, he became ruler.
madjnr: the question was how old he was when he began to rule not when he was annointed
you forgot to read this? "He was undoubtedly anointed at age 22 and upon the death of his predecessor, assumed the throne and actual rulership at age 42."
malvisguy212: Agnostics will say God has abandoned his creatures,infacte,At this point, some doubters will say to me, "You said many things that are logical, and that is why I cannot say categorically that there is no God. But I'm an agnostic, because even if there is a God, I doubt we can know this Being." I have heard this argument before, but it makes no logical sense. Let me explain:
Why would a Creator go through the trouble of making a huge universe, with billions of galaxies containing billions of stars, so that the proper elements of life can exist on our side of the universe to form life?Then the Creator goes through the extent of putting a God- consciousness in us to make us aware of God's existence. Then the Being giving us a conscience to feel responsibility to the Creator. Then He puts eternity in our hearts so that we cannot help but believe we will live forever. Considering all this, why would a Creator leave us alone and remain unknowable?
It is clear that since the Creator went through all this, then He intends for us to find Him. Paul said it this way to the Athenians: "God did this so that men would seek him and perhaps reach out for him and find him, though he is not far from each one of us" (Acts 17:27).
It is, therefore, logical to think that God would provide a way for us to reach Him. WHICH RELIGION? This is where we come to the subject of religion. Religion is the system by which people try to connect with God and ultimately make peace with Him. It's that simple.
The trouble is that if humankind starts the system, it is doomed for failure. Instead, God would have to set up the religion for humans to find Him. It is logical that if God established creation, gave us a God-consciousness, a moral conscience, and a consciousness of eternity, that He intends to establish a religion that humans could find Him and be reconciled to Him.
Agnostics would argue that it is impossible to know which,if any religion is true. However,logic convinces me that God must establish the true religion, otherwise, He failed to provide a pathway for us to reach Him.It's illogical for the Creator to go through all this extent, only to fail at this point in providing us a pathway to Himself.
There are three possible pathways to the Deity: pantheism, polytheism and monotheism.
Which basic pathway is right? Pantheism sees the universe as God. For this pathway to be true, then the universe would have to be eternal. But we have seen through observable science that the universe is not eternal. It has a beginning and will one day have an end. Thus, pantheism is a false pathway to God.
Polytheism is a belief that multiple gods created the universe. Even though this could be true, the universe is one. In fact, the word "uni-means one." There is only one universe and the entire universe is subject to the same laws and is connected to the whole. Therefore, it is more likely that only One Being created the one universe.
This means that monotheism would be the proper pathway to God. This helps us in our search since there are only three major religions that are monotheistic: Judaism, Christianity and Islam. All three could not be true, because they contradict themselves at very important points.
Of the three monotheistic religions, only one teaches that the One God is revealed in Three Persons: Christianity. The other two agree that God is One and is revealed as One Person. However, as I contemplate the universe, is it possible that the Creator put His fingerprints on the universe so we can know what kind of God He is? The answer is yes. The universe, though it is one, is also three-dimensional.
There are three elements that make up the universe: time, space and matter (energy plus mass). They exist together to form the universe. Not only is the universe made of these three trinitarian elements, each of the elements are made of three:
Time is made of past,present and future Space is made of height,depth and width. Matter is made of solid, liquid and gas. This is no coincidence. It seems that the Creator put His trinitarian fingerprints on the universe so that humans would know the true religion. Any ancient human could have seen these three in one if they gave it much thought. But now, through the invention of the microscope, we have discovered that even the building blocks of the universe, the atom, is made of three components: protons, electrons and neutrons. It's as if the Creator put His signature on the creation so humans could find the true religion.
Only Christianity has revealed the true nature of God,one God in three Persons. God establish Christianity and gave us a revelation of His true Nature.
Christianity also claims that is the fulfillment of the oldest monotheistic religion: Judaism. In Judaism, there was hope and expectation that the Messiah would come to set the world right.
Christianity says that Jesus Christ is the Messiah, and through Him the full revelation of the Triune God was revealed.
Jesus did not want us to accept Him by blind faith, because He said, "If anyone chooses to do God's will, he will find out whether my teaching comes from God or whether I speak on my own" (John 7:17). Jesus is saying that belief in Him and in His teachings will be proven true by its success. Success defined is the ability to connect with God, in addition to making people better. When people truly submit to the Lordship of Christ and follow His teachings, then they make the world around them better.
Islam cannot be taken serious because it's contradicts the true nature of God through the moral law, God who set this law will not allow man to break it easily, Islam say if your good deed outweigh your bad deed ,Allah will forgave you. In other word, it doesent matter how much you sinned as long as you can do more good, God will forgive you. This contradicts the nature of holiness in God and this give man the right to sin even more as long as they can outweigh this sin with the good deed. I pray God open our eyes even more.
PastorAIO: I thought the example was about seeking forgiveness after you wronged somebody not wreaking vengeance because somebody wronged you. The subject in the example was in need of forgiveness not in the position of forgiving, or finding it hard to forgive. How should someone go about seeking forgiveness? By seeking restitution with the person you wronged? Or by going into his room to ask for God's forgiveness while the person he wronged remains wounded by his actions?
Sorry if I sound pedantic, but this distortion in the reasoning was niggling at me.
long time bro. I was referring to the op, the op seems disturb with the issue of forgiveness.
Visitor700: The prophet (peace be upon him) instituted the arrangement of the verses in their chapters.
‘Uthmaan ibn Abi’l-‘Aas that he said: “I was sitting with the Messenger of Allaah (peace and blessings of Allah be upon him) when he fixed his gaze on something, then lowered his gaze until he was almost looking at the ground, then he gazed at something. He said, ‘Jibreel (peace be upon him) came to me and told me to put this aayah in this place in this soorah:
“Verily, Allâh enjoins Al-‘Adl (i.e. justice and worshipping none but Allâh Alone — Islâmic Monotheism) and Al-Ihsân [i.e. to be patient in performing your duties to Allâh, totally for Allah’s sake and in accordance with the Sunnah (legal ways) of the Prophet in a perfect manner], and giving (help) to kith and kin (i.e. all that Allâh has ordered you to give them, e.g., wealth, visiting, looking after them, or any other kind of help), and forbids Al-Fahshâ’ (i.e. all evil deeds, e.g. illegal sexual acts, disobedience of parents, polytheism, to tell lies, to give false witness, to kill a life without right), and Al-Munkar (i.e. all that is prohibited by Islâmic law: polytheism of every kind, disbelief and every kind of evil deeds), and Al-Baghy (i.e. all kinds of oppression). He admonishes you, that you may take heed.” [al-Nahl 16:90]
Scholar8200: 'no be paul wrote acts'! It was Luke that did. Besides, Peter (and the other disciples) acknowledged and respected the Apostleship of Paul
luke wrote acts.modified, I mean to quote the op. God bless you.
sammyjay76: What Does the Quran Say About Jesus and the Bible?
There are many times when Muslims will accuse Christians that we have corrupted the Bible or that we have changed the truth about Jesus Christ. But what does the Quran say about Jesus Christ? What does the Quran say about the Bible? I want us to look at some few quotations straight from the Quran and ask our Muslim friends to think well about what Islam originally said about these things. We do not seek useless debate or angry responses, only a thoughtful and careful reflection upon the truth. All men want to go to heaven. Therefore, let us reason well and let God speak for himself. The Quran says in Sura 2:62 (Al- Baqara) - "Believers, Jews, Christians and Sabaeans - whoever believes in Allah and the Last Day and does what is right - shall be rewarded by their Lord; they have nothing to fear or regret." The Bible says in John 8:32 - "You shall know the truth and the truth shall make you free."
JESUS CHRIST Sura 3:45 (Al-Imran) - "The angels said to Mariam (Mary): 'Allah bids you rejoice in a Word from Him. His name is al-Masih (Messiah), Isa the son of Mariam. He shall be noble in this world and in the next, and shall be favored by Allah.'"
When the angel appeared to Mary to announce the birth of Jesus, he said in Sura 19:19 (Mariam) - "'I am the messenger of your Lord,' he replied, 'and have come to give you a holy son.'"
Notice that Jesus is called a holy son, this means without fault or sin.
Sura 10:34 (Yunus) - "Say: Can any of your partners (associate-gods) produce a creation, then reproduce it? Allah produces a creation, then reproduces it." Only God can create and give life. Let us continue with
Sura 3:49 (AI-Imran) - (Jesus is speaking) "I bring you a sign from your Lord. From clay, I will make for you the likeness of a bird. I shall breathe into it and, by Allah's leave, it shall become a living bird. By Allah's leave, I shall give sight to the blind man, heal the leper and raise the dead to life." It is only the Lord Jesus Christ who can do such things and by the Quran's own standard this identifies Jesus as the one with divine power and authority.
Jesus Christ is the only prophet in the Quran who does not confess his sins. There is a tradition in the Hadith (the record of the Prophet Mohammed's sayings and actions not recorded in the Quran) that says:
Abu Huraira reported Allah's messenger as saying, "There is none among the sons of Adam who is born but not touched by Satan at the time of his birth. So he cried loudly because of Satan's touch. But this is not the case with Mary and her son." (Agreed upon)
Remember in Sura 19:19 Jesus is called the holy son, without sin, faultless, pure and righteous by his own nature.
Sura 4:171 (Al-Nisa) - "Al-Masih (Messiah), Isa (Jesus) the son of Mariam, was no more than Allah's apostle and His Word which He bestowed on Mariam, and a spirit proceeding from Him." Jesus is the Spirit of God (Ruhull-llah) and the Word of God. Moses is called God's spokesman in the Quran, and Abraham is called the friend of God while Muhammed is called the messenger of God - only Jesus Christ is called the Spirit and Word of God. Does this not mean that the teachings of Jesus need to be carefully studied from the Bible?
Jesus Christ is pronounced holy and sinless in Islam, but the Prophet Muhammed often confessed his sins - Suras 40:55; 47:19; 48:2. Listen to Muhammed's own confession in Sum 46:9 (Al-Ahqaf) - "Say, I am no prodigy (marvel or special one) among the apostles; nor do I know what will he done with me or you. I follow only what is revealed to me, and my only duty is to give plain warning." Prophet Muhammed confessed his own inability to know the end of his work or to know the fate of his followers.
In strong contrast to this, please note carefully the words of the Quran in Sura 3:55 (Al-Imran) - "Allah said, Isa (Jesus), I am about to cause your term on earth to end and lift you up to Me. I shall take you away from those who disbelieve and exalt your followers above them till the Day of Resurrection." God says that the followers of Jesus will be exalted until the Day of Resurrection! Has that day come yet? NO. Therefore, Jesus is worthy of being followed and his followers are honored by God just as Jesus is. HALLELUJAH - PRAISE BE TO HIS HOLY NAME! If you are a true follower of Jesus Christ according to His Holy teachings, then you have full assurance of salvation in the last day (Romans 8:1).
Also please note, that Sura 3:55 says "I am about to cause your term on earth to end." The Arabic here says, "Inim wuta wafika" which literally means, "I will cause you to die." Also in Sura 19:33 (Mariam) Jesus is quoted as saying, "So peace be on me on the day I was born, and on the day I die; and may peace be upon me on the day when I shall be raised to life." Praise be to the one God, the Quran even bears testimony to the death and resurrection of Jesus Christ!
Since there is full assurance given to those who follow Jesus Christ for their salvation (Sura 3:55), what else does the Quran say about the Christians? Throughout the Quran, Allah is praised as the Merciful and Compassionate. Let us look at Sura 57:27 (Al-Hadid) - "We sent other apostles, and after those Isa the son of Mariam. We gave him the Gospel and put compassion and mercy in the hearts of his followers." Look at how the followers of Jesus are regarded by Allah. Compassion and mercy in our hearts as followers of Jesus Christ! We must turn to His teachings in the Bible to learn the fill truth about Jesus Christ and what it means to be his follower.
THE BIBLE Muslim friends often want to tell us that the Bible has been corrupted and cannot be trusted now. The Quran never said this and Prophet Muhammed never said this. Let us look at some verses from the Quran which show the full confidence that Prophet Muhammed had in the Bible and how Allah instructed the people to trust the Bible.
Sura 5:68 (Al-Maida) - "Say: 'People of the Book (Christians and Jews), you stand for nothing until you observe the Torah and the Gospel and that which is revealed to you from your Lord."
Sura 4:136 (Al-Nisa) - "0 believers, have faith in Allah and His Apostle, in the Book He has revealed to His Apostle, and in the Book He formerly revealed (Bible). He that denies Allah, His angels, His Scriptures, His apostles, and the Last Day, has strayed far from the truth."
Sura 5:48 (Al-Maida) - "And to you We have revealed the Book with the truth confirming what was revealed before it in the other Books, and standing as a guardian over it."
The Quran was to be the guardian of all the previously revealed Scripture. If the Bible was corrupted, then the Quran failed in its work. If the Bible was corrupted, when and where and how was it corrupted? Was it corrupted before Prophet Muhammed's time or after? If it was before his time, then why did he not say so and why did he tell his people to read the Law and the Gospel? If it was after Prophet Muhammed's time, then why do we have ancient copies of the Bible that are much older than Muhammed that read exactly the same as the Bible today?
In Sum 5:43 (Al-Maida) the Quran confirms the truthfulness of the Torah (Law of Moses, Old Testament). When Prophet Muhammed met some Jews in Arabia, Allah said to him, "But why do they come to you for judgment when they already have the Torah in which is Allah's own judgment?" Furthermore, in Sura 5:47, the Quran says, "Let the followers of the Gospel judge in accordance with what Allah has revealed therein. Evil doers are those who do not base their judgments on Allah's revelations." This confirms that the Bible was known to Prophet Muhammed and he had full confidence in its truthfulness. It also tells us that according to true Islam, Christians are to guide themselves by the Gospel. Muhammed was even told, "If thou (Muhammed) art in doubt concerning that which we reveal unto thee, then question those who read the Scriptures before thee." (Sura 10:94 - Yunus). Prophet Muhammed was told to refer to the Christians for fuller spiritual understanding.
The Bible was fully written and confirmed and compiled by the Lord 500 years before Muhammed was even born. Sura 6:115 (AI-An'am) says: "Perfected are the words of your Lord in truth and justice. None can change them. He is the Hearing, the Knowing." The Torah and the Gospel are the word of the Lord, according to the Quran, so no one can change them! If the Bible has been changed, as some Muslims will argue, then the Quran is not true. No, the Bible has not been changed; it must be studied and respected as the Word of God.
My Muslim fiend, do you believe the Bible? Sura 29:46 (AI-Ankabut) says: "And do not argue with the people of the Book (Jews and Christians) except in the best way, unless it be with those among them who do evil. Say: 'We believe in that which is revealed to us and which was revealed to you. Our God and your God is one. To Him we surrender ourselves.'" You must believe the Bible. The true submitter to God must accept His word. It is only through a true knowledge of Jesus Christ as proclaimed in the Bible that we can find life and hope. The Quran says in Sum 35:18 (Fatir): "No soul shall bear another's burden. If a laden soul cries out for help, nothing of its burden will be carried even by a relative." However, Jesus Christ said, "Come unto me all ye that labor and are heavy laden and I will give you rest. Take my yoke upon you and learn of me for I am meek and lowly in heart, and you shall find rest unto your souls." (Matthew 11:28-29). Jesus, our Savior and King, is the only one who is qualified and holy enough to bear our burdens and lead us to salvation. He said, "I am the way the truth and the life, no one can go to the Father but through me." (John 14:6)
My Muslim fiend, please take time to learn of Jesus the Christ and find the true meaning of submission to God. The Gospel is the true witness to Jesus Christ and we invite you to honestly and open-heartedly seek the truth from above from the one true God. Read about Jesus Christ and learn of him, for He is ready to receive you.
Visitor700: I only pointed that out to show how easy it is to switch their citations since they both carry exactly the same message.
If you are honest, then why did you ignore other places where paul preached the doctrine of justification by faith to those who have been saved?
Are you challenging the interpretation of "Jesus fulfilled the law" by the renown bible scholar, david bivin Meeting you face to face will not convince me to favor your interpretation of the phrase over his.
We are justified by faith. Romans 5:1, 2 “Therefore, having been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ,through whom also we have access by faith into this grace in which we stand, and rejoice in hope of the glory of God”
Salvation cannot be earned by works:
Combating your false idea that man can be save in keeping the law , he states that even Jewish Christians are saved by grace and not by keeping the law of Moses: Galatians 2:15, 16 “We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles, knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law but by faith in Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Christ Jesus, that we might be justified by faith in Christ and not by the works of the law; for by the works of the law no flesh shall be justified”
In Romans, chapters 1 through 3, Paul establishes that both Jews and Gentiles are sinners, and can be saved only by the grace of God.Jews cannot depend on the law of Moses for salvation because it is never kept perfectly: Romans 3:20 “Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin”
NO HUMAN CAN BOAST OF PERFECTLY KEPT THE LAW,only Him, who is DIVINE in nature is able.
The Law and the Prophets foretold the coming of the Messiah who would bring righteousness to God's people. The law made it clear that Israel needed salvation from sin just as surely as did the Gentiles. Ephesians 2:8, 9 “For by grace you have been saved through faith,and that not of yourselves; it is the gift of God, not of works, lest anyone should boast”.
“Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? Of works? No, but by the law of faith. Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith apart from the deeds of the law” (Romans 3:27, 28).
What is the difference between the 'law of works' and the 'law of faith'? In the first case one strives to earn salvation by his own works. This man bases his salvation on the principle of works. In the second case, one understands that his only hope of salvation is the grace of God.He gratefully accepts God's gift of salvation by faith. This man bases his salvation on the principle of faith.
One of your brother open a thread pointing out contradictions in the bible, this is what I ask him:
The same could be said of the Qur’an. In Surah 2 we are introduced to the fall of Adam, then God’s mercy is shown to the Israelites, followed by Pharaoh’s drowning, followed by Moses and the Golden calf, followed by the Israelites complaint about food and water, and then we are introduced to the account of the GOLDEN CALF AGAIN. Following this, we read about Moses and Jesus,then we read about Moses and the GOLDEN CALF ,and then about Solomon and Abraham.If one wants to talk about chronology,what does Moses have to do with Jesus,or Solomon with Abraham? Chronologically the surah should have begun with Adam’s fall, then moved to Cain and Abel, Enoch, Abraham, Lot,Isaac, Jacob and Esau, Joseph, the sons of Israel and Moses, in that order. If such a blatant chronological mix-up can be found in this sura of the Qur’an, then madjnr would do well to explain it before criticizing what they deem to be an error in the Bible.
Allah prophesized in no uncertain term in the Qur’an that a single Muslim warrior who ventures into battle, “will vanquish” ten-fold the number of his enemies – a ratio of 1 to 10. This is truly an astounding feat. Since this prophetic promise is made by Allah to Muhammad, it is to be achieved, not by the fighting skills or strength of the individual Muslim soldier but by the divine power of the all-knowing Allah.
Surah 8:65: “O Prophet! Rouse the Believers to the fight. If there are twenty amongst you, patient and persevering, they will vanquish two hundred: if a hundred, they will vanquish a thousand of the Unbelievers.” (Yusuf Ali)
But, this prophetic statement was abrogated shortly (one verse later) in the Qur’an. The reason for the abrogation was because the Muslim warriors complained bitterly at the impossible odds they would have to now encounter when they engage their enemies in battles.
Ishaq: 326: “Abdullah told me that when this verse came down it was a shock to the Muslims who took it hard. They were afraid, as the odds were too great. So Allah relieved them and cancelled the verse with another: ‘Now has Allah relieved you and He knows that there is a weakness among you, so if there are 100 (rather than 20) they shall vanquish 200.’”
Thus, Allah abrogated his own prophecy and lowered the ratio from 1:10 to 1:2.
Surah 8:66: “For the present, Allah hath lightened your task, for He knoweth that there is a weak spot in you: But even so, if there are a hundred of you, patient and persevering, they will vanquish two hundred, and if a thousand, they will vanquish two thousand, with the leave of Allah: for Allah is with those who patiently persevere.” (Yusuf Ali))
OUR QUESTION IS: Why did Allah’s prophecy in Surah 8:65 fail in its fulfillment? Does not this prove that Allah is incapable of seeing through to the fulfillment of his prophecies? Does this not also prove that Allah cannot be the Almighty God as he claims to be? Why did Allah abrogate his own prophecy and replace it with a contradictory prophecy? Does not the fact that Allah got his prophecy wrong the first time shows that he is learning by trial and error just like any imperfect human? Does not this also prove that there is a failed prophecy in the Qur’an? Can a divine book contain a failed prophecy in it?
Visitor700: I intended to write down [Romans 4:3] but mistakingly wrote down [Genesis 15:6]. Romans 4:3 and Genesis 15:6 both carry exactly the same message though.
You said that paul was teaching the unsaved man how to reconcile with God but Paul's teaching on salvation has always been by faith alone regardless of the audience circumstance.
In Romans 11:6 [NKJV], Paul reiterated to those who were saved by faith in christ.
[size=13]And if by grace[/size] [refers to the remnant saved at this "present time" in verse 5], [size=13]then is it no more of works:[/size] [They are no longer saved by works like the 7000 Jews in verse 4] [size=13] otherwise grace is no more grace.[/size] [If you mix works with grace then salvation is not only by grace] [size=13]But if it be of works,[/size] [If salvation in this "present time" is of works, [size=13]then is it no more grace:[/size] [then it can't be of only grace] [size=13] otherwise work is no more work.[/size] [If you mix grace with works then salvation is not only by works].
We derive 3 things from this verse.
1. Salvation is by grace to the exclusion of works. 2. Salvation used to be of works but is now "no more of works." 3. Grace and works are exclusive of each other.
"Fulfill the Law" has many connotations. According to a biblical scholar, David Bivin, it means to properly interpret the Torah so that people can abide by the law.
"Jesus fulfilled the law" means he was clarifying the true intent of that law. For example, in Matthew 5:28 Jesus said:
"But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart."
From the verse above, Jesus clarified that the violation of the law against adultery includes gazing lustfully at a woman.
Rather, the bible reveals that God knew the law was not impossible to keep.
"And said unto them, [size=13]Ye have kept all that Moses the servant of the LORD commanded you[/size] , and have obeyed my voice in all that I commanded you." [Josh. 22:2]
They were also saved by keeping the law.
Those who obeyed were promised mercy, forgiveness and life [Ex. 20:6 , Ex. 34:7 ; Lev. 18:5 ; Psa. 103:3 , Psa. 130:4; Eze. 20:11 ; Dan. 9:9 ]
And those who disobeyed; death, destruction and Hell [Ex. 32:32-33 ; Lev. 5:17 ; Deut. 29:20 , Deut. 32:22 ].
you are not being truthful here, you mistakenly quote genesis instead of Romans, I was beginning to accept your complained but when I read this "both carry exactly the same message though" Then it wasent a mistake.
Let me repeat myself again. Paul’s focus was on the unsaved man and how he might get right with God. James’ focus was on the saved person and how he might SHOW his faith and DEMONSTRATE the reality of his faith.(the unsaved man cannot show or demonstrate his faith). You cannot be saved by work(Ephesians 2:8-9) You cannot show that you are saved without works (James 2:14,18)How can a person be saved? By faith alone (Rom. 3:28) How can a person show that he is saved?How can he “show his faith”?Only by works (James 2:18) The error Paul corrected was "salvation is by the work of the law in christ Jesus( when Jesus fullfiled the law) The error that James corrected"Works are unnecessary after a person is saved" As a matter of fact, this is what Paul wrote, "Shall we sin because we are not under law but under grace? May it never be!" ( Rom. 6:15); and "Having been freed from sin, you became slaves of righteousness" (v. 18).Thus Paul condemns the same error James is exposing here. Paul never advocated any concept of dormant faith.
Believe me when I say this my friend, you do not understand what it mean when Jesus fullfiled the law, I cannot discuss it with you, you may ended up not understand. Only through face to face conversation.
John 7:7“The world cannot hate you, but it hates ME because I testify of it that its works are evil.”
John 3:19-21“And this is the condemnation, that the light has come into the world, and MEN LOVED DARKNESS RATHER THAN LIGHT ,BECAUSE THEIR DEEDS WERE EVIL . For everyone practicing evil hates the light and does not come to the light, lest his deeds should be exposed. But he who does the truth comes to the light,that his deeds may be clearly seen,that they have been done in God.”
Scholar8200: 11 Now when they were going, behold, some of the watch came into the city, and shewed unto the chief priests all the things that were done. 12 And when they were assembled with the elders, and had taken counsel, they gave large money unto the soldiers, 13 saying, Say ye, His disciples came by night, and stole him away while we slept. 14 And if this come to the governor’s ears, we will persuade him, and secure you. 15 So they took the money, and did as they were taught: and this saying is commonly reported among the Jews until this day. Matthew 28:11-15
If He never rose, there would never have been a need for this conspiracy! The elders knew the tomb was empty hence they had to act fast to stop more people from believing on Him! Besides, the disciples were broken, frightened and holed up in a room in Jerusalem for fear of their lives, hence it is ridiculous to assume 11 men in that condition will overcome a group of fully armed soldiers, roll away a very heavy stone and steal the Body!!!
nice one my brother. His body was moved against Jewish law and custom and those guards were guarding nothing. Very funny.
Christianity Etc › Re: . by malvisguy212: 1:34pm On Oct 30, 2015
wasted efforts 
. That chapter is giving a prophecy about an individual to come, a mystery man. 
you're just beating around the bush