Christianity Etc › Re: My Christians Brothers Should Help Me Clarify This by malvisguy212: 12:25pm On Oct 26, 2015 |
6.Jehoachin's father,Madehim, became an unofficial co-ruler at the age of eight to train him! This was followed with Jehoachin becoming officially the king at his father's death at 18 years of age! 7.Two different times 8.It is quite possible that both authors may have described two different incidents, though by the same man, or one author may have only mentioned in part what the other author mentions in full. 9.you should've should have continued reading on further to 1 Chronicles 15, as he would then have seen that David brought the Ark after defeating the Philistines. The reason for this is that the Israelites moved the Ark of the covenant twice. The first time, they moved it from Baal, prior to the defeat of the Philistines, as we see in 2 Samuel 5 and 6 and in 1 Chronicles 15. Once the prophet Samuel narrates David’s victory over the Philistines, he tells us about both times when the Ark was moved. However in 1 Chronicles, the order is as follows: the Ark was first moved from baal; then David defeated the Philistines; and finally, the Ark was moved from the House of Obed-Edom. Therefore the two accounts are not contradictory at all. What we have here is simply one prophet choosing to give us the complete history of the Ark at once (rather than referring to it later) and another presenting the history in a different way. In both cases the timing of events is the same.
The same could be said of the Qur’an. In Surah 2 we are introduced to the fall of Adam, then God’s mercy is shown to the Israelites, followed by Pharaoh’s drowning, followed by Moses and the Golden calf, followed by the Israelites complaint about food and water, and then we are introduced to the account of the golden calf again. Following this, we read about Moses and Jesus,then we read about Moses and the golden calf, and then about Solomon and Abraham. If one wants to talk about chronology, what does Moses have to do with Jesus, or Solomon with Abraham? Chronologically the surah should have begun with Adam’s fall, then moved to Cain and Abel, Enoch, Abraham, Lot, Isaac, Jacob and Esau, Joseph, the sons of Israel and Moses, in that order. If such a blatant chronological mix-up can be found in this sura of the Qur’an, then madjnr would do well to explain it before criticizing what they deem to be an error in the Bible. 10.there is no contradiction here, the problem is the question you ask. Genesis 7:2 says Noah was to bring in 7 pairs of 'clean’ animals AND 2 pairs of every kind of ‘unclean’ animal. |
Christianity Etc › Re: My Christians Brothers Should Help Me Clarify This by malvisguy212: 11:56am On Oct 26, 2015 |
Madjnr. 1.David was looking back over his brilliant conquests, which had brought the Canaanite, Syrian, and Phoenician kingdoms into a state of vassalage and dependency on Israel. He had an attitude of pride and self-admiration for his achievements, and was thinking more in terms of armaments and troops than in terms of the mercies of God. To conduct the census is against the will of God and if David conduct the census it will bring him on his knell to God ,that is why God allowed him to conduct it.just like he allowed satan to tempt job. 2.there are two things in mind when the census is conducted,the 1 Chronicles 21:5 figure included all the available men of fighting age, whether battle-seasoned or not, whereas the 2 Samuel 24:9 account is speaking only of those who were ready for battle. J 3Observe that 1 Chronicles 21:6 clearly states that Joab did not complete the numbering, as he had not yet taken a census of the tribe of Benjamin, nor that of Levi’s either, due to the fact that David came under conviction about completing the census at all. Thus the different numbers indicate the inclusion or exclusion of particular unspecified groups in the nation. We find another reference to this in 1 Chronicles 27:23-24 where it states that David did not include those twenty years old and younger, and that since Joab did not finish the census the number was not recorded in King David’s Chronicle. The procedure for conducting the census had been to start with the trans- Jordanian tribes (2 Samuel 24:5) and then shift to the northern most tribe of Dan and work southward towards Jerusalem (verse 7). The numbering of Benjamin, therefore, would have come last. Hence Benjamin would not be included with the total for Israel or of that for Judah, either. In the case of 2 Samuel 24,the figure for Judah included the already known figure of 30,000 troops mustered by Benjamin. Hence the total of 500,000 included the Benjamite contingent. 4. The Septuagint accurately states three years for both verses 5. In 2 Chronicles 22:9 Ahaziah is said to be "the son of Jehoshaphat" and Jehoshaphat is said to be "the king of Israel" (2 Chronicles 21:2). But Jehoshaphat was king of Judah, was he not (1 Kings 22)? Now, hold that thought for a moment. In addition to this, Ahaziah was also "son in law" to the house of Ahab (2 Kings 8:27). Question: How does Ahaziah become a "son in law" to the house of Ahab when he married Zibiah of Beersheba (2 Chronicles 24:1)? He didn't marry any of Ahab's daughters or Omri's daughters. But now look over at 1 Kings 22:26 and notice that there's a man named "Joash" who is waiting in Israel to take over the dual kingdom if Ahab or Jehoshaphat gets killed (1 Kings 22:26,28,29, 34, 37). But he's only one year old and won't ascend the throne until he's eight years old (2 Chronicles 24:1). Ahaziah had a son named Joash before Ahaziah ever sat on the throne of Judah. When Ahab was killed, a different Ahaziah took over the throne of Israel (2 Kings 1), not the Ahaziah whose mother was the daughter of Omri and who was said to be the son of Jehoshaphat--not the son of Ahab (2 Chronicles 22:9). Even his other name appears in the list of Jehoshaphat's sons (2 Chronicles 21:2). The Azariah in our problem, then, was not Jehoram's literal son, and obviously he was intended for the southern throne (Judah) many years before he actually took the throne. His mother was Athaliah, who was Omri's daughter; that is, she was Ahab's sister (1 Kings 16:29). If Ahaziah was her son and Jehoshaphat was his father, then when Jehoshaphat "joined affinity with Ahab" (2 Chronicles 18:1), this was more than just a military move. Jehoshaphat's title was "king of Israel" (2Chronicles 21:2), and this signifies the ominous alliance, for Jehoram killed "divers of the princes of Israel." So if Ahab got killed, one of Jehoshaphat's kin could take over Israel; on the other hand, if Jehoshaphat died in battle, then one of Ahab's kin could take over Judah when Jehoram was finished. And that's what happened. Ahaziah,after the death of Jehoshaphat, is Ahab's nephew and a son in law to his household. He had to have married one of Ahab's daughters or granddaughters. Ahaziah is the step son or son in law to Jehoram. He was a favorite to Omri because his mother was Omri's daughter. He was anointed, like David, years before he actually began to reign, even though he was the king by anointing. He was undoubtedly anointed at age 22 and upon the death of his predecessor, assumed the throne and actual rulership at age 42. |
Islam › Re: Peculiarities Of Muhammad As A Prophet by malvisguy212: 8:37pm On Oct 25, 2015 |
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Islam › Re: Peculiarities Of Muhammad As A Prophet by malvisguy212: 6:53pm On Oct 25, 2015 |
truthman2012: These are the peculiarities of Muhammad, which you cannot find with any of God’s prophets.
He was the only prophet from the Arabs
Even though the Quran ( 29:27) agrees that God appoints prophets from only the lineage of Isaac and Jacob, disqualifying Muhammad as a prophet from God as he was from the lineage of Ishmael, it contradicts itself by saying “for all people there is a prophet” (Quran 10:47). The quran further contradicts itself when it says there was no prophet in Arabs before Muhammad (Quran 34:44). If every people have a prophet, why was there none for the Arabs before Muhammad? Therefore Muhammad remains the only prophet of allah. “There is no god except allahh and Muhammad is his messenger”. Muhammad is the only messenger of allah.
He was the only prophet who had immunity against his lord’s Laws
They ask thee concerning women's courses. Say: They are a hurt and a pollution: So keep away from women in their courses, and do not[b] approach [/b]them until they are clean.But when they have purified themselves, ye may approach them in any manner, time, or place ordained for you by Allah. For Allah loves those who turn to Him constantly and He loves those who keep themselves pure and clean. Qur'an 2:222
Muhammad had immunity against that quranic injunction and could violate it: Narrated 'Aisha: The Prophet and I used to take a bath from a single pot while we were Junub. During the menses, he used to order me to put on an Izar (dress worn below the waist) and used to f.ondle me. While in Itikaf, he used to bring his head near me and I would wash it while I used to be in my periods (menses). Sahih Bukhari 1:6: 298
Again, allah restricted the number of a muslim’s wives to four (Quran 4:3). But Muhammad had immunity against this and married more. He had up to eleven wives.
The true God would not tolerate his prophet violating his laws.
He was the only prophet who was affected by charm or magic
Magic was worked on Allah's Apostle so that he used to think that he had sexual relations with his wives while he actually had not (Sufyan said: That is the hardest kind of magic as it has such an effect)... (Sahih al-Bukhari, Volume 7, Book 71, Number 660).
Even in that condition, he was still thinking of sex. Serious.
The true God protects His own people from the effect of charm and magic: No spell can curse the descendants of Jacob. No magic can harm the people of Israel. Now it will be said of Jacob and Israel: 'See what God has done! (Number 23:23, GOD'S WORD® Translation).
He was the only prophet who received command to force people to accept his newly found religion
(Qur'an 2:193) - "And fight them until persecution is no more, and religion be only for Allah. But if they desist, then let there be no hostility except against wrong-doers.
Bukhari (2:24) - "Allah's Apostle said: "I have been ordered (by Allah) to fight against the people until they testify that none has the right to be worshipped but Allah and that Muhammad is Allah's Apostle, and offer the prayers perfectly and give the obligatory charity, so if they perform a that, then they save their lives and property from me except for Islamic laws and then their reckoning (accounts) will be done by Allah.
The order is being enforced till today by ISIL, Al-Qaeda, Al-Shabab, Boko Haram etc. the true muslims in the sense of true islam.
He was the only prophet who married the wife of his adopted son
Quran 33:37-38 Yusufali ] Behold! Thou didst say to one who had received the grace of Allah and thy favour: "Retain thou (in wedlock) thy wife, and fear Allah." But thou didst hide in thy heart that which Allah was about to make manifest: thou didst fear the people, but it is more fitting that thou shouldst fear Allah. Then when Zaid had dissolved (his marriage) with her, with the necessary (formality), We joined her in marriage to thee: in order that (in future) there may be no difficulty to the Believers in (the matter of) marriage with the wives of their adopted sons, when the latter have dissolved with the necessary (formality) (their marriage) with them. And Allah's command must be fulfilled.
There can be no difficulty to the Prophet in what Allah has indicated to him as a duty. It was the practice (approved) of Allah amongst those of old that have passed away. And the command of Allah is a decree determined.
He was the only prophet who married the one and only wife of Zaid, his adopted son. No prophet in history did such a disgusting thing. And to cover up the shameful act, allah had to lie that it was the practice of the people of old. When asked which people, muslims could not provide the answer till today.
He was the only prophet who ended his prophethood with a curse
"May Allah curse the Jews and Christians for they built the places of worship at the graves of the prophets." Bukhari, Vol. 1, #427 But Jesus died blessing his enemies: "Father forgive them, for they do not know what they are doing." (Luke 23:34).
He was the only prophet who married a baby girl (A Pedophile)
Sahih Muslim Book 008, Number 3310: 'A'isha (Allah be pleased with her) reported: Allah's Apostle (may peace be upon him) married me when I was six years old, and I was admitted to his house when I was nine years old. I love this. nice one op. |
Islam › Re: Peculiarities Of Muhammad As A Prophet by malvisguy212: 6:47pm On Oct 25, 2015 |
HomoSapiien: Yahweh infact according to the bolded part is satan because we learnt that he and his angels told many lies Why are they lying and deceiving people? if you have any issue with God, open your thread and ask your questions, this thread is not for atheists. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Three Way Satan Bring Down The Church. by malvisguy212(op): 10:36am On Oct 25, 2015 |
Princewell2012: Op since you brought this up here.
Pls i want to know, after the day of Pentecost, when the disciples received the holy ghost, who was their pastor in charge of their ministry
pls i need ur reply. peter was the head. |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 7:18am On Oct 25, 2015 |
lexiconkabir: Allah(S.W.T) had to distinguish the jesus he was talking about, because many bore the name jesus, now before malvisguy212 and truthman2012 begin to open their brown teeth and ask for scriptural evidence lets see this verse, "So when the crowd had gathered, Pilate asked them, "Which one do you want me to release to you: J.ESUS BARABBAS, or Jesus who is called the Messiah?(NIV, Mattew27:17)" now barabbas first name is also jesus, although the king james bible dont have jesus infront of barabbas, but the NIV bible proves my point. this is your only post you on page 0, is this the comment that debunk the op ? I don't know what to call you. *you be real mallam sharif* |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 7:02am On Oct 25, 2015 |
lexiconkabir: infact! not infacte. anyway if you feel i havent debunked the thread, why dont you counter my answer? were is your answer? |
Islam › Re: Did Muhammed Curse Muslims? by malvisguy212(op): 6:59am On Oct 25, 2015 |
yazach: Why are you wasting your time on coconut heads the quran has darken your mind. |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 6:57am On Oct 25, 2015 |
lexiconkabir: what the hell is wrong with this guy, yes i gained alot by exposing and debunking the useless thread making people see what a liar you and your folks are, now get the hell outta my face! and brush your teeth.  only this thread muslims debunk? Infacte,muslims have debunk All the threads on nairaland. |
Christianity Etc › Re: "God Cannot Be Tempted. Jesus Was Tempted. Therefore, Jesus Cannot Be God". How? by malvisguy212: 6:51am On Oct 25, 2015 |
CANTICLES: Jesus is not alive until he was resurected from death on the third day . kai, jehovah witness love argument so much. So what is the different between my post and yours? |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 6:46am On Oct 25, 2015 |
lexiconkabir: see them loosers  I know you have gain so much in this discussion. Don't let pride hinder you. |
Christianity Etc › Re: "God Cannot Be Tempted. Jesus Was Tempted. Therefore, Jesus Cannot Be God". How? by malvisguy212: 6:39am On Oct 25, 2015 |
Jessicha: If he still exist after death , that means he never died . It means he only pretends to die but was actually alive .
The keyword is " death" nd it applies to All living things . Are you now saying when living things die they dont cease to exist ? Lol , goats and lion must be in heaven revelation 1:18 I am the Living One; I was dead, and now look, I am alive for ever and ever! And I hold the keys of death and Hades. |
Christianity Etc › Re: The Difference Between Trials And Temptations by malvisguy212(op): 3:44am On Oct 25, 2015 |
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Christianity Etc › Re: One Question, Three Different Answers by malvisguy212(op): 3:43am On Oct 25, 2015 |
malvisguy212: Evangelism thread deserve to be on the homepage moderators. Seun, Lalasticlala. happy Sunday |
Christianity Etc › Re: Hypocrisy In The Church? by malvisguy212(op): 3:41am On Oct 25, 2015 |
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Christianity Etc › Re: Three Way Satan Bring Down The Church. by malvisguy212(op): 3:40am On Oct 25, 2015 |
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Christianity Etc › Re: Why Did God Forsake Jesus And Leave Him to Suffer. by malvisguy212: 9:20pm On Oct 24, 2015 |
carinmom: Are you sure you are ok What you are saying here is NONSENSE Jesus was a Spirit before he came to earth as a human. Thank you. |
Christianity Etc › Re: What Does The Bible Teach About The Trinity? by malvisguy212: 2:31pm On Oct 24, 2015 |
Scholar8200: 19 Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost Matthew 28:19
It does not say names.
Also I heard the voice of the Lord, saying, Whom shall I send, and who will go for us? Then said I, Here am I; send me. Isaiah 6:8
It does not say, "whom shall We send" neither did it say, 'will go for Me"
26 And God said, Let us make man in our image, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth. 27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them
Genesis 1:26,27
Lest some one say He was referring to the Angels when He said US, let such remember that in NO part of scripture are Angels described as partners in Creation! Besides, if that referred to Angels, at least the next verse should have been the subjects (Angels) carrying out the command!
Finally. 21 that they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. John 17:21 I love this bro. God bless you more. |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 2:27pm On Oct 24, 2015 |
orisa37: Qurran's Reference is a Testimony to Jesus'(Isah's) "Human and Spirit Being"!!!! Islam's record is even more detailed. Here, Islam is proving that God(Allah) is Omnipotent, Omniscient, Omnipresent and Omnieverything. Islam believes that the God(Allah) who moulded Adam and Eve, the fore parents of sins, preserved Mary, daughter of Imran, niece of Zachariah, as a peculiar Virgin for Him to come through to the world to redeem us. And that, thesame God(Allah) is all capable of representing Himself everywhere, anywhere, anyhow and anytime and in you and I, in Buhari, Obama, Markel, Putin etc, in assemblies, Mosques, Churches, schools etc. God(Allah) sends Angels everywhere. The Will in those Angels is God's and God(Allah) is those Angels. Islam and the Qurran have prefected all these. The only problem of Islam that I observe is their Confusion in understanding the Spirit of Peace. May God(Allah) grant them proper understanding to know the Spirits of Peace and Love!!!! are you a muslims? I disagree with you, what has islam came to perfected? From the day God created Adam ,He created him with his ONE wife,this pattern of one wife is the idea God seth,but islam chose against this command , is this what islam came to perfected? Now I am very busy, I would've love to say more, view my thread and read it. |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 12:39pm On Oct 24, 2015 |
lexiconkabir: And when did i try preaching through the bible? i quoted that verse to expose you and lieman2012. you did not quote to expose me , you quote to make your truth stand. |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 12:36pm On Oct 24, 2015 |
Jummymine: Quoted indicate Jesus is a WORD FROM GOD.
I think the problem with many is that they cannot understand the meaning of "a word from God". The word of God is His Command, which is "Be", His act of willing something to happen, exist or come into being. This same words are used in the Qur'aan very often. For instance when Allaah was talking about the way earlier people's corrupted Allaah's messages through His earlier Prophets, Allaah used the same words "a word from Him". Allaah says in the Qur'aan, "If it were not for a Word that proceeded from him, the issues (of distortion) would have been sorted out for them." That shows that the Word here is His command. this is further clarified where Allaah says in the Qur'aan 16:40 that, "Verily, our Word unto a thing when We intend it, is only that We say unto it, "Be", and it is."
Concerning the fixation of some on the fact that Jesus is referred to as "a spirit from me" or "my spirit", that is not perculiar to Jesus (pbuh). All spirit part of man is from God, and is God's in the same way that the earth is from him of His'. Allaah says in the Qu'aan 38: 72-74, while describing the creation of Adam, "Behold, thy Lord said to the angels: "I am about to create man from clay: "When I have fashioned him (in due proportion) and breathed into him of My spirit, fall ye down in obeisance unto him." So the angels prostrated themselves, all of them together: Not so Iblis: he was haughty, and became one of those who reject Faith." Here, Adam had God's spirit breathed into him. Does this make him God or of God?! No. It's quite simple, if one understands English or Arabic.
Allaah says in the Qur'aan 5: 72-75, " They do blaspheme who say: "(Allah) is Christ the son of Mary." But said Christ: "O Children of Israel! worship Allah, my Lord and your Lord." Whoever joins other gods with Allah,- Allah will forbid him the garden, and the Fire will be his abode. There will for the wrong-doers be no one to help. They do blaspheme who say: Allah is one of three in a Trinity: for there is no god except One Allah. If they desist not from their word (of blasphemy), verily a grievous penalty will befall the blasphemers among them. Why turn they not to Allah, and seek His forgiveness? For Allah is Oft- forgiving, Most Merciful. Christ the son of Mary was no more than an apostle; many were the apostles that passed away before him. His mother was a woman of truth. They had both to eat their (daily) food. See how Allah doth make His signs clear to them; yet see in what ways they are deluded away from the truth!" if you want to discuss with me, come out and quote me. If your explanation is true, then why is Adam not called the “Word of God”? If the title “Word of God” is given because of God’s means of bringing an individual into existence by the utterance of the word “Be,” then don’t you think it is more appropriate for Adam to receive this title as he was the first man to be created in this manner? The Qur’an identifies only TWO persons by name to be created in this manner by the utterance of the word, “Be.” The first was Adam and the second, Jesus. YET, Adam was not called the “Word of God” in the Quran. Even though, like Jesus, he had no human father, yet he is not known as the “Word of God.” Neither are the angels nor any other creatures are given this title. In the Quran, Jesus alone is called the Word of God.The title applies to Jesus ALONE. Why ? How do you reconcile someone being call "word of God" ,"spirit of God" and" son of God?" |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 12:16pm On Oct 24, 2015 |
lexiconkabir: do you believe in the quran? you must be kidding, right? Have I ever trying to preach using the quran? When I ever I quote from the quran, I exposed islam. |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 11:31am On Oct 24, 2015 |
lexiconkabir: i dont think this have anything to do with the op, i answered the op with the buybull, you cant counter my answer, shikena! how can you provide evidence from a book you do not believe in it ? |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 11:29am On Oct 24, 2015 |
Jummymine: I can sympathize with the plight of Christians who can only understand that any special thing about Jesus can only mean that he is God! It's due to years of indoctrination. However, as I said earlier, it means nothing, if you understand God. As Islaam teaches us, He does that He wills. If he had a virgin give birth to a Son, so be it. It increases me as a Muslim in awe of Him, not make me start worshipping that creature of HIs. Especially now that we realise that human beings have made similar stuff in the labs, and the same happens in the lower animals regularly, very regularly in nature. The sun is an awesome creature, so is the Moon, but Allaah says, "Do not bow down to the Sun, nor the Moon, but bow down to Him who has created them, if indeed you would be worshippers."
Here we see God interrupting the course of nature, and overriding the very laws of procreation that he had himself established, in order that Christ might thus have a virgin-birth. Why? Surely such an act could not have been without meaning. It points to the profound truth that Jesus Christ held a very special RELATIONSHIP With the ONE WHO IS BEHIND ALL THIS MIRACLE. Brother, sorry o! Indeed Muslims believe Jesus is special among God's creation. He was among the five greatest humans (Prophet) that walked on earth. That is where the "specialty" is. If you can free up your mind a bit, you'll realise that being special cannot mean being God by default. Infact we Muslims call Moses Kaleemullaah (He who speaks directly with God), it was special about him. We wouldn't worship him or turn him into Gods son because of that. Yes Jesus was born miraculously, but he yet did even more ordinary things. He used to weep and cry for breastmilk as a babay, such breast and mess his nappy with poo just like you did. he ed to get hungry just as you do, and his shit used to smell, just as yours does. He had faces located in his intestines just like you do. He used to get tired, feel pain, eat bread and figs just as you would do. His mouth used to have odour in the mornings just as yours does, and he needed a toothstick to clean t just like you. If this does not "ordinarilize" him enough for you, sorry i can't help you. Only in Allaah's hands is Guidance.
Note the last part of these quoted verses in Qur'aan 3:38-48, "This is of the tidings of things unseen which WE reveal to thee. And thou was not with them when they cast their arrows, as to which of them should be the guardian of Mary, nor was thou with them when they disputed with one another. When the angels said, 'O Mary, ALLAH gives thee glad tidings of a son through a WORD FROM HIM; his name shall be the Messiah, Jesus, son of Mary, honoured in this world and in the next, and of those who are granted nearness to God; 'And he shall speak to the people in the cradle, and when of middle age, and he shall be of the righteous. She said, 'My Lord, how shall I have a son, when no man has touched me? He said, 'Such is the way of ALLAH. HE creates what HE pleases. When HE decrees a thing HE says to it ‘Be,’ and it is;"—
Note that we must enter discussions, even religious ones with clear eyes and deep thought, not just to come and regurgitate what so-and-so said. We MUST NOT GIVE IN TO ABUSIVE LANGUAGE, INSULTS AND THE LIKES. IT IS UNBEFITTING FOR PEOPLE OF REASON AND ADULTS. I PRAY ALLAAH GUIDES THE LOST. the verse you Quoted indicate Jesus is a WORD FROM GOD. For the Quran to identify Jesus as a Spirit and a Word from God who was committed to Mary indicates that he was with God even before he was given to her. It is the closest the Quran comes to admitting the pre-existence of Jesus before his conception on earth. The lack of any explanation of its significance, however, suggests that Muhammad heard and adopted Christian teachings and titles applying to Jesus without understanding them or seeing their ominous implications that Jesus was more than a prophet. Jesus was a Spirit before he came to earth as a human. The Bible, in no uncertain term, testifies to this divine truth: John 16:28: “I came out from the Father and have come into the world. Further, I am leaving the world and am going my way to the Father.” If Jesus was spoken in Quran as “The Word of God” and as “A Spirit from God” then these two statements would make Jesus more than a prophet because no man can be called by such titles. Such titles would be appropriate only for the one who is the unique Son of God. |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 11:12am On Oct 24, 2015 |
lexiconkabir: lmaoooo , you asked a question, i gave an irrefutable answer you tagged me confused? man you are such a clown, you should be in papa ajasco and company . As regards the embolden, your problem is, you dont read with discernment, when did i exhibit your claim? do you believe in the bible passage you quote? |
Christianity Etc › Re: Contradictions Analyzed:bible And Quran. by malvisguy212(op): 9:00am On Oct 24, 2015 |
Visitor700: Re-read my previous comments. My argument isn't about salvation under the dispensation of mosiac law.
Tell me, who said this?
[size=13]"Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets: I did not come to abolish, but to fulfill. "For truly I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not the smallest letter or stroke shall pass away from the Law, until all is accomplished. Whoever then annuls one of the least of these commandments, and so teaches other shall be called least in the kingdom of heaven: but whoever keeps and teaches them, he shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven."[/size] (Matthew 5:17-19)
*Jesus made it clear that the law was still in force (Matthew 5:17-20)
*He commanded people to keep the law (Luke 17:12-14, Mark 10:17-19, John 8:3-7)
*He also observed the law himself (Galatians 4:4, Psalms 40:7-9, Hebrews 10:7)
As i mentioned previously, by rebuking the devil in His Name: When a rebuke is uttered in the name of the Lord, it ceases the activity of the thing or person being rebuked. For example, the winds and waves ceased when Jesus rebuked them and satan had to release Moses’ body to Prince Michael. This is confirmed in the scriptures:
Isa 45:23 I have sworn by myself, the word is gone out of my mouth in righteousness, and shall not return, That unto me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall swear.
Rom 14:11 For it is written, As I live, saith the Lord, every knee shall bow to me and every tongue shall confess to God.
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Go and read my comments carefully again. I said your quotations were out of context.
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rather, Allah's promise has held true. The proof is there for all to see. There's [size=13]only one version of the Quran[/size] in the whole world. The prophet (peace be upon him) recommended that [size=13]the recitation of the whole Qur’an should be completed once in a every month.[/size] It is also recited in the daily prayers. [size=13]It has been preserved in the language that it was revealed in arabic.[/size] The crusading missionaries of the Middle Ages, the Protestants and free-thinkers of the so-called Enlightenment all agree that it is in the same condition that it was revealed1400 years ago.
Reread what i wrote. I already expounded on this issue. You say Paul and James contradicte each other concerning faith and work, but when I adress it , instead of you to provide your defence from the new testament, you went and quote from the old testament. Do you know what the bible mean when it say "Jesus fullfiled the law"? The law ONLY serve as the instruments which man shall be save. The law is a manifestation of the perfect holiness of God, and was given to us (humanity) to show how utterly unable we are to meet God's standard by our own means, strength or works (Romans 7:7). It shows us our sinfulness as a contrast to God's holiness. Old Testament saints who were called righteous relied upon the grace of God for their right standing with God, not their success at keeping the law. When Jesus is said to have fulfilled the law, it means that He perfectly kept the law of God, and never sinned (1 Peter 2:22).This was therefore a manifestation of and testimony to His deity. Obviously something no other man could possibly do. Romans 8: 1 There is therefore now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus. 2For the law of the Spirit of life has set you FREE in Christ Jesus from the LAW OF SIN AND DEATH . 3For God has done what the law, weakened by the flesh, could not do. By sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and for sin, he condemned sin in the flesh, 4in order that the righteous requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us , who walk not according to the flesh but according to the Spirit. 5For those who live according to the flesh set their minds on the things of the flesh, but those who live according to the Spirit set their minds on the things of the Spirit. The righteous requirement of the law has been fulfilled in us (those who are in Christ Jesus) by virutue of us being in Christ. Isa 45:23 and Rom 14:11 it about Jesus compear it with this: Philipians2:8-10 …8Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. 9For this reason also, God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name, 10so that at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 7:33am On Oct 24, 2015 |
mustymatic: Aameen my brother, Jazaakallaah bi khair jazaa what ? Shut up. Your brother fail woefully. |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 7:28am On Oct 24, 2015 |
lexiconkabir: Allah(S.W.T) had to distinguish the jesus he was talking about, because many bore the name jesus, now before malvisguy212 and truthman2012 begin to open their brown teeth and ask for scriptural evidence lets see this verse, "So when the crowd had gathered, Pilate asked them, "Which one do you want me to release to you: J.ESUS BARABBAS, or Jesus who is called the Messiah?(NIV, Mattew27:17)" now barabbas first name is also jesus, although the king james bible dont have jesus infront of barabbas, but the NIV bible proves my point. your confusion is beyond imagination,you quote from the bible which you claim is corrupted,untop of that ,you are putting allah word in the bible. |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 1:29am On Oct 24, 2015 |
Jummymine A whole Surah is named after her(Mary) Surah Maryam. In the Quran, NOT even EVE . the mother of the HUMAN RACE is mentioned by name. What is the reason for such exultation of Mary in the Quran? It is because of her significant place in human history as the only woman to bear a son while still a virgin. And she play a significant role in raising the SON OF GOD.
Adam was the first man, God could not have create him with parents because he was the first, that how it supposed to be. But in the case of Jesus christ,he was born without a human father when God’s natural process of procreation had long been in existence. Here we see God interrupting the course of nature, and overriding the very laws of procreation that he had himself established, in order that Christ might thus have a virgin-birth. Why? Surely such an act could not have been without meaning. It points to the profound truth that Jesus Christ held a very special RELATIONSHIP With the ONE WHO IS BEHIND ALL THIS MIRACLE.
Surah 4:171: “The Messiah, Jesus son of Mary, was (no more than) an apostle of Allah, and His Word, which He bestowed on Mary, and A SPIRIT FROM HIM.”
The words used in Surah 4:171 are ruhun-minhu, “ A SPIRIT FROM HIM.” thus the quran clearly say Jesus is A spirit from God, NO other prophet is adress like this in the quran, what is the reason Jesus is called " A SPIRIT FROM HIM"? No reason were given, is there any different in saying Jesus is the SON OF GOD and HE IS A SPIRIT FROM GOD ? |
Islam › Re: Why Did Allah Always Call Jesus By Mary's Name? by malvisguy212: 10:14pm On Oct 23, 2015 |
truthman2012: Love this. you see, the quran copy the bible, and the bible is all about Jesus christ,the old testament forestshadow the coming of Jesus in the new testament,what is the purpose of God put his spirit on Jesus in the quran? the writers of the quran did not know all this,that is why the quran give authority to Jesus more than muhammed and then mixed the truth with lies just to deceive mankind. |
Islam › Re: Did Muhammed Curse Muslims? by malvisguy212(op): 9:58pm On Oct 23, 2015 |
Empiree: You have no claim, buddy. I have spoken until you proved from the scripture, your prophet was right, till today he remain a liar. |