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A VERY SIMPLE WISDOM TO RECOGNIZE THE ONLY TRUE FAITH APPROVED BY GOD.


If you do NOT believe in God OR you do NOT believe in any faith (or spiritual path), please kindly leave this thread because what is written below is NOT meant for you.


However, if you really BELIEVE in God and you really BELIEVE that there is only one faith (or spiritual path) that is approved by this God, then take your time and carefully follow the LOGICAL ANALYSIS explained below . It is a very simple and direct analysis. But if you think the analysis is wrong, please kindly state with reason(s) which of the THREE LOGICAL PREMISES explained below is not true.


Before you continue, please do not forget that we have already accepted TWO FACTS;
1 God really exist
2. There is only one faith (or spiritual path) approved by this God.

You can now proceed to read the premises cited below ;

# PREMISE 1. The original author of a book is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that book. The original author of a movie is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME or TITLE to that movie. Again, the original author or the maker of a car is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that car. Furthermore, the original author or founder of a school is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that school. Also, the original author or founder of a company is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that company. Therefore, using the same analogy, the ORIGINAL AUTHOR OR FOUNDER of a faith (or any spiritual path) is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that faith ( or spiritual path).



# PREMISE 2. Therefore, if God is really the ORIGINAL AUTHOR/ FOUNDER of any faith (or spiritual path) that has a SCRIPTURE, then as we have established above from Premise 1, giving a NAME to such a faith (or spiritual path) by God Himself in that very SCRIPTURE is exactly what we are EXPECTING


OBJECTION ; According to Premise 1, the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to everyone of us is God our creator. But our NAMES were either given by our parents or guardians. Therefore, in a much similar sense, the NAME of a faith that was authored or founded by God can also be given by the FIRST SET OF PEOPLE that believe in that faith. Hence, Premise 2 seems to be wrong.


REPLY; Yes, being our Creator, God is the right and appropriate person to give us our NAMES in accordance with Premise 1. But since God has chosen not to speak to us directly, there is no way for God to announce our NAMES to the world. Therefore, God has to put our NAMES in the minds of our parents or guardians. Hence, indirectly, it was still God (our Creator ) that give us NAMES .
But in case of faith (or spiritual path) that was authored or founded by God, there is a way for God Himself to announce its NAME directly to the world. That is, by way of revelation in the Holy scriptures. Therefore there is NOTHING wrong with premise 2.



# PREMISE 3 However, with the exception of ONLY ONE FAITH, the NAMES of all the major faiths (or spiritual paths) in the world are NO WHERE to be found in their scriptures.


Simply put, the word "HINDUISM" is no where to be found in the scriptures (i:e Vedas and Upanishads) used by the Hindus.

Again, the word "BUDDHISM" is no where to be found in the scriptures (i:e the Sutras) used by the Buddhists.

Furthermore, the word "CHRISTIANITY" is no where to be found in the scriptures (i:e the Bible) used by the Christians.

Similarly, the word "JUDAISM" is no where to be found in the scriptures (i:e the Torah) used by the Judaists.

Hence, follows from the Premise 2 explained above, this simply shows that God is NOT the original author or founder of all these faiths (or spiritual paths).


The only exception we have is ISLAM.


ISLAM is the ONLY faith on earth that satisfied the EXPECTATION made mention above in the Premise 2 . That is to say, the word "ISLAM" is found on the many pages of the scripture ( i:e the Qur'an) used by the Muslims. For example, Qur'an 5:3 read as follows;

"This day, I (God ) have perfected your faith for you, and I (God) have completed MY favour upon you, and I(God) have chosen for you ISLAM as your faith".



OBJECTION; Yes Islam seems to satisfy the expectation made mention above in the Premise 2. But how are we really sure that it was actually God (and not an impostor ) that really SPOKE this very verse of Qur'an ?


REPLY; Remember that we have already accepted two facts; God really exist and there is ONLY ONE FAITH approved by this God. So our aim is to know the only true faith approved by God (i:e the only faith that SATISFY THE EXPECTATION made mention in Premise 2).
Since Islam has satisfied this very EXPECTATION (because a verse of Qur'an contains the word "ISLAM" and the verse SEEMS [ i:e appear outwardly and contextually ] to be coming directly from God's mouth) and all other faiths do not satisfy the same expectation, then we have already achieved our aim. Therefore, whether the speaker in the Qur'an is actually God or not does not concern us.

Knowing the identity of the speaker in the Qur'an ( i:e knowing whether Qur'an is really the word of God or not) is another topic on its own which is quite different from the topic we are treating in this analysis. If the topic we are treating in this analysis is "knowing whether Qur'an is really the word of God or not", then the atheists would not be asked to leave the thread at the beginning.
So the analysis is not actually meant to prove that Qur'an is the word of God.The analysis is only meant to show that if God really exist and there is only one faith approved by this God, then this faith could not have been any other faith except ISLAM. Hope it is clear !


If the NAME of the faith embraced by the Muslims is not Islam but "muhammedanism" (which is analogous to Christianity, Judaism, Hinduism, Buddhism and others), then the faith of the Muslims would not be qualified again to be the only true faith approved by God. This is because the word "Muhammedanism" is no where to be found in the Qur'an.

But God Almighty Himself has carefully coined the word "ISLAM" so that Islam would continue to remain as the NAME of only faith that ever came from God.

The word "Islam" means ; submission to the will of God (see Qur'an 2:112). Those who submit in this manner are called Muslims (i:e submitters to the will of God).

Therefore, logically speaking, Abraham, Moses, Jesus, Isaac, Jacob and the likes can be called Muslims (i:e submitters to the will of God) without any problem. Hence, we can say conveniently that they practice Islam (i:e they submit to the will of one true God).


Hence, Islam is not the religion of the Qur'an alone, nor is the name of a faith started by prophet Muhammad. Rather, ISLAM (i:e submission to God's will) is the NAME of the faith ever brought by all the true prophets of God. However, the ceremonial content of this ISLAM may differ slightly from one prophet to another just like the syllabus contents of Mathematics differ slightly from one school level to another.

Please read more about Tabligh jamat who used to preach from mosque to mosque. They are the only group who seriously implement the command of Allah in Qur'an 3:104.

"Let there arise out of you a band of people inviting to all that is good, enjoining what is right, and forbidding what is wrong: They are the ones to attain FELICITY"

If you are opportuned to be in their gathering, spent some time with them and you will see the real benefits of Islam that you are yet to witness

Even if you are not going to answer the three questions please answer this one;

Now that ALL the angels and past generations of human being have SEEN the evil work done by Satan, why did God still spare his life till today ? Eating of forbidden fruits is not the ONLY way that God can use to terminate the existence of his creatures. Or is it ?

@maximus 69


1. Freewill is the ability to choose between two or more options. Now if this ability is TOTALLY (and not partially) in the control of ALL intelligent creatures (like humans, demons and the angels) then why is it sometimes impossible for the ADDICTS to simply change their ways for the better even after learning the HARMS they have incurred from such addiction? Those who engaged in taking drugs or watching pornography always find it VERY DIFFICULT to change even if they seriously determined to do so. If the ability to choose between right and wrongs is TOTALLY in their control, then to discard this habit should not be difficult for them.
The wisdom behind the punishment legislated by Sharia is to create a "FEAR" in the minds of people who may also want to engage in such bad habit; Not necessarily meant to PUNISH the offender. However, this wisdom works for some people and it does not for others because the ability to choose between right and wrong is not TOTALLY in the control of human beings. It also depend on what God has ORDAINED LONG AGO( 2Kings 19:25 NIV, Qur'an 57:22). So what Satan will do by his freewill is already in the "knowledge" of God because He has ordained it even before his creation.
2. If it is true that some angels also acquired their selfish inclinations, then it was Satan that deceived them just like he deceived Adam, his wife and their Children till today.
3. Now that ALL the angels and past generations of human being have SEEN the evil work done by Satan, why did God still spare his life till today ? Eating of forbidden fruits is not the ONLY way that God can use to terminate the existence of his creatures. Or is it ? So claiming that Satan and other evil creatures did not eat from the fruits is the SOLE REASON for their prolonged lives till today is NOT TRUE. Therefore, God' sparing the life of Satan till today implies the will of God for good and evil to co- exist in this world ( Isaiah 45:7 KJV) . But in the Paradise, only good will exist.
In fact, according to the book of Genesis, our death on earth is not caused by eating of forbidden fruits. The main reason for our death on earth is because we are created from dust and we have to RETURN to that dust. See the evidence below;
"By the sweat of your brow you will eat your food UNTIL YOU RETURN TO THE GROUND, SINCE FROM IT YOU WERE TAKEN; FOR DUST YOU ARE, AND TO DUST YOU WILL RETURN ( Genesis 3:19).
The ONLY consequence of eating the forbidden fruits mentioned in the book of Genesis as far as humans are concerned are " painful child births and eating of foods by hard labour " ( see Genesis 3:16-17). There is no mentioning of 'death or our sinful nature'. It was later invented by Paul.

@ Sagenaija
1. There is no any record in the Qur'an or Hadith that Allah will reject the Muslims on the last day who faithfully perform their works sincerely for His sake.
2. Allah commanded the prophet and his companions to raid the caravans as a REVENGE to what the non- believers in Mecca have seized of their goods and properties after their emigration from Mecca to Medina.
3. Bring an authentic evidence either from Qur'an or Hadith to prove that the prophet was a rapist. Except Aisha, almost all the women he married are widow. If he really liked to womanize, why going for the old instead of young women who has never get married ?
4. The portion of Qur'anic verses that are not entirely clear is far less significant in number compared to those that are entirely clear. Therefore, it is still a clear book. In fact, the presence of such unclear verses in the Qur'an points to its divine origin because no human being would write a book and decided to insert some things that he himself cannot explain.
5. When you go through the pages of hadith, you will see the love that companions have for the prophet till extent of dying to defend his life in the battle field. They spent all their time with him. If they knew him as a bad person, do you think they would be ready to sacrifice their lives for him.
Yes, if we are able to prove Christianity to be FALSE, then Islam must be TRUE. This is because if both Christianity and Islam were to be false and both Judaism and Hinduism are not within our reach, then God would have failed completely to disseminate his message to the humanity ( May God be glorified and exalted above such behavior)

@Maximus 69

Based on your submission above, I want to ask you some questions;

1. If Satan was originally created by God as a perfect and righteous angel, then why did he suddenly CHANGE and began to acquire a selfish inclination and then become the worst of the creatures ? Remember that for every CHANGE, there must be a CAUSE.


2. Why did such a CHANGE from a perfect and righteous angel to a bad one happened ONLY to Satan out of MANY angels living in heaven at that time?


3. When God discovered that Satan has changed from righteous angel to an evil creature, then why did God not terminate his existence before the creation of Adam since it was not in God's original plan for such evil creature to exist ?

Yes God created human being with free wills. But these free wills cannot go beyond what God has already ordained. That is to say our free wills are still subjected to God's command.

But let me ask you again; If God only planned for good things and not evil things, then why did
He create Satan in the first place ?

@ Sagenaija

Don't lump things together. Take your time to respond to my LAST TWELVE points I used to counter your former argument. I will wait for you.

@ maximus69

If you think Isaiah 46:10 is not enough to prove that God has predestined all things, then here is another verse;

"Have you not heard? LONG AGO I ORDAINED it. In days of old I planned it; now I have brought it to pass, that you have turned fortified cities into piles of stone. 2Kings 19:25" .


Please tell us the difference between "PREDESTINATION" and the phrase " LONG AGO I ORDAINED IT".


Despite the fact that Bible affirmed that God is All- powerful( Jeremiah 32:27, Matthew 19:26 ) and God is All- knowing( 1st John 3:20) you still deny these attributes simply because you believe that God is not the ULTIMATE AUTHOR OF EVIL.


But if God is not the ultimate author of evil, why did He create Satan in the first place ?


If God ONLY planned good things and not evil things as you claimed, then why did God declare as follows;


I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and CREATE EVIL : I the LORD do ALL these things. (Isaiah 45:7 KJV)

Now that you have seen how Bible also supported the teaching of predestination like Qur'an, would you now leave Christianity for atheism ? Honestly you are confused!

So your God is different from God of Bible for the God of Bible says as follows;

I make known the end from the beginning, from ancient times, what is still to come. I say: My purpose will stand, and I will do all that I please (Isaiah 46:10). If God make THE END TO BE KNOWN FROM THE BEGINNING, then is this not predestination?

Whenever our hearts condemn us. For God is greater than our hearts, and He KNOWS EVERYTHING (1st John 3:20). If according to this verse, God knows everything, then is God not omniscient ?

See how you are making MOCKERY of God by saying that there is no PREDESTINATION ! If there is no predestination, then God would be IGNORANT about what is going to happen in the future. Yet one of the great attributes of God is OMNISCIENCE .That is to say God is All-knowing. Have you now see your ignorance about the concept of God ?
Oh! I can now see why you left the light for darkness

By the way why did you decide to respond to first part of my post(Qur'an 10:96-97) and neglect the other part ( those four premises of argument) ?

@ maximus 69

Then why can't you also sleep at home knowing fully well that what would you achieve or become in this world has already been JUSTIFIED AND DESTINED BY God ?

@ UceeGod
At least you must agree that Premise 1 and Premise 4 are true. Therefore, in the same manner, Premise 2 and Premise 3 must either be true or false whether they are philosophical assumptions or not.
You should be able tell us your position (with reason) regarding these two premesis unless you want to run away from reality.
What you fail to understand is that when you have different FAITHS each claiming to be on the right spiritual path, then there is no way for a NEUTRAL MAN to decide which one to embrace unless he employed his " ONLY INSTRUMENT" (i:e his logical reasoning) given to him by God. This is exactly the reason why God must design the true spirituality in such a way that it would not be in conflict with the basic logical reasoning He bestowed upon a NEUTRAL MAN. In other words, a "true spirituality" must AGREE with "basic logical reasoning" since they both originate from the same source ( i:e God).
So in the light of what is written above, there is no need for you to go into the spiritual concept before you can defend your faith. If your faith is really from God then You must be able to defend it using a basic logical reasoning that God has given to a NEUTRAL MAN.
But let it be clear to you that there is no way you can defend Christianity with basic logical reasoning that God has bestowed upon a NEUTRAL MAN. This is because Christianity is totally in conflict with our basic logical reasoning.
For example; Through our logical reasoning, God is naturally known to ALWAYS BLESS AND NEVER TO CURSE AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL for any particular target; just like God is naturally known to ALWAYS TELL THE TRUTH AND NEVER TO COMMIT AN ACT OF LYING for any particular target
But Christianity want us to believe that it is possible for God to CURSE an innocent and righteous soul (see Deuteronomy 21:23 and Galatians 3:13) in order to achieve a particular target (like solving the problem of sin with humanity)
See the contradiction between Christianity and human logical reasoning! This simply shows that Christianity is not true. This is because a "true spirituality" MUST AGREE with "basic logical reasoning" given to all human being as we have established above.

@Sagenaija


1. The two concepts are not comparable because on the issue of paying the bail for the offenders, NO DIRECT PHYSICAL PAIN OR SPIRITUAL PAIN ( CURSE; Deut 21:23) is inflicted on the philanthropist who decided to pay the bail for the offenders.


2. But God has been forgiving His people BEFORE the Cross and WITHOUT any slightest hint of the Cross ( see Ezekiel 18:20-22, Isaiah 55:7, Jeremiah 36:3 Ezekiel 33:10-16, 1st Kings 8:46-50, 2nd Chronicles 7:14, Jonah 3:5-10, Exodus 30:15-16, Numbers 31:50, Daniel 4:27, Psalms 78:36-39, Isaiah 43:23-25).
So cross does not make any divine forgiveness to be possible.


3. But Bible make it clear that sin of the FINITE Adam cannot be transferred upon his Children (Deuteronomy 24:16, Ezekiel 18:18-19). So your argument crumbles from beginning.


4. The devil is very wise; If he were to tell you directly that sin should continue, then his plot would be exposed immediately. But there is no way for the devil to "cover up" the logical implication of atonement of sin through Jesus crucifixion I:e the FREEDOM to commit sin. Of course, if Jesus has already punished for all the sins of the Christians, then they should utilize this opportunity to indulge in more sins since they would not be punished again.


5. Even if Jesus volunteered himself to die for our sins, it was still God that STARTED the whole plan. Therefore, this does not remove the logical contradiction inherent in the way of God who says "a righteous soul MUST NOT BE KILLED" and later contradict Himself by saying again " a righteous soul (Jesus) MUST BE KILLED" before the humanity can be saved.


6. Taking the decision to pay the bail of the offenders is not a sinful act. But deliberate killing of innocent and righteous soul (like Jesus) on the cross is a SINFUL ACT; otherwise God would not have forbidden it( Exodus 20:13). The only way for atonement of sin in Christianity to be saved from being called a SINFUL ACT was for Jesus to die NATURALLY on a sick bed without being killed by anyone.


7. If God let human history to run its course, then in what way has humanity benefited from atonement of sin through Jesus crucifixion ?



8. But why not Jesus prayed for the STRENGTH that would enable him to bear the task instead of praying for the cup to be taken away ? Again, If Jesus has chosen to do it in conformity with the Father' will, then why the lamentation on the cross(Matthew 27:46) after the task has already been done?



9. But it is going to be a WASTE OF RESOURCES for the payment of the bail to be made if the Person whom the offenders offended has already declared that he would be satisfied by the act of REPENTANCE displayed by the offenders (see Ezekiel 18:21-23).


10. But is it RATIONAL for the Judge to inflict a CURSE (Galatians 3:13) upon his OWN innocent and righteous son simply because he wanted to accept the bail payment of the offenders ?



11. But if Jesus already knew that he would later asked the apostles to make disciples of ALL NATIONS (Matthew 28:19), then why did he tell the woman that he was SENT ONLY to the Jews( Matthew 15:24) ? Suppose you are being asked to distribute a packet of sweet to some children in your vicinity WITH AN INSTRUCTION TO START WITH THE MALE CHILDREN BEFORE THE FEMALE. Now one of the female children approaches you for the collection of her own sweet. Please before God and man would you say; " I WAS ONLY ASKED TO GIVE THE MALE" ? Of course, you would not utter such kind of statement. You would definitely say "IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE FEMALE" or "WAIT FOR YOU TURN".
Similarly, if it was already in the divine plan that JESUS AND HIS APOSTLES WOULD PREACH TO THE JEWS FIRST AND THEN TO ALL THE GENTILES, then Jesus' statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”.



12. If God's means of salvation is NOT WORKS but FAITH, then what do you have to say about the biblical verses below?
James 2:14-17: "What use is it, my brethren, if someone says he has faith but he has no WORKS ? Can that faith save him? If a brother or sister is without clothing and in need of daily food, and one of you says to them, “Go in peace, be warmed and be filled,” and yet you do not give them what is necessary for their body, what use is that? Even so faith, if it has no WORKS, is dead, being by itself".





This is why CHRISTIANITY stands on a very shaky ground and why NO CHRISTIAN cannot be sure of his salvation if he continued to believe in atonement of sin through Jesus crucifixion!







.

@ Maximus69
If it is an act of INJUSTICE for God to FREELY forgive the sinners that He Himself has created in such manner, then is it not a GREATER ACT OF INJUSTICE for the same God to physically and spiritually condemn(Galatians 3:13) an innocent and righteous soul for the sins he did not commit ?
When you take off the BLINDERS that are blocķing your view, you will realize that the present-day Christianity does not make any sense!

@UceeGod and Maximus69


Truly, those upon whom the word of God has been justified will not believe even if ALL THE SIGNS should come to them- until they see a painful torment (Qur'an 10:96-97)



However, let me just to try for the last time to help you see how Christianity get it wrong based on its doctrine of sin atonement through Jesus crucifixion ;


Premise 1; Atonement of sin through Jesus crucifixion is the ONLY SALVATION PLAN that God has designed for humanity .


Premise 2; Hence, the people who made this divine plan (i:e Jesus crucifixion) to be POSSIBLE (like Judas Iscariot who betrayed Jesus Christ and those who allegedly crucified him) has done a VERY GOOD JOB in the eyes of God who initiated the salvation plan and in the eyes of humanity who would benefit from this plan


Premise 3; Therefore, these people (i:e Judas Iscariot and his colleagues) really deserve THANKS and KUDOS from God and humanity ;

Of course a commissioner of police, who secretly release some armed robbers from their life imprisonment, deserve thanks and kudos from the robbers. Even if the robbers knew that what the commissioner has done is against the law, they will still give kudos and thanks to him. This is because their release from life imprisonment is far more important in the eyes of the robbers; just like salvation of humanity is far more important in the eyes of God and humanity.


Premise 4; But we know for sure that BETRAYERS and MURDERERS of an innocent and righteous soul (like Judas Iscariot and his colleagues) do not deserve any thanks and kudos from God and humanity .

Since there is inevitable CONTRADICTION between the Premise 3 and Premise 4, therefore, it follows that if Premise 4 is true then Premise 3 must not be true .

And if Premise 3 is not true then Premise 2 is also not true (this is because if Premise 2 is true, then Premise 3 must also be true).

Similarly, if Premise 2 is not true, then Premise 1 is also not true (this is because if Premise 1 is true, then Premise 2 must also be true ) .

And if Premise 1 is not true, then Christianity is also not true( this is because Christianity ASSUME Premise 1 to be true) .


Now tell us what is wrong with this analysis. In other word, which of the FOUR PREMISES explained above is logically not correct ?


If both of you are very sure that Christianity is true, then point out, with LOGICAL REASON, the premise that is not correct among the four premises cited above

@UceeGod


1. John7:9 you cited is irrelevant to topic of discussion.

John 14:26 says; But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in My name, He will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all things that I said to you.


Now tell us the difference between the "Holy spirit" mentioned above and the "Spirit of the LORD" made mentioned in the following verses of Old Testament;


The SPIRIT of the LORD came upon him, so that he became Israel's judge and went to war. The LORD gave Cushan-Rishathaim king of Aram into the hands of Othniel, who overpowered him. Judges 3:10


When they arrived at Gibeah, a procession of prophets met him; the SPIRIT of God came upon him in power, and he joined in their prophesying. 1st Samuel 10:10


Then the LORD came down in the cloud and spoke to him, and He took some of the SPIRIT that was on Moses and placed that Spirit on the seventy elders. As the Spirit rested on them, they prophesied Numbers 11:25


Then the SPIRIT of the LORD came on Gideon, and he blew a trumpet, summoning the Abiezrites to follow him.Judges 6:34



And the SPIRIT of the LORD came upon him, and he went down to Ashkelon, and slew thirty men of them, and took their spoil, and gave change of garments unto them which expounded the riddle. And his anger was kindled, and he went up to his father's house. Judges 14:19



2. Genesis 22:14 says; So Abraham called that place The LORD Will Provide. And to this day it is said, "On the mountain of the LORD it will be provided."
So where is the hint in this verse that Abraham was looking forward to ultimate sacrifice of Jesus on the Cross for salvation of humanity ?
Again you wrote ;
"and it pointed to the ultimate sacrifice when God would provide Himself(Christ), not an angel or a mere man but God Himself to save and redeem us"
Are you saying Jesus is God?
This is another problem in Christianity.
In John 20:17, Jesus was reported to have said “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, and to my God and your God”. If Jesus is God Almighty, then which God was he referring to when he said ; "my God and your God" ? Can God Almighty have another God?
Also Luke 6:12 says "He (Jesus) went out to the mountain side to pray, and continued all night in prayer to God" .
If Jesus is God, who was he praying to? Was he praying to himself ?
Mark 10:17-18 says as follows ; "Now as He was going out on the road, one came running, knelt before Him, and asked Him, “Good Teacher, what shall I do that I may inherit eternal life?” So Jesus said to him, “Why do you call Me good? No one is good but One, that is, God.”.
If Jesus is God, why did he reject being called “good” and then submit that all goodness belongs only to God?
Again, in Matthew 24:36, Jesus said; “But of that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the son, but ONLY THE FATHER”.
If Jesus is God, why did he confess his lack of knowledge about the Day of Judgment and then submit that the knowledge of that day belongs only to the Father? Can God be lacking anything as regard to knowledge ?


3. If the tearing of temple curtain implies the abrogation of Old Testament Laws, then Jesus has CONTRADICTED his original sayings for He said;
17. DO NOT THINK I CAME TO DESTROY THE LAW or the (way of the) PROPHETS. I did not come to destroy but to fulfill. 18. For assuredly, I say to you,TILL HEAVEN AND THE EARTH PASS AWAY, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled. 19. WHOSEVER THEREFORE shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven. (Matthew 5:17-19)
(Please see how the phrase "WHOSOEVER THEREFORE " connects the three verses together. This implies that the "law or ( the way of) the prophets " talking about in verse 17 is the same thing with the "commandments " made mention in verse 19.
Hence, from these very verses , we learnt that any person that UPHOLD the law (i:e the commandments) and ask people to do the same shall be called GREAT in the kingdom of heaven. And any person that SET ASIDE the law and ask people to do the same shall be called the LEAST in the kingdom of heaven. Therefore, it is totally a WRONG interpretation to proclaim that Jesus came to fulfil the law by his sacrificial death on the cross .


In another place,it is written as follows;
It is easier for heaven and earth to disappear than for the least stroke of a pen to drop out of the LAW (Luke 16:17 NIV).


In fact, when Jesus commanded the disciples to do everything preached by the teachers of the law, he did not say this command will be for a short period of time. He said
"The TEACHERS OF THE LAW and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat. So you must be careful to DO EVERYTHING they tell you. But do not do what they do, for they do not practice what they preach (Matthew 23:1-3 NIV)" .
Is there any indication in this verse that this command will end after Jesus ascension to heaven ? Certainly not!

@ UceeGod


Based on your submission written above, I want to ask you the following questions;

1. Can you show us any biblical verse to prove that Abraham did not have such spiritual and personal relationship with God- the relationship that you believe to be possible ONLY through Christ- ?

2. Can you show us a single verse from the Old Testament to prove that Abraham, Moses and the likes were looking forward to Jesus' sacrifice on the Cross ?


3. If the latter covenant brought by Jesus was based on faith through GRACE and not through OBEDIENCE TO THE LAW as you think, then what do you have to say about Jesus' statement quoted below ?

"The TEACHERS OF THE LAW and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat. So you must be careful to DO EVERYTHING they tell you. But do not do what they do, for they do not practice what they preach (Matthew 23:1-3 NIV)" .

@ UceeGod
What do you mean by "No one was able to reconcile himself back to God before Christ" ? Do you even know the meaning of 'reconciliation' ? Reconciliation means ; the reestablishment of FRIENDLY relations.
Now see how God called Abraham His friend;
"But you, Israel, are My servant,Jacob whom I have chosen,The descendants of Abraham My FRIEND (Isaiah 41:7-9)

What actually made Abraham to enjoy such a cordial relationship with God ? Was it because of redemption through Christ ? Was it because of GRACE through his FAITH in Christ ? Was it because of his belief in the atoning work of Christ on the Cross? No, no and no!

It was because of his constancy in obeying and keeping the law and commandments of God;

"I will make your descendants as numerous as the stars in the sky and will give them all these lands, and through your offspring all nations on earth will be blessed, because Abraham obeyed me and kept my requirements, my commands, my decrees and my laws." (Genesis 26:4-5)

@ UceeGod


You wrote;


"The FALLen nature of man caused a disconnect between him and his Creator because the spirit has become dead to God so that the natural man can only resort to his own mind(part of the soul) to connect to God through religion, hence the need for redemption through Christ.".


My reply;

If the spirit of a natural man has become dead to God due to fallen nature of man and hence there is need for redemption through Christ, then how exactly did Old Testament saints (like Moses, Abraham and others)who have lived and died BEFORE the arrival of Christ make their reconciliation back to God during their life time ? If these Children of Adam were able to make their reconciliation back to God during their life time WITHOUT redemption through Christ, then Christ is not the only way. Do you agree ?

Just leave them . They will soon come to know.
If the God of the Bible does not think like men, then why the Bible says God created man in his own image ? If the God of the Bible can glorify Himself through the most foolish things of the world, then why did God give us brain which tends to reject the foolish things of the world?

To see further that Paul is wrong in his claim; suppose you are invited by a friend to accept a religious faith that is very rich in spirituality. But one of its unique and fundamental doctrines you must embrace wholeheartedly is that you have to believe that God MUST commit an act of LYING ( i:e to deliberately say something that is false ) for a short period of time in order for God to achieve a particular target (May God be Exalted and glorified above such behavior). Now consider the following questions;
1. Would you just accept such faith because of its spiritual richness or reject it because of its foolishness to your logical reasoning?
2. Would you not ask about the actual connections that exist between tha particular target and the act of lying that must be committed by God before the target can be achieved?
3. Would you not ask why All- knowing and Omnipotent God decided, at first instance, to give preference for such irrational way of LYING over many rational ways He can design and create from His infinite knowledge and unlimited power to achieve that particular target?
4. Would you just accept that the way of such a LYING God is higher and complex than your way ?
5. Would you just fold your arms and accept that the foolishness of such a LYING God is wiser than the wisdom of all men ( 1st Corinthians 1:25 )?

Now ponder over the five questions cited above and then tell me the difference between this imaginary faith which proclaim that God MUST commit an act of LYING for a short period of time in order for God to achieve a particular target and the Christian faith which also proclaim that God MUST CURSE (see Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23 ) an innocent and righteous soul (like Jesus Christ) for a short period of time on the cross of Calvary in order for God to achieve a particular target (like solving the problem of sin with humanity or rescuing the humanity from bondage of Satan).

Therefore, if you reject this imaginary faith because of its foolishness to your logical reasoning, then you must also reject Christianity since the two faiths are telling us to believe the exact opposite of what we naturally know about God through our logical reasoning. As God is naturally known to ALWAYS TELL THE TRUTH AND NEVER TO COMMIT AN ACT OF LYING for any particular target; He is also naturally known to ALWAYS BLESS AND NEVER TO CURSE AN INNOCENT AND RIGHTEOUS SOUL for any particular target.
God may allow an innocent and righteous soul to SUFFER (I:e to be physically condemned) for one reason or the other. But God would never CURSE( i:e to spiritually condemn) an innocent and righteous soul (like Jesus Christ) for any reason whatsoever; even for a shortest period of time.
In fact, Paul himself knew very well that it is totally IRRATIONAL to believe that Jesus was ACCURSED by God. This is the reason why he contradicts his original submission ( Galatians 3:13 ) by saying again in another place ; "Therefore, I want you to understand that no one speaking by the Spirit of God calls Jesus ACCURSED !” (1st Corinthians 12:3).
Yet the ONLY WAY for Jesus not to become "accursed" was for him NOT to die on the cross since it is clearly written in the the same Bible that EVERYONE that is crucified is accursed by God (Deuteronomy 21:23, Galatians 3:13 ).

@ UceeGod


But if Paul's assertion is really true, why would God of reason ( see Isaiah 1:18) ask a natural man to believe and accept a fundamental spiritual doctrine that cannot be understood by him ( 1st Corinthians 2:14 ) and completely foolish to his logical reasoning especially when that reasoning is the ONLY INSTRUMENT at his disposal to recognize that true spirituality in the midst of many fake spiritualities?

If there is only one spirituality in the entire world of human being, then Paul may be right in his claim. But there are many spiritualities like Christianity, Islam, Hinduism, Buddhism, Judaism, Confucianism, Jainism, Zoroastrianism, Baha’ism, Taoism and Sikhism. Since each of these spiritualities is claiming to be on the right path, it is now left for any natural man to use the only instrument ( i:e his logical reasoning) given to him by God to recognize the true spirituality in the midst of many fake spiritualities. This is exactly the reason why God must design the true spirituality in such a way that all its basic and fundamental doctrines would not be in conflict with the basic logical reasoning He bestowed upon a natural man. A fundamental true spiritual doctrine may support or be neutral to basic logical reasoning bestowed upon natural man; but they will never be in conflict with each other. How could true spirituality designed by God and basic logical reasoning originated from the same God be in conflict with each other? If they can be in conflict with each other, then how can a natural man decide whether to accept or reject a true spiritual faith in the midst of many fake spiritual faiths?

Have you now seen how Paul got it wrong by asserting that “the natural man does not receive the things of the spirit, for they are foolishness to him”? Is true spirituality not meant to be accepted and embraced by natural man? Now that it is foolishness to him; how is he going to accept and embrace it?

@ 2special

Thanks! We have been doing that on another platform

THIRTEEN logical reasons why Atonement of sin through Jesus crucifixion cannot be true;


1. It is an act of great INJUSTICE and CRUELTY to punish an innocent and righteous person for the sins he did not commit.
The case of a soldier risking his live on the battle field in order to save the lives of others from THE ENEMY is TOTALLY DIFFERENT from the case of an omnipotent father who accept that his only righteous and beloved son MUST BE PUNISHED before he can forgive and ultimately save his adopted children from his OWN punishment ( NOT from the punishment of the ENEMY like the case of a soldier ).

2. Atonement of Sin through Jesus crucifixion leaves no room for REAL divine forgiveness . If God must compulsorily punish someone for our sins, then has He really and truly forgiven anyone ?

3. The finite suffering and temporary death of one soul (for three days and three nights) is DISPROPORTIONATE to the infinite suffering and permanent death of many in the fire of hell. A sacrifice means losing something PERMANENTLY. Of course, all the animals used for atonement sacrifice in the Old testament did not come back to life. However, Jesus lost NOTHING at the end. He came back to life three days later good as new. So, in effect, there was no any sacrifice.

4. The grace of perfect satisfaction of sin through Jesus crucifixion would appear to confer on the Christians a FREEDOM to commit sin without any consequence.

5. It makes God to be an author of contradiction in the sense that God Almighty who says: "An innocent and righteous human being MUST NOT be deliberately killed (Exodus 20:13, Matthew 19:18)" LATER CONTRADICT HIMSELF by saying again: "An innocent and righteous human being ( Jesus) MUST be deliberately killed on the cross of Calvary" before the humanity can be entitled to His salvation.

6. Atonement of sin through Jesus crucifixion is tantamount to washing away one sinful act with ANOTHER SINFUL act that is much more greater . After all, if Adam's eating the forbidden fruit was enough to condemn all the future generations of human being, then would not the brutal killing of the innocent and righteous son of God on the cross by the Children of Adam do the same and even much, much more?
One sinful act ( which itself also need atonement) can never atone for another sinful act. Here is the analogy;
Can the act of theft committed by a Servant against the King be ERASED by the raping of the only King's daughter by the Children of the same Servant ?
It is only an act of pure righteousness ( which itself does not need any atonement) that can atone for sinful acts.

7. NOTHING SEEMS TO HAVE CHANGED since the Crucifixion, both in the Christian and non-Christian worlds. If, according to Christianity, Jesus crucifixion really atoned for the sins of the sinful humanity originated from the disobedience of Adam and his wife then, after the crucifixion; Did tendency to commit sin stop to pass on to the children being born by Christian parents ? Was the punishment prescribed for the Sin abolished ? Did those who believed in Jesus Christ as the ‘Son of God’, if they were women, stop to have painful childbirth (Genesis 3:16) ? Did the believing men start earning their livelihood without exerting manual labour (Genesis 3:17-19) ? If the answer to all of these questions were to be ‘yes,’ then of course there would be some justification in seriously contemplating the Christian philosophy of Sin and Atonement. But Alas, the answer to all these questions are no, no, no and no.
Therefore, If nothing seems to have changed since the Crucifixion, both in the Christian and non-Christian worlds, then what would now be the effect or benefit of sin atonement ?

8. If it is true that Jesus has volunteered himself to die for our sins, then why did he pray so FERVENTLY asking for the crucifixion to be TAKEN AWAY from him not in one time but in THREE different consecutive times (see Matthew 26:36-44) ? If Jesus had truly and willingly laid down his life in heaven to die for our sin, then he must have been prepared by God both physically and spiritually for this great task. In that case, there would be no need for that blood- sweating prayer in the Garden of Gethsemane (Luke 22:44). Even if we assume that Jesus must pray because of the FLESH that is WEAK, then that prayer should definitely be for the "STRENGTH" that will enable him to bear the task. It should NOT be for the cup of crucifixion to be TAKEN AWAY from him.
Furthermore, if Jesus had VOLUNTEERED to laid down his life in heaven, then why did he have to LAMENT on the cross by saying allegedly;
"My God, my God, why have you FORSAKEN me? (Matthew 27:46)".
Does this sound like the voice of a someone who has VOLUNTEERED himself to die for our sins? Certainly not !

9. It is impossible for the righteous to bear the sins of the sinners. Each sinner has to bear and then atone for his own sin through SINCERE REPENTANCE from his sinful ways and then embarking on the acts of RIGHTEOUSNESS. See the evidence directly from God's mouth;
"The righteousness of the righteous shall be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon himself. But if a wicked man TURNS (i:e REPENTS) from all his sins which he has committed, keeps all My statutes, and does what is lawful and right, he shall surely live; he shall not die. NONE OF THE TRANSGRESSIONS which he has committed shall be remembered against him; Because of the RIGHTEOUSNESS which he has done, HE SHALL LIVE. Do I have any pleasure at all that the wicked should die?” says the Lord God, “and not that he should TURN FROM HIS WAYS AND LIVE ? (Ezekiel 18:20-23)".

10. It is totally IRRATIONAL for an innocent, righteous and beloved SON of a merciful and omnipotent FATHER to be under the CURSE of the same father !!!
A good Father is naturally known to always BLESS and never to CURSE his own righteous and beloved son for any reason whatsoever;
Even Paul knew very well that it is IRRATIONAL to believe that Jesus was ACCURSED by God. This is the reason why he contradicts himself by saying as follows;
"Therefore, I want you to understand that no one speaking by the Spirit of God calls Jesus ACCURSED !” (1st Corinthians 12:3).
Yet the ONLY WAY for Jesus not to become "accursed" was for him NOT to die on the cross since it is clearly written in the the same Bible that ANYONE that is crucified is accursed by God (Deuteronomy 21:23, Galatians 3:13)

11. Jesus was not sent to the entire world to die for our sins. By his own admission: I was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of Israel (Matthew 15:24 NIV ).
Why did Jesus have to say such a statement if he was truly sent for the benefit of both the Jews and the Gentiles ? Even if we assume that there was a certain factor at that very moment RESTRICTING his mission to the Jews, then Jesus should have simply told that Canaanite woman; IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:22-24).

12. No matter how numerous the spiritual benefits that can be derived from Jesus crucifixion, there is no way for such benefits to be ACTUALIZED in the life of the Old Testament believers (like Abraham, Isaac, Jacob,Moses, Isaiah, Jeremiah etc) because they have lived and died before Jesus arrival . Yet these people manage to earn their salvation and reconcilation back to God (because there is no any biblical verse that says these Old Testament Saints were in a certain state of condemnation after their death until the time of Jesus crucifixion). So if these old testament believers, who happened to be among the children of Adam, were able to gain their salvation without Jesus crucifixion, then there is alternative way also for the other children of Adam to gain their salvation WITHOUT Jesus crucifixion. Hence there is no need for atonement of sin through Jesus crucifixion.



13. If atonement of sin through Jesus crucifixion is the ONLY WAY to our salvation, then without any doubt, the people who made the crucifixion to be possible (like Judas Iscariot who betrayed Jesus Christ and those who allegedly crucified him) did a very good job and they really deserve our KUDOS and HONOUR. But does it make any iota of sense to give kudos and honour to BETRAYER and MURDERER of an innocent and righteous soul ? See the contradiction!


The atoning work of Christ on the cross of Calvary is one of the FOUNDATIONAL PILLARS upon which the edifice of Christianity is erected . Even when the whole of Christendom disagree on some certain issues like Trinity and Jesus' divinty, they still all agree on the atonement of sin through Jesus crucifixion. Therefore, if atonement of sin through Jesus crucifixion can be shown to be wrong as we have just done, then Christianity as a whole is not true.

Jewish Christianity versus Pauline Christianity

Unknown to most Christians, the early Christian church had two distinct divisions or denominations. One was organized by the Jewish followers of Jesus, his disciples, and close associates. The other was headed by Paul and his mostly non-Jewish followers.
The Jewish followers of Jesus were led by Jesus’ brother James. This group did not view Jesus as being divine, which would be unquestionably contrary to the Jewish faith, but rather a prophet setting the stage for the coming of the new kingdom of Israel to be established on earth. They viewed the empty tomb as evidence that God has resurrected Jesus into heaven. But before that, they were certainly disillusioned by the crucifixion because it was not an expected outcome of Jesus’s mission. After all, Jesus had just been defeated by the very forces he intended to overcome.
With the belief in a resurrection, Jesus’ closest followers were refocused to continue to follow his gospel, and to expect a quick fulfillment. They were based in Jerusalem and had some success in recruiting new followers for several decades after the crucifixion.
In contrast, Paul viewed Jesus as being both a human and the divine savior of all mankind.
Instead of the Jewish concept of a human messiah reigning over a restored kingdom of Israel, Paul envisioned a heavenly kingdom that was open to all peoples with admittance predicated simply on accepting Jesus as a personal savior, and without any obligation to perform good works.
For obvious reasons, a conflict developed between Paul and the original apostles, which shows up in the book of Acts and Galatians. When Jerusalem was destroyed by the Romans in 70 AD the Jewish Christians in Jerusalem were decimated. This eliminated the opposition to the gospel of Paul, which then became the template for the new religion of Christianity. The New Testament books (with exceptions like book of James )were written by followers of Paul after the destruction of Jerusalem. They were fashioned to support this new gospel, including statements added to make it appear that Jesus saw himself in the role as envisioned by Paul. This is the reason why the epistles written by Paul predate the four gospels.
Paul reversed the Jewish theology by viewing Jesus as a god-man and viewing his death as a final sacrifice for the propitiation of sins, making unnecessary any further animal sacrifices that were standard rituals in the Jewish temples.
Conventional Christianity has adopted the concept that a person is saved by faith in Jesus and that deeds and actions don’t have much or any impact on your eternal destination. One of the scriptures that confirms this doctrine is Ephesians 2:8-9:
"For by GRACE you have been saved through FAITH; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God; not as a result of works, so that no one may boast".
But the opposite message is presented in James 2:14-17:
"What use is it, my brethren, if someone says he has faith but he has no WORKS ? Can that faith save him? If a brother or sister is without clothing and in need of daily food, and one of you says to them, “Go in peace, be warmed and be filled,” and yet you do not give them what is necessary for their body, what use is that? Even so faith, if it has no WORKS, is dead, being by itself".
This contradiction hits at the core of Christian theology. And what is written in James’s epistle is far more likely to be in alignment with the philosophy of Jesus because it was written by one of the Jewish followers of Jesus as opposed to Paul or one of his followers. The epistles of James were likely written to refute the doctrine that was taught by Paul, though that doctrine eventually come to dominate Christianity.

Problem of an innocent, righteous and beloved son who was placed under the CURSE of his own lovely and merciful father (Gal. 3:13, Deut. 21:23) in order for the father to forgive and ultimately save his sinful adopted children ( i:e the Christians) from his punishment.


The case of a soldier risking his live on the battle field in order to save the lives of others from THE ENEMY is TOTALLY DIFFERENT from the case of an omnipotent father who accept that his only righteous and beloved son MUST BE ACCURSED before he can forgive and ultimately save his adopted children from his OWN punishment ( NOT from the punishment of the ENEMY like the case of a soldier ).
Of course, it is totally IRRATIONAL for an innocent, righteous and beloved SON of a compassionate, lovely and merciful FATHER to be under the CURSE of the same father !!!
The God of the Bible, the alleged father of Jesus Christ, has been described in the same Bible as being compassionate, lovely and merciful ( See Psalm 78:38, 145:8-9, Luke 6:36, 1 John 4:8 etc ).
Similarly, Christians also agree that Jesus must be an innocent, righteous and beloved son .
Therefore, in order to avoid the IRRATIONALITY of putting such an innocent, righteous and beloved son under the CURSE of such a compassionate, lovely and merciful father, we have to conclude that Jesus did not die on the cross.
Even Paul knew very well that it is IRRATIONAL to believe that Jesus was ACCURSED by God. This is the reason why he contradicts himself by saying as follows;
"Therefore, I want you to understand that no one speaking by the Spirit of God calls Jesus ACCURSED !” (1st Corinthians 12:3).
Yet the ONLY WAY for Jesus not to become "accursed" was for him NOT to die on the cross since it is clearly written in the the same Bible that ANYONE that is crucified is accursed by God (Deuteronomy 21:23, Galatians 3:13 ).

Problem of "Jesus being sent ONLY to the Israelites( check Matthew 15:24, 10:5-6, 19:28. Compare Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts 1:8 WITH Acts 10:1-28, 11:1-18,19, Galatians 2:7-9 and James 1:1).


Suppose you are being asked to distribute a packet of sweet to some children in your vicinity with an instruction to START WITH THE MALE CHILDREN BEFORE THE FEMALE. Now one of the female children approaches you for the collection of her own sweet. Please before God and man would you say; " I WAS ONLY ASKED TO GIVE THE MALE" ? Of course, you would not utter such kind of statement. You would definitely say "IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE FEMALE" or something similar to that .
Likewise, if it was already in the divine plan that JESUS AND HIS APOSTLES WOULD PREACH TO THE JEWS FIRST AND THEN LATER TO ALL THE GENTILES as the Christian scholars want us to believe, then Jesus' statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF ISRAEL(Matthew 15:24 NIV)”.
Again, some of the Christian scholars opined that the reason why Jesus said he was sent ONLY to the Israelites was to TEST the faith of that Canaanite woman. But if this is the case, then Jesus would have committed an act of LYING by saying he was sent ONLY to the Israelites if TRULY he was sent to the entire world. So how could an esteem and beloved prophet of God like Jesus have committed an act of LYING for something that is very trivial ( just to test the faith of one woman) ? He could also have tested the faith of that woman WITHOUT LYING by simply say " It is not yet time for the Gentiles".
However, if we all agree that Jesus was sent ONLY to the Israelites as he said (Matthew 15:24), then we have to conclude that he was NOT the same person that said ; I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the father except THROUGH me (John 14:6). Of course, this last verse implies that Jesus was sent to the entire world since we cannot come to the father except through him.
Therefore, no matter how you think about it; Matthew 15:24 will continue to be a problem for Christianity.

Problem of "Jesus is God" and "Jesus is the Creator".

There is no way for the Trinitarian Christians to reconcile John 1:1,14 , Colossians 2:9 and Hebrew 1:8 etc (which proclaim that Jesus is God ) WITH Hosea 11:9/Malachi 3:6/Acts 2:22, John 17:3, John 20:17, John 14:28, John 14:1, Luke 6:12, Mark 10:18, Matthew 27:46, Acts 3:13, Matthew 24:36 etc that dispute this claim.
For example, John1:1 declare:" In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." Here we see that THE WORD = GOD
In John 1:14, it states "The Word became flesh, and made His dwelling among us." Here we see again that JESUS = THE WORD.
Simple logic declares that if A=B and B=C then A=C. Therefore, since JESUS = THE WORD and THE WORD = GOD, then JESUS = GOD . This is the commonest biblical evidence used by Trinitarian Christians to prove that Jesus is God just like his Father.
However, when Jesus was praying to the Father , he said; "And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the ONLY true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent (John 17:3)" . If Jesus himself was referring to another person (i:e the Father) as the "ONLY true God" , then how could Jesus be God ?
If Jesus did not use the word "ONLY", then hopefully the Christians may still want to argue that Jesus is also God just like his Father. However, the phrase "ONLY TRUE GOD" used by Jesus in reference to the Father alone implies that apart from the Father all other gods are false.
Again, there is no way for the Non-trinitarian Christians like Jehovah Witnesses to reconcile John 1:3, 1st Corinthians 8:6 and Colossians 1:16 ( which proclaim that all things were created THROUGH Jesus Christ) WITH Isaiah 44:24, 48:13, 45:12 and 66:2 which declare that God created the heavens and the earth ALL ALONE, BY HIMSELF, BY HIS OWN HANDS AND NOBODY WAS WITH HIM.

Problem of " fake sacrifice"

The central concept of Christianity is that Jesus died on the cross as a vicarious sacrifice for the atonement of sins. But a sacrifice means losing something PERMANENTLY. Of course, all the animals used for atonement sacrifice in the Old testament did not come back to life. However, Jesus lost NOTHING at the end. He came back to life three days later good as new. So, in effect, there was no any sacrifice.