₦airaland Forum

Gruni1234:
Once again good job explaining your points,.

Took my time to read the Isaiah 48:16 and it's clear it was God who speaks not Isaiah, to say is Isaiah is completely false and out of interpretation.

Barrister using your mind doesn't mean that's what the scripture says and as zodiakzax rightly put it human mind cannot comprehend/understand God. Rather look at the scripture in reference and deduce your understanding from it to understand God.


Barrister i suggest you defend the matter at hand by pointing out reasons in terms of scripture why you say it's impossible that God should call another Lord.


I believe you quoted a bible verse to support your claim zodiakzax, can we have that verse, now if that verse says what it says then barristers point is invalid to say God doenst call another Lord when by scripture it is evident that all and not some is to bow to Jesus and call him Lord. All presupposes that even God himself shall bow and confess that Jesus is Lord in order to glorify Himself and if by scripture God cannot do that then Jesus is God.

Thank you

Barristter07:
funny and extremely funny

That an account created on Nov 24 could say the above nonsense despite have given Standard biblical prove for the bold says a lot.
my posts are there, directly respond to them , if you have any point to say

OneJ:
Your fellow peddler of Trinity on this thread lied that he's "not defending the Trinity" your mumu doctrine & U are here shamelessly backing him. ..
I'm not in the least amazed.
Siamese twins of falsehood,na una way

Gruni1234:
Once again good job explaining your points,.

Took my time to read the Isaiah 48:16 and it's clear it was God who speaks not Isaiah, to say is Isaiah is completely false and out of interpretation.

Barrister using your mind doesn't mean that's what the scripture says and as zodiakzax rightly put it human mind cannot comprehend/understand God. Rather look at the scripture in reference and deduce your understanding from it to understand God.

Barrister i suggest you defend the matter at hand by pointing out reasons in terms of scripture why you say it's impossible that God should call another Lord.

I believe you quoted a bible verse to support your claim zodiakzax, can we have that verse, now if that verse says what it says then barristers point is invalid to say God doenst call another Lord when by scripture it is evident that all and not some is to bow to Jesus and call him Lord. All presupposes that even God himself shall bow and confess that Jesus is Lord in order to glorify Himself and if by scripture God cannot do that then Jesus is God.

Thank you

Gruni1234:
Greetings, first of all, let me point out that I'm but a neutral reader, looking at evidences provided by both sides to ascertain what is and what is not. Leaning towards one person or group doesn't not mean i support or approve of them, just logically putting it that group has made more logical and valid points than the other.

That said, mind the way you talk to people giving that you don't know who you are talking to, how old, and how knowledgeable. Standing in front of a phd holder in theology you are but a child who doesn't know why A is A and why B is B, you only know that A is A or that it B is B, so don't go about saying someone is confused.

Let me now address your points:

You make the claim that zodiakzax uses a wrong translation of the Holy Bible to ascertain his fact and that Every other bible version translated it as form. Problem with this is that he did not only use the NIV but several translations which he posted in his comments, some use the word Nature and some use form and others were to the point that He being God etc. So your claim there is Invalid. Also, What linguistical proof do you have that the NIV and other translated versions that render morphe as Nature are wrong as you claim? Now you said "Jesus "did not consider equality with God, (Yahweh.) something to be grasped" or "used to his advantage" na BIG LIE .
Christ himself has no reason or basis to assume or think he is equal to God." Well another problem again, It is evident that was what the verse Phil 2:6 is saying, the writer said "Christ was in the form/nature of God but did not consider Himself equal with God"
So Christ even though was God did not equal Himself to God.

To prove your case you cited several verses to defend yourself.Jesus said my Father is greater than I as point to show that Jesus Himself says God is above Him, so Jesus cannot be God, good, but the writer in Phil 2:6 clearly shows that even though Jesus was in the form/nature of God, he did not consider Himself equal to God, taking that into account, it explains why Jesus should say My Father is greater than I because he doesn't want to make Himself equal to God. And just as you insist that we should allow scripture to talk for itself, i think you should to.

According to my research into Christianity and of course a believer that God doesnt exist, i have come accross certain claims of Christians and especially Trinitarians, they believe Jesus was both Human and God at the same time, so Jesus makes certain strong claim like "I and My Father are one" ,.John 1:1 saying He is God and many more which I'm not conversant with.


Now OneJ let us examine as you aspire to let scripture speak for it self,

It is said God has highly exalted Jesus and given him a name which is above every name, so that at the mention of that name every knee should bend of those on heaven,on earth and under the earth and every tongue should confess that Jesus is Lord to the glory of the Father.

Let us break this down, God exalted Jesus and gave Him a name Above Every name, so Jesus' name is above every name, when we say your name is above every name in your country we mean your name is superior to all others, no other name is superior. So his name is superior to God's but because the Trinitarians believe one truine God, this makes perfect sense on their part.

2. Writer said at the name of Jesus every knee should bow and confess in heaven: now zodiakzax asked a very striking question, where does God reside? And obviously heaven as believed by all Christians, so if every knee should bow in heaven then it means all beings in heaven should bow including God. Zodiakzax pointed out that if the writer should say every other knee then it supposed that not all will conform to this rule but " other "cannot be seen there. So all including God must conform and yet again because the Trinitarians believe in a truine God it makes perfect sense.


To further ascertain your claim you quoted genesis 40:39,40 I must tell you I looked through the entire genesis and I didn't get this only to find out that you made a mistake and that it was Genesis 41:39-40 you were referring to so next time be patient.

Now reading for myself your example, it is striking that you did not add the later comment of Pharoah when he said "only in the throne will I be greater than you" to your point. It is therefore evident that even though Pharoah gave Joseph authority over his kingdom he limited Joseph's authority to the rulership of the people alone and not to his role as king. So using this point to support your claim is also invalid for the only reason that Pharoah who being man knew very well that he had to limit Joseph in his authority, which is clearly stated in the verse. But in the case of Phil 2:9-11, there's no wording there to suggest that Christ was limited in His authority. It also could have said only in the name of God is his name not above, something like that but rather used the word "every".


You said did Thomas call Jesus Almighty God? Well there are so many verses that shows that God is not always referred to as Almighty God when ever he's been spoken off. In many cases the writers in the new testament didn't use the title Almighty God when talking about God, just like Phil 2:6 Where it is said he was in the form/nature God (not almighty God) consider Himself not to be equal to God (again not Almighty God) also Phil 2:9, wherefore God(not Almighty God) has highly exalted him, and many more verses where onmy God is used not Almighty God. So your point and logic here is invalid.

Exodus 7:1 from most rendering It is said Moses shall be Like God to Pharoah and not God, I think someone pointed out that your very own NWT renders it as such and that if you consider your NWT as the most authentic then why don't you stick to it as they stick to their sources. Why then do you want to use KJV, obviously because it supports your claim, and these tricks are what poor debators use. Obviously you won't accept the version of the KJ because most verses in it is against your believe and your NWT, for example in John 1:1 your NWT says The word was a god, when most sources including the KJV says the Word was God. You will obviously again say the KJV is in error as you seem to do to other versions like the NIV which go contrary to your understanding. So why don't you stick to your NWT as they stick to their sources as someone pointed out, which I think you should do providing the NWT was translated so you won't be misled. Let us stop using cheap gimmicks and rather boldly face the facts.


Yes indeed according to Christianity there exist only One true God and not gods, if that was true and if you accept that which you do why do your NWT say Jesus is another god when there can only be one God. I think this was a question most ask you. Which you have failed to defend in most cases but quick to use when defending your claims.


Here I should say again that I am for no group, if anyone makes a valid claim and proves it I will upon my own research deem it valid or not valid.


Thank you.

Barristter07:
You just started


You now admit by substance .. All have same NATURE. Phil 2:6 is about Substance. !!!

Now the argument has shifted to the highlighted , That further defeats you.

If we follow that highlighted , Jesus doesn't have Gods nature , answer the following :

1. Did Jesus know the time of end ? Answer according to the highlighted and let's see if Sum is what Phil 2:6 is about !

2. Why are Angels, Jesus ... all called " Son of God " , Whereas the Father is never called Son ?

Barristter07:
Zodiakzax , I really Pity you. This write up shows how deluded the Trinity turn people to . Now let's examine your defense


I never speak my mind , I speak with the scriptures . Psalm 83:18,

If Yahweh is the Most High , its impossible for Yahweh to call anyone Lord. For the records, Lord means Master. When someone is your master , they are higher than you. SO THAT RENDER YOUR POSTULATIONS USELESS .

So that explains why Yahweh won't call anyone Lord, so the one sent at Isaiah 48:16 cannot he Yahweh . he has no master!

Comprehende or you still want to disgrace yourself the more ?





So you can say this ? OneJ , your friend doesn't know the Bible , abeg help am .

See how ridiculous extent you can go. You are extremely confused individual.

The verse said " to the Glory of God the Father " . That EXCLUDE the Father !!! , it won't be to his glory again, if he is among. Receive sense



" For he has put everything in subjection under his feet. But when it says "everything" has been put in subjection, it is clear that this does not include the one who put everything in subjection to him. "

1 Cor 15:27

Read the ubderlined Till you can comprehend , and stop disgracing and showing your lack of bible knowledge Online.

Gruni1234:
Greetings, first of all, let me point out that I'm but a neutral reader, looking at evidences provided by both sides to ascertain what is and what is not. Leaning towards one person or group does not mean i support or approve of them, just logically putting it that group has made more logical and valid points than the other.

That said, mind the way you talk to people giving that you don't know who you are talking to, how old, and how knowledgeable. Standing in front of a phd holder in theology you are but a child who doesn't know why A is A and why B is B, you only know that A is A or that it B is B, so don't go about saying someone is confused.

Let me now address your points:

You make the claim that zodiakzax uses a wrong translation of the Holy Bible to ascertain his fact and that Every other bible version translated it as form. Problem with this is that he did not only use the NIV but several translations which he posted in his comments, some use the word Nature and some use form and others were to the point that He being God etc. So your claim there is Invalid. Also, What linguistical proof do you have that the NIV and other translated versions that render morphe as Nature are wrong as you claim? Now you said "Jesus "did not consider equality with God, (Yahweh.) something to be grasped" or "used to his advantage" na BIG LIE .
Christ himself has no reason or basis to assume or think he is equal to God." Well another problem again, It is evident that was what the verse Phil 2:6 is saying, the writer said "Christ was in the form/nature of God but did not consider Himself equal with God"
So Christ even though was God did not equal Himself to God.

To prove your case you cited several verses to defend yourself.Jesus said my Father is greater than I as point to show that Jesus Himself says God is above Him, so Jesus cannot be God, good, but the writer in Phil 2:6 clearly shows that even though Jesus was in the form/nature of God, he did not consider Himself equal to God, taking that into account, it explains why Jesus should say My Father is greater than I because he doesn't want to make Himself equal to God. And just as you insist that we should allow scripture to talk for itself, i think you should to.

According to my research into Christianity and of course a believer that God doesnt exist, i have come accross certain claims of Christians and especially Trinitarians, they believe Jesus was both Human and God at the same time, so Jesus makes certain strong claim like "I and My Father are one" ,.John 1:1 saying He is God and many more which I'm not conversant with.


Now OneJ let us examine as you aspire to let scripture speak for it self,

It is said God has highly exalted Jesus and given him a name which is above every name, so that at the mention of that name every knee should bend of those on heaven,on earth and under the earth and every tongue should confess that Jesus is Lord to the glory of the Father.

Let us break this down, God exalted Jesus and gave Him a name Above Every name, so Jesus' name is above every name, when we say your name is above every name in your country we mean your name is superior to all others, no other name is superior. So his name is superior to God's but because the Trinitarians believe one truine God, this makes perfect sense on their part.

2. Writer said at the name of Jesus every knee should bow and confess in heaven: now zodiakzax asked a very striking question, where does God reside? And obviously heaven as believed by all Christians, so if every knee should bow in heaven then it means all beings in heaven should bow including God. Zodiakzax pointed out that if the writer should say every other knee then it supposed that not all will conform to this rule but " other "cannot be seen there. So all including God must conform and yet again because the Trinitarians believe in a truine God it makes perfect sense.


To further ascertain your claim you quoted genesis 40:39,40 I must tell you I looked through the entire genesis and I didn't get this only to find out that you made a mistake and that it was Genesis 41:39-40 you were referring to so next time be patient.

Now reading for myself your example, it is striking that you did not add the later comment of Pharoah when he said "only in the throne will I be greater than you" to your point. It is therefore evident that even though Pharoah gave Joseph authority over his kingdom he limited Joseph's authority to the rulership of the people alone and not to his role as king. So using this point to support your claim is also invalid for the only reason that Pharoah who being man knew very well that he had to limit Joseph in his authority, which is clearly stated in the verse. But in the case of Phil 2:9-11, there's no wording there to suggest that Christ was limited in His authority. It also could have said only in the name of God is his name not above, something like that but rather used the word "every".


You said did Thomas call Jesus Almighty God? Well there are so many verses that shows that God is not always referred to as Almighty God when ever he's been spoken off. In many cases the writers in the new testament didn't use the title Almighty God when talking about God, just like Phil 2:6 Where it is said he was in the form/nature God (not almighty God) consider Himself not to be equal to God (again not Almighty God) also Phil 2:9, wherefore God(not Almighty God) has highly exalted him, and many more verses where onmy God is used not Almighty God. So your point and logic here is invalid.

Exodus 7:1 from most rendering It is said Moses shall be Like God to Pharoah and not God, I think someone pointed out that your very own NWT renders it as such and that if you consider your NWT as the most authentic then why don't you stick to it as they stick to their sources. Why then do you want to use KJV, obviously because it supports your claim, and these tricks are what poor debators use. Obviously you won't accept the version of the KJ because most verses in it is against your believe and your NWT, for example in John 1:1 your NWT says The word was a god, when most sources including the KJV says the Word was God. You will obviously again say the KJV is in error as you seem to do to other versions like the NIV which go contrary to your understanding. So why don't you stick to your NWT as they stick to their sources as someone pointed out, which I think you should do providing the NWT was translated so you won't be misled. Let us stop using cheap gimmicks and rather boldly face the facts.


Yes indeed according to Christianity there exist only One true God and not gods, if that was true and if you accept that which you do why do your NWT say Jesus is another god when there can only be one God. I think this was a question most ask you. Which you have failed to defend in most cases but quick to use when defending your claims.


Here I should say again that I am for no group, if anyone makes a valid claim and proves it I will upon my own research deem it valid or not valid.


Thank you.

OneJ:
As regards Pharoah & Joseph, Gen41:39-41 is what I had in mind. Thanks for pointing it out. It's appreciated.

2). "so Christ even though was God did not consider himself equal to God", as U well know, it's a contradictory statement which the writer of Phil2:6,7 can not have written himself ,except his exact words were twisted to such an extent that it's contradictory


3) If Jesus is Almighty God and still consider himself inferior to God. John 14:28.
Thats not common sense , na mumu.

4) Phil 2:9-11, Jesus exalted position is to glory of God Yahweh, therefore, Yahweh is not under Christ's authority.
1 cor 15:24-27, sheds light on it in lucid details.
5) Thomas himself never called Jesus "our God". but "my God". Context is key.
Therefore, Christ is not Yahweh, whom Christ called the only true God John 17:3.
Shalom

OneJ:
[quote author=zodiakzax post=73302338]Thanks once again to rightly divide the truth and to stand boldly as a good judge. I could not have explained it better... i am also glad others are reading and watching. And may the Lord give the increase, what you seek you will find... I don't know why you doubt the existence of God but like my brother said we cannot tell how but we can pray that Jesus reveals Himself to you.

OneJ:
cc:
*Gruni1234
*zodiakzax

U don't even know Jesus or his Father, Yahweh, let alone show some one how to find him.


Jesus Christ is not the same as the God Almighty ( Yahweh)who gave him a name above every name (Phil 2:9,10) & NEITHER will Yahweh be under Christ authority in heaven & earth.
(1 cor 15:24-27)


Revelation 3 Vs12
" Him who overcomes I will make a pillar in the temple (sanctuary) of my God... I will write on him the name of my God,and the name of the city of my God, the new Jerusalem which is coming down out of heaven from my God. I will also write on him my new name"

3Vs 21
"To him who overcomes, I will give him the right to sit with me on my throne, just as I overcame and SAT DOWN WITH MY FATHER ON HIS THRONE"
Rev 3:12,14,21

In heaven, Yahweh is Supreme ,Christ is subordinate.
Jesus is not Yahweh.
Fact.
(Can't U see that something is wrong with una mumu doctrine of trinity?

johnw47:
ha ha, oh duh false jw,
and Jesus never corrected Him, because it's true
so Jesus is God of not just thomas, but of the apostles and disciples and all christians
Joh 1:1  In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
just pointing out your lies onej

Crysthaniel:
but at Psalms 89:6 the Bible says For who in the skies can compare to Jehovah? Who among the SONS of God is like Jehovah?

OneJ:
The words of Yahweh himself, that's the proverbial horse's mouth (matt 3:16,17.) & Jesus Christ direct statements ( John 3:16. 7:16,17. Matt 16:13 -17. John 20:17 ) & what his apostles confessed (Acts 3:13. John 20:30,31. Rev 3:12,14,21. 1 cor 8:5,6 &11:3) carries more weight than your famous forgeries & inserted fiction (John 1:1. 1 John 5:7, Rev 1:11 etc) to promote falsehood.

(Afterthought...)
" Jesus was calling God (YAHWEH) his FATHER "John 5:18 (' I am God's son,', Jesus said. John 10:34-36)
But the Pharisees lied that Jesus was " making himself equal to God" John 5:18. but Christ disagreed ( " the Father (Yahweh) is greater than I". John 14:28)

Today, the modern day Pharisees (brocab , Johnw47 ,solite3, Prime sky,Anas09 et al) have upgraded that lie & installed Jesus as Almighty God.
Trinity is a fundamental lie fit for the dustbin.
That's where it belongs.
Shalom

johnw47:
ha ha, oh duh false jw,
and Jesus never corrected Him, because it's true
so Jesus is God of not just thomas, but of the apostles and disciples and all christians
Joh 1:1  In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
just pointing out your lies onej

johnw47:
Psalms 89:6 For who in the skies can compare to Jehovah? Who among the SONS of God is like Jehovah?

who in the skies, meaning the angels - the sons of the Almighty, can compare to Father GOD
none of the angels can compare to FATHER GOD
the verse is referring to angels-the sons of God, because we know Jesus Christ the Son of God compares to
Father God perfectly:

Jesus is the image of God, 2Co_4:4
Jesus is the image of the invisible God, Col_1:15
Jesus is the brightness of his glory, the express image of his person, Heb_1:3

Jesus the man is exactly like Father God

Crysthaniel:
I want them trinitarians to explain the account of John 12 :49-50
For I have not spoken of my own initiative, but the Father who sent me has himself given me a commandment about what to say and what to speak. 50 And I know that his commandment means everlasting life. So whatever I speak, I speak just as the Father has told me

with their claim of John 1:1(of which most of the modern translations have distorted the earliest reproduce of the original scriptures according To reasearch #wikipedia)

johnw47:
python man
would you like me to post again other bible verses showing that the below version of John 1:1 is true?

Joh 1:1  In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Crysthaniel:
so the question read 1corinthians 11:3 is Christ God?

johnw47:
of course you false jw cry cannot address my post or believe the scriptures i gave reference to
but in reply you ask a question,
typical false jw running away from the truth


1Co 11:3  But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God. 

of course Father is the head of Jesus, duh duh

Crysthaniel:
is Jesus the father?

johnw47:
is the son the Father oh confused one, i don't have enough duh's for you, again you didn't address my post but just ask a question
address my posts and then i will show up the stupidity of your questions

Crysthaniel:
what is there is that The Bible is inspired by Jehovah and it's perfect and Harmonious.. so
if John 1:1 say that Word is God why does John 12: 49-50 and 16:28 points that there is one who sent Jesus(The word) and this person is commanding him and greater than him 14:28 ? with this we Percive that something is wrong somewhere..and it's The fact that John 1:1 has been manipulated ..you can research on the Account on your own..too @wikipedia you will see The. History of the account.. (John 1:1)

Crysthaniel:
I want them trinitarians to explain the account of John 12 :49-50
For I have not spoken of my own initiative, but the Father who sent me has himself given me a commandment about what to say and what to speak. 50 And I know that his commandment means everlasting life. So whatever I speak, I speak just as the Father has told me

with their claim of John 1:1(of which most of the modern translations have distorted the earliest reproduce of the original scriptures according To reasearch #wikipedia)

zodiakzax:
John 1:14 ..And the Word was made Flesh....

Phil 2:6-8 ...Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.


The Word became human, The Word even though was God did not make Himself equal with God but humbled himself to become a servant.... a servant unto whom? God the Father.

This is where you lots don't understand, Jesus became Man and a servant of the Father, so as servant and a man and among his own people He must fulfil the laws and to fulfil the laws he must worship and obey and do the Will of the Father above. So John 12:49-50 makes lots of sense. Jesus if carefully examined makes statement as a Man and a servant and later makes statement as God.

And whatsoever ye shall ask in my name, that will I do, that the Father may be glorified in the Son. If ye shall ask any thing in my name, I will do it.
John 14:13‭-‬14 KJV

Here JESUS taking the position of God says He will do whatever you ask on His name. Christ is capable of personally answering all prayers that are directed to him or are addressed in his name. The only way that Christ can both hear and answer all these prayers is if he is both omniscient and omnipotent.

But Jesus said


Ye have not chosen me, but I have chosen you, and ordained you, that ye should go and bring forth fruit, and that your fruit should remain: that whatsoever ye shall ask of the Father in my name, he may give it you.
John 15:16 KJV

Now we see that it's no more Jesus answering prayers addressed in his name but the Father... could Jesus have contradicted himself by saying at one point that He will answer the prayers and later say the Father will do it ? Kindly answer since I have also answered yours.


Also..

Again I say unto you, That if two of you shall agree on earth as touching any thing that they shall ask, it shall be done for them of my Father which is in heaven. For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them.
Matthew 18:19‭-‬20 KJV

Again Jesus affirms that the Father will do it and not only that Jesus also affirms that He can be every where at anytime, attributing OMNIPRESENCE to Himself. Only God is OMNIPRESENT.


Advice..

You lots should study and research about the doctrine of the trinity before jumping horses. You are all not equip with that knowledge because all you do is hearsay. Go out there and learn about it before fighting against it. It is really frustrating debating with you block heads, something so simple is twisted and twisted until finally dodged.

Crysthaniel:
concerning this matter of Jesus Answering prayers ..we should read and study what John 14:31. says
But for the world to know that I love the Father, I am doing just as the Father has COMMANDED me to do. Get up, let us go from here
we see that everything thing Jesus is doing is an assignment from Jehovah his God - Micah 5 : 4

zodiakzax:
That is not the point, the point is Jesus says He will answer prayers then again says the Father will answer prayers. So who is answering the prayers? If it's an assignment then why would the servant claim He can answer prayers something only God does... Only God can answer prayers because we pray to Him, if Jesus can answer prayers then He has to receive Prayers hence being prayed to.

zodiakzax:


Is the writer of Phil 2 the writer of Mathew 24:36?? Did the writer of Phil 2 take in account Mat 24:36 before writing about Christ?

All you have done is to compare two scriptures and conclude that because one says this the other cannot mean otherwise but here is where you are wrong. Jesus never said he was the Son of God , it was others testimony about Him that shows He was the Son of God, He always referred to Himself as the Son of man and so if Jesus should say the Son doesn't know then He's referring to the Son as Man and in the human nature he was limited. That was why He took on that Nature to die for our sins, that was why he was tired, he ate, he slept, was wounded and died... And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us.... He came as Man, and even though was God did not make Himself equal with God but humbled himself as Man and even died on the cross.

Yet again you don't read my posts I assume because i never said Nature is Substance , what I did say is nature is the inherent/basic character of something according to the dictionary you wanted us to use. And Sum and Substance was a synonym not substance alone standing as a word which I explained but false JW didn't see my explaination but was quick to use something else to support his defence.So stop forcing me to use your words..

Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they. [b]For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son?
Hebrews 1:4‭-‬5 KJV


It is clear here that Jesus is not an angel and is the [b] only begotten Son of God. Unless you have a stupid explanation to put up.. waiting for that..

Barristter07:
funny and extremely funny

That an account created on Nov 24 could say the above nonsense despite have given Standard biblical prove for the bold says a lot.
my posts are there, directly respond to them , if you have any point to say