₦airaland Forum

@ youngjho

You wrote;

Then who is Jesus (luke3vs22)

And the holy ghost descended in a bodily shape like a dove upon him and a voice came from heaven, which said, thou art my beloved son,in thee I am well pleased. Confirmation from his Father to us on earth


My reply;

How are you sure that a voice that came from heaven was voice of God the Father especially when Jesus made it known to the the disciples that no one can see the form of God or hear his voice(John 5:37) ?

Pls follow the four points one after the other and you will understand the whole analysis. One point lead to another.
The analysis does not say; Islam is true because the word Islam is found in the Qur'an. But the analysis says if there is any true religion from God, then it must be Islam because it is ONLY faith on earth that satisfy the EXPECTATION made mention above in the THIRD POINT.

@ Mordecai

There is nothing wrong with my first point.
My first point says that all religions or faiths or spiritual paths MUST HAVE NAMES just like any
other entity in the world must have a particular name through which it can be mentioned. If something has no name, then there is no way you can mention it or describe it.
Suppose you want to describe the color of a car you see on the road to your wife, you have to mention the NAME of that color.

Suppose you send your child to bring something for you in your room, you have to mention the NAME of that something. So the first point is very simple to understand.


Yes, according to my second point, the right and appropriate person to give me NAME is my Creator. But there is NO WAY for God my Creator to announce my NAME directly to the world. Therefore, He has to put my NAME in the minds of my parents.
But in case of religion (or faith or spiritual path) that came from God, there is way for God Himself to announce its NAME directly to the world; by way of revelation in the religious scriptures.

Therefore there is nothing wrong with my second point.

If you really believe in the existence of God and you really want to know the ONLY true religion (or faith or spiritual path) on earth that is APPROVED by this God, then take your time and carefully follow the FOUR LOGICAL POINTS explained below

#1. Suppose your son was asked in a school assignment to list the major types of religion ( or faith or spiritual path ) we have in the world.
If you really want to assist your son, then you would start mentioning some NAMES like Christianity, Islam, Judaism, Hinduism, Buddhism and so on.
But wait! What do you think is going to happen if all these religions (or faiths or spiritual paths)have NO NAME you can use to mention them ? Would you be able to assist your son in doing the assignment ? Certainly not!
This simply shows that a religion ( or faith or any spiritual path claimed to bring us closer to God) must have a particular "NAME" through which it can be mentioned, described or referenced; just like any other ENTITY ( like human being, animal, place, colour or thing) in the world must have a particular "NAME" through which it can be mentioned, described or referenced

#2. Having established that a religion (or faith or any spiritual path) must have a particular NAME through which it can be mentioned, described or referenced. Now, who do you think should be the RIGHT and APPROPRIATE person/people to give or invent such a NAME ?
There are only three options;
A.The general humanity ?
B. The people that practice the religion ( or believe in the faith or follow the spiritual path) ?
C. The original author /founder of the religion ( or faith or spiritual path) ?
Of course, the option C is the correct option.
The original author of a book is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that book. Again, the original author or the maker of a car is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that car. Furthermore, the original author or founder of a school is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that school. Also, the original author or founder of a company is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that company. Therefore, in a similar sense, the ORIGINAL AUTHOR/ FOUNDER of a religion (or faith or spiritual path) is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that religion (or faith or spiritual path).

#3. Therefore, if God is really the ORIGINAL AUTHOR/ FOUNDER of any religion (or faith or spiritual path) that has a SCRIPTURE, then as we have established above from the FIRST and the SECOND point, giving a particular NAME to such a religion( or faith or spiritual path) by God Himself in that very SCRIPTURE is exactly what we are EXPECTING


#4. However, with the exception of ONLY ONE religion, the NAMES of all the major religions( or faiths or spiritual paths) in the world are NO WHERE to be found in their scriptures.
Simply put, the word "HINDUISM" is no where to be found in the scriptures (i:e Vedas and Upanishads) used by the Hindus.
Again, the word "BUDDHISM" is no where to be found in the scriptures (i:e the Sutras) used by the Buddhists.
Furthermore, the word "CHRISTIANITY" is no where to be found in the scriptures (i:e the Bible) used by the Christians.
Similarly, the word "JUDAISM" is no where to be found in the scriptures (i:e the Torah) used by the Judaists.


Hence, follows from the THIRD POINT explained above, this simply shows that God is NOT the original author of all these religions (or faiths or spiritual paths).

The only exception we have is the religion of ISLAM. It is the ONLY religion on earth that satisfied the EXPECTATION made mention above in the THIRD POINT . That is to say, the word "ISLAM" is found on the many pages of the scripture ( i:e the Qur'an) used by the Muslims. For example, Qur'an 5:3 read as follows;


"This day, I (Allah) have perfected your religion for you, and I have completed MY favour upon you, and I have chosen for you ISLAM as your religion".

If the NAME of the religion embraced by the Muslims is not Islam but "muhammedanism" (which is analogous to Christianity, Judaism, Hinduism, Buddhism and others), then similar problem will occur. This is because the word "Muhammedanism" is no where to be found in the Qur'an.
But God Almighty Himself has carefully coined the word "ISLAM" so that Islam would continue to remain as the NAME of only religion or faith that ever came from God.

The word "Islam" means ; submission to the will of God (see Qur'an 2:112). Those who submit in this manner are called Muslims (i:e submitters to the will of God).

Therefore, logically speaking, Abraham, Moses, Jesus, Isaac, Jacob and the likes can be called Muslims (i:e submitters to the will of God) without any problem. Hence, we can say conveniently that they practice Islam (i:e they submit to the will of one true God).
Hence, Islam is not the religion of the Qur'an alone, nor is the name of a religion started by prophet Muhammad. Rather, ISLAM (i:e submission to God's will) is the NAME of the religion ever brought by all the true prophets of God. However, the ceremonial content of this ISLAM may differ slightly from one prophet to another just like the syllabus contents of Mathematics differ slightly from one school level to another.


This is a very simple, direct and logical analysis. But if you think my analysis is wrong, please kindly let me know which of the FOUR LOGICAL POINTS explained above is not correct.

@ Originakalokalo

You wrote;

"Regardless, God will not be tired of the blood of Jesus as he was the blood of animals".


Pls show us a single biblical verse directly from God's mouth to prove that He will not be tired of blood of Jesus.

I am saying it again ; sincere repentance from our sinful ways is far more important than any of the blood sacrifice. The is the reason why Jesus declare as follows;

I did not come to call the righteous but sinners to REPENTANCE (Luke 5:32).

Jesus was talking about the purpose of his coming with respect to the sinners in this very verse. Why did he not say he came to die for the sinners ?

Again, If it was after the death of Jesus and the tearing of the temple's veil from top to bottom that people can have access to God's presence, then how did old testament saints like Abraham, Moses and the likes manage to have their access and reconciliation back to God during their life time on the earth surface ?

@ Originakalokalo

The reason why God was tired of their sin and burnt offerings was because those sacrifices were NO LONGER COUPLED WITH SINCERE REPENTANCE. It is never because the blood of Jesus is more effective than of blood of Animals as you think.

Sincere repentance from our sinful ways is far more important than any of the blood sacrifice. This is the reason why it is possible for God to forgive sins even without the requirement of blood. So blood sacrifice is just one of the ways that God used to atone for sins. It is NEVER THE ONLY WAY. See the evidence directly from God's mouth;

"The righteousness of the righteous shall be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon himself. But if a wicked man TURNS (i:e REPENTS) from all his sins which he has committed, keeps all My statutes, and does what is lawful and right, he shall surely live; he shall not die. NONE OF THE TRANSGRESSIONS which he has committed shall be remembered against him; Because of the RIGHTEOUSNESS which he has done, HE SHALL LIVE. Do I have any pleasure at all that the wicked should die?” says the Lord God, “and not that he should TURN FROM HIS WAYS AND LIVE ? (Ezekiel 18:20-23)".

Where did God mention blood in all the verses quoted above ?

@ Originakalokalo


what do you mean by blood of animals could not remove the sin of man ?

please read what God Almighty says below;


"Aaron shall lay both his hands on the head of the live goat, confess over it all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions, concerning all their sins, putting them on the head of the goat, and shall send it away into the wilderness by the hand of a suitable man.  The goat shall bear on itself all their iniquities to an uninhabited land; and he shall release the goat in the wilderness.  “Then Aaron shall come into the tabernacle of meeting, shall take off the linen garments which he put on when he went into the Holy Place, and shall leave them there. And he shall wash his body with water in a holy place, put on his garments, come out and offer his burnt offering and the burnt offering of the people, and make atonement for himself and for the people. The fat of the sin offering he shall burn on the altar.  And he who released the goat as the scapegoat shall wash his clothes and bathe his body in water, and afterward he may come into the camp. The bull for the sin offering and the goat for the sin offering, whose blood was brought in to make atonement in the Holy Place, shall be carried outside the camp. And they shall burn in the fire their skins, their flesh, and their offal. Then he who burns them shall wash his clothes and bathe his body in water, and afterward he may come into the camp.  “This shall be a statute forever for you: In the seventh month, on the tenth day of the month, you shall afflict your souls, and do no work at all, whether a native of your own country or a stranger who dwells among you. For on that day the priest shall make atonement for you, to cleanse you, that you may be CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS before the Lord (Leviticus 16:21-30).

@ UceeGod



Can you show us a single biblical verse to prove that the obedience of Old testament saints to Law of moses is EQUIVALENT to their faith and belief in ultimate Jesus sacrifice ?

If the Old testament saints, who never knew Jesus talkless of believing in him, can be saved by obeying the law of Moses, then Jesus' sacrifice is not the only way to salvation. Do you agree ?

So all the Old testament saints who never knew Jesus talkless of believing in him also died in their sins ?

@ Sheunma


To convince the Non-Muslims that Qur'an is actually the word of God is another work entirely.

But if you really understand the FOUR points explained by the Op, then you will realize that there is no need for you to first believe that Qur'an is actually the word of God before you recognize that Islam is the only true religion from God.

Let me just try to help you summarize the points raised by the Op. I will do this by asking you the following questions;
1. Do you believe that God exist ? If yes, then proceed to the next question.
2. Do you believe that many religions or faiths or spiritual paths or whatever thing you call it exist ? Of course they exist. We have Christianity, Islam, Judaism, Hinduism, Buddhism, Taoism, Shintoism etc. Now proceed to the next question.
3. Do you believe that each of all these religions or faiths or spiritual paths MUST have a particular NAME ? Of course they must have names: otherwise we would not be able to LIST or MENTION them as we have done in question 2 above. Now proceed to the next question.
4. The author of a book is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that book. Similarly, the original author or the maker of a car is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that car. Furthermore, the original author or founder of a school is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that school. Lastly, the original author or founder of a company is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that company. Do you now believe that the ORIGINAL AUTHOR OR FOUNDER of a religion (or faith or spiritual path) is the right and appropriate person to give a NAME to that religion and Not by the general humanity or the people that believe in that religion ? If yes then proceed to the next question.
5. Follows from question 4 above, do you now believe that if God is really the ORIGINAL AUTHOR and FOUNDER of any religion or faith or spiritual path that has a scripture, then giving a particular NAME to such a divine religion by God Himself in that very scripture is exactly what we are EXPECTING ? If yes then proceed to read what is written below

However, with the exception of ONLY ONE, the NAMES of all the major religions of the world are NO WHERE to be found in their religious scriptures.
That is to say, the word "HINDUISM" is no where to be found in the scriptures (i:e Vedas and Upanishads) used by the Hindus.
Again, the word "BUDDHISM" is no where to be found in the scriptures (i:e the Sutras) used by the Buddhists.
Furthermore, the word "CHRISTIANITY" is no where to be found in the scriptures (i:e the Bible) used by the Christians.
Similarly, the word "JUDAISM" is no where to be found in the scriptures (i:e the Torah) used by the Judaists.
Hence, follows from the question 5 above, this simply shows that God is NOT the original author of all these religions or faiths or spiritual paths

The only EXCEPTION we have is the religion of ISLAM.
The word "ISLAM" is found on the many pages of the scripture ( i:e the Qur'an) used by the Muslims. For example, Qur'an 5:3 read as follows;
"This day, I have perfected your religion for you, and I have completed MY favour upon you, and I have chosen for you ISLAM as your religion".
Please get this point very well; This very analysis ONLY prove that if God exist and if there is a particular religion (or faith or spiritual path) that really came from God, then it must be ISLAM. This is because it is the ONLY religion on earth that satisfied the expectation made mention in question 5 above.
So the analysis is totally independent of whether Qur'an is word of God or not.

You wrote;

"Jesus was fully human and at the same time fully God, that's why He could feel the pains and sufferings just like mere humans. His lack of knowledge of the Day of judgment is another human side of Him but that doesn't disapprove His deity in any way."


My reply;

Numbers 23:19 says ;

"God IS NOT A MAN that he should lie"


1 Samuel 15:29 says ;

"the Glory of Israel will not lie or have regret, for HE IS NOT A MAN "


Hosea 11:9 says ;

"for I am God and NOT A MAN"


God makes it clear that he is God and not a man. You might say that God is not a man at the time of speech or at the time of revelation. But God makes it clear that he is IMMUTABLE meaning he is not a man nor will ever become a man.
Malachi 3:6 says "For I, the LORD, DO NOT CHANGE ;"

It is follows to conclude that God is not a man and NEVER will he change to become a man because he does NOT CHANGE HIS NATURE.



The person of Jesus Christ as proposed by Christian theism can not exist. The reason why is because within the person of Jesus Christ, there are two CONTRADICTORY natures. God is by definition perfect, omniscient, omnipresent, all-wise, eternal, omnipotent, etc. Humans are by definition imperfect, ignorant, limited, not all-wise, mortal, impotent, etc. These two contradictory natures CANNOT CO-EXIST in one person for one reason :
They are contradictory and violate the law of non-contradiction.

For example, does the person of Jesus know everything? If no, then he does not have the omniscient nature of God (Matthew 24:36). If yes then he does not have the ignorant nature of humans and he is not really human.


Is the person of Jesus Christ perfect? If No, then he does not really have the God nature. If yes, then he does not really have the imperfect human nature (Ecclesiastes 7:20).


Is the person of Jesus Christ all-powerful? If yes, then he is not really human (Mark 14:38). If no, then he does not really have the God nature (Psalms 115:3)


Have you now seen that it is IMPOSSIBLE for one person (like Jesus) to be fully God and fully human at the same time .

@UceeGod

After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles understood the command of not preaching to the gentiles so well that even under intense persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem (Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message to none EXCEPT THE JEWS (Acts 11:19) and the HELLENISTS (Acts 11:20).

Hellenists are the Greek-speaking Jews living in Greece. King James Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts 11:20 KJV) and New international version called them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International standard version of the Bible reveal their true identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts 11:20 ISV). So they were not pure Gentiles as you think.

Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that these people were most likely to be Jews. You can Google search for parallel verses of Acts 11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts.
Moreover, if it was already in the divine plan ( i:e before Jesus came into the world) that the command of not preaching to the Gentiles in Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus’ statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been; “IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. All these facts are enough to prove that the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed to Jesus in Matthew 28:19 and other similar verses like it in other books of the New Testament are nothing but forgery.

@UceeGod
You asked me to give you proof that Matthew 28:19 is not from Jesus. See the proof below;
Matthew 28:19 reported Jesus to have said;
"Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit".
In this very verse, Jesus commanded the apostles to baptize the people in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.
But did apostles really act on this command ?
Read the three verses below;

1. Then Peter said to them, “Repent, and let every one of you be BAPTIZED IN THE NAME OF JESUS CHRIST for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38)
2. For as yet He had fallen upon none of them. They had only been BAPTIZED IN THE NAME OF JESUS (Acts 8:16).
3. So he ordered that they be BAPTIZED IN THE NAME OF JESUS CHRIST. Then they asked him to stay for a few days(Acts10:48)
If Jesus really commanded the apostles to baptize in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, then WHY WOULD APOSTLES GO AGAINST THIS COMMAND AND BAPTIZE ONLY IN JESUS NAME ?
Since the apostles would never go against the command of Jesus, then the only conclusion to be reached is that Jesus NEVER give such a command. Therefore, Matthew 28:19 is nothing but forgery and fabrication.
Again you wrote;
"These are different accounts that proved that Jesus sent His desciples to other parts of the world - Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47, Acts 1:8.
My reply;
1. If Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts1:8 are all true and Jesus really sent the disciples to all nations, then why did Peter say the following statement long AFTER Jesus departure;
You are well aware that IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. But God has shown me that I should call anyone impure or unclean (Acts 10:28)
Was Peter NOT aware that they were now FREE to visit the gentiles and preach the gospel to all the nations of the world?
2 . If Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts1:8 are all true and Jesus really sent the disciples to all nations, then why did remaining Jewish believers in Christ criticize Peter on the SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES on his return to Jerusalem as the following passage revealed ?
"Soon the news reached the apostles and other believers in Judea that the Gentiles had received the word of God. But when Peter arrived back in Jerusalem, THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM. “YOU ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND EVEN ATE WITH THEM!” they said (Acts 11:1-3 NLT).
If the other Jewish believers in Christ did not criticize Peter on his arrival to Jerusalem ON THE SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES as shown above, then we may think that it was Peter that was saying nonsense when he said "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. (Acts 10:28).
Remember that all these events happened AFTER Jesus has left this world.

3 . If Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts1:8 are all true and Jesus really sent the disciples to all nations, why the disciples under the authority of apostles preached the message ONLY TO THE JEWS even after the persecution of Steven as the following verse indicates;
"Now those who had been scattered by the persecution in connection with Stephen traveled as far as Phoenicia, Cyprus and Antioch, telling the message ONLY TO THE JEWS (Acts 11:19)".
Were they not aware of Jesus new command of preaching to all nations ?
4 . If Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts1:8 are all true and Jesus really sent the disciples to all nations, then why did original apostles of Jesus LIMITED their work to Christianizing the Jews while leaving Paul and Barnabas to deal with the Gentiles as the following verses indicate;
"On the contrary, they saw that I had been entrusted with the task of preaching the gospel to the Gentiles, just as PETER HAD BEEN TO THE JEWS. For God, who was at work in the ministry of PETER AS AN APOSTLE TO THE JEWS, was also at work in my ministry as an apostle to the Gentiles. James, Peter and John, those reputed to be pillars, gave me and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship when they recognized the grace given to me. They agreed that we should go to the Gentiles, and THEY TO THE JEWS " (Galatians 2:7-9).
As you can see, the original apostles of Jesus stick tenaciously to the command of NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES given to them by Jesus in Matthew 10:5-6 even AFTER Jesus departure. They knew NOTHING about the verses commanding the disciples to preach to all the nations of the world. Of course Jesus has already declared to them that he was SENT ONLY to the Israelites (Matthew 15:24).
Again you insist that Jesus is God despite the presence of John 20:17 and John 17:3 in the Bible . Why did you not say something to refute my argument concerning these two verses ?
But let me give you more;
1. Luke 6:12 says "He (Jesus) went out to the mountain side to pray, and continued all night in prayer to God" .
If Jesus is God, who was he praying to? Was he praying to himself ?
2 . Similarly, in John 14:28, Jesus said: “My Father is GREATER THAN I”. If Jesus is Almighty God, why is he having someone greater than him? Can anybody be greater than Almighty God?
3. Again Mark 10:17-18 says as follows;
"As Jesus started on his way, a man ran up to him and fell on his knees before him. "Good teacher," he asked, "what must I do to inherit eternal life? "Why do you call me good?" Jesus answered. "No one is good--except God alone".
If Jesus is God, why did he REJECT being called “good” and then SUBMIT that all goodness belongs only to God?
4 . Again, in Matthew 24:36, Jesus said;
“But of that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the son, but ONLY THE FATHER”.
If Jesus is God, why did he confess his lack of knowledge about the Day of Judgment and then submit that the knowledge of that day belongs only to the Father? Can God be lacking anything as regard to knowledge?

Until you are able to refute all these arguments , proving Jesus deity by using some EQUIVOCAL verses like John 8:58, John 10:30-33 and others is COMPLETELY MEANINGLESS.

@ UceeGod


You wrote;

"If you have FAITH in the name of Jesus, then it should result in you believing EVERYTHING He said about Himself"

My reply;

How are you sure that EVERYTHING attributed to Jesus actually came from his mouth ? For example, How could Jesus who said he was SENT ONLY to the lost sheep of Israel (Matthew 15:24) later changed his mind and asked the apostles to make disciples of ALL NATIONS (Matthew 28:19) ?
If it was already in the divine plan that Jesus would PREACH TO THE JEWS FIRST AND THEN TO ALL NATIONS, then Jesus' statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”.
This simply shows that Matthew 28:19 is a statement attributed FALSELY to Jesus Christ.

Again You wrote;

"You can't chose some of the things He said about Himself and then reject others (including Him being God)".

My reply: where did Jesus call himself God ?

In John 20:17, Jesus was reported to have said:


“I am ascending to my Father and your Father, and to my God and your God”.


If Jesus is God Almighty, then which God was he referring to when he said ; "my God and your God" ? Can God Almighty have another God?



Again in John 17:3, Jesus was reported to have said:

"And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the ONLY true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent" .


If Jesus himself was referring to another person (i:e the Father) as the "ONLY true God" , then how could Jesus be God ? If Jesus did not use the word "ONLY", then hopefully you may want to argue that Jesus is also another true God just like his Father. However, the word "ONLY" used by Jesus has put an end to any further argument.

So where did Jesus say I am God ?

@ UceeGod


Are you saying if you reject those set of beliefs listed up there, you are still a Christian ?

If FAITH in Christ alone is what is required to become a Christian, then I am also a Christian because I have faith in him as a prophet sent ONLY to the Jews as he rightly said; I was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of Israel (Matthew 15:24 NIV).

Now going back to the original post, do you believe that CHRISTIANITY is the NAME of your FAITH in Christ ?

Are you saying God exist but nothing like true religion from God ?

If Christianity is not a religion as you claimed, then under what group can we place it in nairaland ? Under politics ? Under culture ? Under business ? under sports and entertainment ? Under health ? Under romance ? Under education ? Please tell the whole world that nairaland has made a great mistake by placing Christianity under religion.

@UceeGod

You wrote;

"Do you know that Christianity is a personal relationship with God as revealed through Christ and not a set of beliefs as you stated above? A true Christian only looks upon Jesus Christ as God Incarnate (LORD) and Saviour to be right with God and of course by FAITH NOT RELIGIOUS PRACTICES"

My reply;

If Christianity is not a set of beliefs, why do you BELIEVE in;
1. virgin birth of Jesus ?
2. all the miracles performed by Jesus ?
3. the resurrection of Jesus ?
4. the ascension of Jesus to heaven ?
5. the second coming of Jesus ?
Are they not set of beliefs ?
Again what is the difference between FAITH and BELIEFS ?
Further more, if Christianity is not a religious practices then why do you have to PRACTICE;
1. the act of " loving your enemy and praying for those who persecuted you" (Matthew 5:44) ?
2. the act of humbleness (Matthew 23:12) ?
3. the act of peace-making (Matthew 5:9)?
4. the act of honoring your parents (Matthew 15:4) ?
5. the act of honoring your marriage (Matthew 19:4) and feeding the poor (Luke 14:13) ?
Are they not religious practices?
Honestly you are confused!

If Christianity is not a religion, then WHAT IS IT?
If Christianity is not a religion, then what do you have to say about James 1:27 that read thus;

"RELIGION that God our Father accepts as pure and faultless is this: to look after orphans and widows in their distress and to keep oneself from being polluted by the world".

Religion is a fundamental set of beliefs and practices generally agreed upon by a group of people.

By saying that Christianity is not a religion is by saying the FIRST POINT of the OP is wrong. Yet there is NOTHING WRONG with this point.

The act of following the Christ must have a particular NAME through which it can be mentioned or referenced as explained by the OP. If the NAME of following the Christ is not Christianity, then WHAT IS IT ?

If you are not yet clear, then read below the quote I extract from the first point of the OP;

"This simply shows that a religion ( or system of faith or even any spiritual way claimed to bring us closer to God) must have a particular "NAME" through which it can be mentioned, described or referenced; just like any other ENTITY ( like human being, animal, place, colour or thing) in the world must have a particular "NAME" through which it can be mentioned, described or referenced"

@UceeGod

See what the Bible says:

"But the man who looks intently into the perfect law that gives freedom, and continues to do this, not forgetting what he has heard, but doing it--he will be blessed in what he does. If anyone considers himself religious and yet does not keep a tight rein on his tongue, he deceives himself and his religion is worthless. RELIGION that God our Father accepts as pure and faultless is this: to look after orphans and widows in their distress and to keep oneself from being polluted by the world. (From the NIV Bible, James 1:25-27) "


"Give proper recognition to those widows who are really in need. But if a widow has children or grandchildren, these should learn first of all to put their RELIGION into practice by caring for their own family and so repaying their parents and grandparents, for this is pleasing to God. The widow who is really in need and left all alone puts her hope in God and continues night and day to pray and to ask God for help. (1 Timothy 5:3-5) "


The quotes above "Religion that God our Father accepts as pure and faultless...." and "....put their religion into practice.....for this is pleasing to God" are pretty much self-explanatory and straight forward! CHRISTIANITY IS A RELIGION!

Pls me to resolve John1:1,14 which proclaim that Jesus is God and John 17:3 which proclaim that ONLY the father is true God .

Christianity is not the only faith on earth. If it is giving you headache, then consider all other faiths. But if you choose to believe that there is no any creator, then your headache has just started. This is because you are to solve the following problems associated with Atheism;


TWELVE MAJOR PROBLEMS ASSOCIATED WITH ATHEISM/ NATURALISM
1.Lifeless and physical nature is BLIND, yet a creature that can SEE emerged from the same very nature.
2.Lifeless and physical nature is DEAF yet a creature that can HEAR emerged from the same very nature.
3. Lifeless and physical nature is DUMB, yet a creature that can TALK and SPEAK ( not only one or two languages but ) over SIX THOUSAND different languages emerged from the same very nature; a miraculous feature made mention in the Qur'an (Qur'an 30:22)
Just consider our ability to talk and speak in a COHERENT manner:
i. How are we able to select an appropriate word at a particular point in time from vast number of words stored in our brain during speech production?
ii. How does the brain even managed to store and retrieve those words?
iii . How does the the vocal apparatus ( which consist of the tongue,lips, teeth etc) managed to be informed within the shortest period of time regarding the words selected by the brain?
iv. How did this vocal apparatus managed to coordinate its activities to ensure the CORRECT PRONUNCIATION of those words?
v. How and why did present human species manage to have over SIX THOUSAND languages given that children ALWAYS speak the language they heard from their parents ?
vi. Are we to suppose that the FIRST human parents on earth were naturally BESTOWED with thousands of languages?
vii. How are we able to SWITCH voluntarily from one language to another during speech production?
viii. How are we able to PAUSE and then RESUME to speak voluntarily during speech production?
ix. How are we able to change the TONE of our voice voluntarily during speech production?
x. How are we able to increase or decrease voluntarily the LOUDNESS of our voice during speech production?
All these events are nothing but miracles. Any natural process can ONLY be based on CHANCE or follow some predetermined set of LAWS .
Therefore, if all activities going on in our brain is purely and ultimately determined by a natural process, the only instrument in an atheistic world, then the manner of our speech production will be based purely on chance or based on some predetermined set of laws. Under these conditions all the TEN events enumerated above would be absolutely IMPOSSIBLE as they obviously not based on chance or any strict predetermined set of law: They are are purely VOLUNTARY actions based on intensional decision.
4. Lifeless and physical nature is DEVOID of any form of intelligence, consciousness and memory; Yet the INTELLIGENCE, CONSCIOUSNESS and MEMORY require to establish and maintain complex and highly specific biological events observed in ASEXUAL (mitosis/meiosis) and SEXUAL REPRODUCTION emerged from the same very nature.
5. Lifeless and physical nature CANNOT MOVE VOLUNTARILY AND CONTROLLABLY yet a creature that CAN MOVE VOLUNTARILY AND CONTROLLABLY emerged from the same very nature.
6. Lifeless and physical nature CAN NOT EXPERIENCE ANY EMOTIONAL FEELINGS, yet a creature that CAN EXPERIENCE FEELINGS LIKE LOVE, HATRED, ANGER, HAPPINESS, SADNESS etc emerged from the same very nature.
7. Lifeless and physical nature CANNOT THINK yet , a creature that CAN THINK logically and formulate a rational argument emerged from the same very nature.
8. Lifeless and physical nature CAN NEITHER SLEEP NOR DREAM, yet a creature that CAN SLEEP AND DREAM emerged from the same very nature.
9. All the THIRTEEN VIABLE and FUNCTIONAL complex biological systems in human body which are physiologically and anatomically INTERDEPENDENT could ONLY have come into existence by intelligent and instantaneous CREATION rather than random and gradual EVOLUTION.
10. Lifeless and physical nature has NO KNOWLEDGE about ITSELF yet a creature that possesed EVERY ASPECT OF KNOWLEDGE about nature emerged from the same very nature.
11. Lifeless and physical nature was BROUGHT INTO EXISTENCE as evident from EXPANDING universe, HEAT DEATH PARADOX, CHEMICAL REACTIONS of substances and the FINITE number of PAST days and nights; Yet nothing can change itself or bring itself into existence. Therefore, an infinitely old SUPERNATURAL AGENT must exist to bring the present natural universe into existence.
12. The ONLY possible alternative to supernatural creation is natural evolution. However, the CONJUNCTION of naturalism with evolutionary theory is SELF-DEFEATING and undercut its own justification. If our faculty of "REASONING AND COGNITION i:e the process of knowing " ultimately originates from RANDOM and UNGUIDED activities of lifeless and physical nature, then this faculty CANNOT BE TRUSTED AND RELIED UPON. Under this condition, NOTHING CAN BE KNOWN BY CERTAINTY. Everything become DOUBTFUL. It is a conclusion that no one can conclude anything. Therefore, if we conclude that natural evolution is CERTAINLY true, then we have to conclude again that natural evolution is NOT CERTAINLY true. Hence, atheistic/natural evolution provides for itself an undefeated defeater. In other words, natural evolution is a self-defeating and self-contradictory theory. It is therefore UNACCEPTABLE and IRRATIONAL. The major reason behind this fact is that selective process in natural evolution can ONLY AIM for survival and reroduction; it CANNOT aim for TRUE knowledge or belief.
Besides, for natural evolution to create the species of male and female human beings with all their amazing features, THREE UNSURMOUNTABLE PROBLEMS listed below have to be solved;
i. Problem of creating the FIRST LIVING CELL from NON-LIVING materials ; The natural law of ENTROPY which ALWAYS cause the complex dead cells to DECAY and DISINTEGRATE into simpler lifeless particles would NEVER GIVE ROOM for any natural process which might tend to gradually BUILD the first functional and self-replicating living cell from such lifeless particles in the first instance. Here is the analogy; the natural law of gravitation which tends to cause the water to flow DOWN the hill can NEVER GIVE ROOM for any natural process which may tend to cause the water to flow UP the hill.
Therefore, the first living and self-replicating cell required to start the entire process of evolution could NOT have GRADUALLY and NATURALLY emerged from non living things. In fact, according to Wikipedia: " NO ONE has yet synthesized a proto cell using basic components which would have the necessary properties of life".
ii. Problem of creating the FIRST FUNCTIONAL MALE & FEMALE species from asexually reproducing organisms by random process.
iii. Problem of creating male & female HIGHER animal species from the male & female LOWER animal species by random process.
Due to these unsurmountable problems, natural evolution is impossible.
After the elimination of natural evolution, the only thing left to account for our existence is supernatural creation. Therefore, God the creator must exist

Jesus' original statements are as follow;

"I was sent ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF ISRAEL(Matthew 15:24)"

“Do not go among the Gentiles or enter any town of the Samaritans. Go rather to the LOST SHEEP OF ISRAEL(Matthew 10:5-6)"

"Truly I tell you, at the renewal of all things, when the Son of Man sits on his glorious throne, you who have followed me will also sit on twelve thrones, judging the TWELVE TRIBES OF ISRAEL(Matthew 19:28)"
It is crystal clear from all these verses that Jesus and his apostles were sent ONLY to the Israelites i:e the Jews.


However, Christians usually proclaim that command of NOT preaching to the Gentiles was later cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world just before Jesus ascended to heaven as the verse below indicate;

" Therefore go and make disciples of ALL NATIONS, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit (Matthew 28:19 )".

In this very verse, Jesus asked the apostles to
carry out TWO great assignments;
1.To preach to all the nations of the world.
2.To baptize the people in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy spirit

But AFTER Jesus'departure, did apostles and the other disciples under their authority really act on these two commands ?

The following verses show that the apostles and the other disciples did not carry out the first command. In fact, they find it very difficult to visit the Gentiles talkless of preaching to them. See the evidence below;

Acts 10:28 NIV: Peter said to them (i:e some of the Gentiles that asked Peter to come ): “You are well aware that it is AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. But God has shown me that I should not call anyone impure or unclean".

Acts 11:2-3 NLT: "But when Peter arrived back in Jerusalem, THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM; “YOU ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND EVEN ATE WITH THEM!”


The fact that other Jewish believers in Christ criticized Peter on his arrival back to Jerusalem ON THE SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES help us to know that Peter knew what he was saying when he said "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. (Acts 10:28).

Acts 11:19 NKJV: "Now those who were scattered after the persecution that arose over Stephen traveled as far as Phoenicia, Cyprus, and Antioch, PREACHING THE WORD TO NO ONE BUT THE JEWS ONLY".

Galatians 2:7-9 NLT: "Instead, they saw that God had given me( Paul) the responsibility of preaching the gospel to the Gentiles, just as he had given Peter the responsibility of PREACHING TO THE JEWS. For the same God who worked through Peter as the APOSTLE TO THE JEWS also worked through me(Paul) as the apostle to the Gentiles. In fact, James, Peter, and John, who were known as pillars of the church, recognized the gift God had given me, and they accepted Barnabas and me as their co-workers. They encouraged us to keep preaching to the Gentiles, WHILE THEY CONTINUED THEIR WORKS WITH THE JEWS."


Have you now seen that original apostles of Jesus did NOT really act on the first command of preaching to all the nations. The work of christianizing the Gentiles was MAJORLY carried out by Paul and his colleagues; not by the original apostles of Jesus Christ who spent most of their time in Jerusalem.

Some Christians want to argue that the reason why Peter said:"YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE(Acts 10:28)" is because Peter and other apostles find it difficult to discard the Jewish custom of not associating and visiting the Gentiles. However,the fact that Peter responded positively to that VISION and departed with those gentiles on the following day (see Acts 10:29) is an evidence that he never find it difficult to discard this Jewish custom. Again, it is not possible for the apostles and disciples of Jesus to give PREFERENCE for mere Jewish custom OVER a great and important command from their Master.

What actually preventing them was the command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" in Matthew 10:5-6 and the fact that Jesus told them CATEGORICALLY that he was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the house of Israel( Matthew15:24).

What about the second command of baptizing in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy spirit?

Again, see the evidence against this command;
Then peter said to them, repent, and let everyone of you be baptized in the NAME OF JESUS CHRIST for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38).

For as yet He had fallen upon none of them. They had only been baptized in the NAME OF THE LORD JESUS (Acts 8:16).

So peter ordered them to be baptized in the NAME OF JESUS, the Messiah. Then they asked him to stay there for three days (Acts 10:48).


If “Matthew 28:19” is true and Jesus did command his apostles to baptize in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit, then why would apostles go against this command and baptize only in Jesus name ?

As you can see, the original apostles of Jesus did NOT act on the two great commands contained in Matthew 28:19.
Do you know the reason why ?
Matthew 28:19 and other verses like it DID NOT EVER COME OUT from Jesus'mouth.

What evidece is greater than this to prove that the concept of Trinity was not known to Jesus and his apostles and that Jesus never asked the apostles to preach to all nations ?

Even if we assume that God Almighty, in His infinite wisdom, deliberately allowed the word of so-called impersonator to be protected from destruction in order to serve as a test for the true believers , then God should have pre informed us and warned us about this great impersonator in the Bible just like Jesus informed us about his own impersonation:
Take heed that no man deceive you. For MANY SHALL COME IN MY NAME, saying; I am the Christ; and shall deceive many (Matthew 24:4-5)….....“Then if ANYONE says here is Christ or there, DO NOT BELIEVE IT. For false christs and false prophets will appear and perform great signs and wonders to deceive, if possible, even the elect. See, I have told you ahead of time. So if ANYONE tells you; Christ is out in the wilderness, do not go out; or Christ is in the inner rooms, DO NOT BELIEVE IT (Matthew 24:23-26).

See how Jesus declared in an unambiguous terms that MANY LIARS WOULD IMPERSONATE HIM and therefore asked us NOT TO BELIEVE ANYONE ( WITHOUT EXCEPTION) that says he saw Jesus Christ . If this is the case, how then can we be completely sure that the BRIGHT LIGHT from heaven that flashed around Paul on his road to Damascus ( see Acts 22:6-9) was true Jesus Christ and not one of the liars that would impersonate him ? Yet the same Paul wrote almost half of the books found in the New Testament. See the foundation upon which the edifice of Christianity is erected!

However, you can never find a single biblical verse where God of Israel categorically inform us and foretell that a great liar is going to impersonate Him.

Instead of foretelling and pre- informing us about His own impersonation by a great liar, God only informed us about “a prophet like Moses” which God would put His words in his mouth;
"I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brethren. And I will put my words in his mouth, and he shall speak to them all that I command him. And whoever will not listen to my words that he shall speak in My name, I Myself will call him into account. But the prophet who presumes to speak a word in My name that I have not commanded him to speak, or who speaks in the name of other gods, THAT SAME PROPHET SHALL DIE. And if you say in your heart; How may we know the word that the Lord has not spoken? When a prophet speaks in the name of the Lord, if the word does not come to pass or come true, that is the word the Lord has not spoken; the prophet has spoken it presumptuously. You need not be afraid of him (Deuteronomy 18:18-22)".

Base on these very verses, what then can we say about the Qur’an whose author spoke in the name of the Lord of Israel as shown in the verses of Qur'an quoted above? Are we going to accept it as the word of the Lord of Israel or reject it as the word of a great impersonator?
In the verses of the Deuteronomy quoted just above, the only acid test put forward by God to distinguish His actual word from the word of a liar that impersonates Him is that the word of such an impersonator would not come to pass or come true. But Qur’an contains many words of prophecy which have come to pass and come true. For example, one of the great prophecies is that Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) will be victorious over his enemies (Qur’an 58:20-21). Another prophecy is that Islam will be established and continue to spread, and the number of Muslims will continue to grow (Qur’an 24:55, 110:1-2, 48:28). Another prophecy is that Qur’an will be protected from destruction (Qur’an 15:9). Another prophecy is that Qur’an will be made easy for memorization (Qur’an 54:17, 22, 40). Another prophecy is that people will continue to pay visitation to the house of God in Mecca (Qur’an 22:26-28, 2:125). All these prophecies are known to be true.

Again, instead of fortelling and pre-informing us about the so-called liar that is going to impersonate Him in the nearest future, God only demonstrated to us, through His dealing with Hananiah (the false prophet who spoke in the name of God in the Bible), that He would never allow a false prophet to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly for a long period of time;
Then the prophet Jeremiah said to Hananiah the prophet, ‘Listen, Hananiah! The Lord has not sent you, yet you have persuaded this nation to trust in lies. Therefore this is what the Lord says: I am about to remove you from the face of the earth. This very year you are going to die, because you have preached rebellion against the Lord. In the seventh month of that same year, Hananiah the prophet died (Jeremiah 28:15-17).
You will notice that what happened to Hananiah (i:e untimely death) is exactly what God has already foretold about “a false prophet who impersonates and speaks in the name of God” as written in the book of Deuteronomy cited above; But the prophet who presumes to speak a word in My name that I have not commanded him to speak, or who speaks in the name of other gods, THAT SAME PROPHET SHALL DIE (Deuteronomy 18:20)".

Therefore, if God of Israel did not even allow Hananiah to live for just a year, then how could He have allowed the supposed author of Qur’an to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly for good 23 years?

1. God allowed the author of Qur'an to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly for good 23 years.
2. God also allowed the Qur’an to be protected from destruction since 1440 years ago till today.
3. God also allowed all the Qur'anic prophecies mentioned above to be fulfilled.
4. God did not pre-inform us in the Bible that a great liar is going to impersonate Him.
This simply shows that the real author of Qur’an is God Himself, not an impersonator of God as the Jews and the Christians want us to believe.

It is an indisputable fact that Qur’an came after the Bible. Therefore, if the Jew and the Christians sincerely and truthfully believe in Qur’an as the last and final word of God sent to the generality of human being, then they must have no option other than to accept Islam and become Muslims. But if the Jews and Christians insist that the original author of Qur’an is not God, then they must compulsorily believe its author to be a great impersonator who spoke IN THE NAME OF GOD. This is because Qur’an contains many verses which appear to be coming directly from God's mouth. Examples of such verses are as follows;



“O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone (Qur’an 2:40-41)”.


And that was Our proof which We gave to Abraham against his people. We raise whom We will in degrees. Certainly your Lord is All-Wise, All-Knowing. And We bestowed upon him Isaac and Jacob, each of them We guided. And before him We guided Noah, and among his progeny David, Solomon, Job, Joseph, Moses and Aaron. Thus do We reward the good doers. And Zachariah, and John and Jesus and Elias, all in the ranks of the righteous. And Ishmael and Elisha, and Jonah and Lot; each one of them We preferred above the nations. And also some of their fathers, and their progeny and their brethren, We chose them, and We guided them to a straight path. This is the guidance of God with which He guides whomsoever He wills of His servants. But if they had joined in worship others with God, all their deeds would have been of no benefit to them. They are whom We gave the book, and authority and prophet hood…They are those whom God had guided. So follow their guidance (Qur’an 6:84-90).

O My servants who believe! Certainly, My earth is spacious. Therefore worship Me and Me alone. Every soul shall have a taste of death. Then to Us you shall be brought back (Qur’an 29:56-57).

When My servants ask you concerning Me, I am indeed close to them. I listen to the prayer of every suppliant when he called on Me. Therefore, let them also obey Me and believe in Me, so that they may be walked in the right way (Qur’an 2:186).

We did not send before you (O Muhammad-pbuh) any messenger but We inspired him that there isno God beside Me; therefore worship Me (Qur’an 21:25)

These are just few verses selected randomly from the pages of the Holy Qur’an. You can see that almost all of the first person pronouns like “I”, “My”, “Me”, “Our”, “Us” and “We” in all the verses of Qur’an quoted above can never be referred CONTEXTUALLY to any other person except God of Israel. Therefore, it is a statement of truth that Qur'an speaks "IN THE NAME OF GOD". Hence, any Christian or Jew who denies the Qur’an as the word of God must compulsorily believe its author to be a great impersonator of God. This is the first point that I want all reasonable Christians and Jews to admit. It is either you believe in Qur’an as the word of God or you believe in it as the word of a great liar that impersonates God. There is no third alternative.


But do you think the God of truth and wisdom would allow any deliberate liar to impersonate Him and then also allow such impersonator to praise all the Biblical prophets in the way the author of Qur’an has done? Is it possible for an impersonator and deliberate liar against God to be the author of those noble verses of Qur’an cited above especially when we call to mind that the first set of people the Qur’an was admonishing were idol worshippers living in ancient Mecca? Has God ever sent a liar to impersonate Him in order to guide the people who were in error to the right path?


Besides, how could God have left such a great liar and His impersonator to survive for good twenty- three years and also allow his book to be protected from destruction since one thousand four hundred and forty years ago till today? The reason why God permit the other religions like Buddhism, Taoism, Hinduism, Confucianism, Sikhism (etc) and their scriptures to exist is because their founders only stood out as spiritual teachers. They never claim that their scriptures came from God of Israel. Their scriptures do not contain words which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD'S MOUTH OF ISRAEL. But Qur’an is totally different. Qur’an contains many verses which appear to be coming directly from God’s mouth of Israel . Examples are quoted above. So Qur’an is unique in its claim as being the word of God.


God Almighty may allow anybody to write or speak about Him as you may also allow your friend to write or speak about you. But if you as a TRUTHFUL person would never allow your friend- talk less of your enemy- to impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people, then why do you think God, who is MORE TRUTHFUL than you, would allow such a thing to happen to Him especially when God declare as follows; How can I let myself to be defamed? I will not yield My glory to another (Isaiah 48:11). Please read those verses of Qur'an cited at the beginning again and again. Has God not let Himself to be defamed if He allowed a deliberate liar to impersonate Him in such a REASONABLE and PERFECT manner? Has God not yielded His glory to another if He allowed a deliberate liar to impersonate Him and also allow such impersonator to PRAISE ALL THE BIBLICAL PROPHETS in the way the author of Qur'an has done and then still allow the word of such impersonator to be safe-guarded from destruction since 1,440 years ago till today as exactly prophesied in Qur’an 15:9: “Surely, We have revealed the reminder ((i:e the Qur’an) and We will most surely be its guardian”.

When Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites:THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT OUT WITH THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS; “DO NOT GO AMONG THE GENTILES OR ENTER ANY TOWN OF THE SAMARITANS. GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent ONLY to the Israelites.
However, many of the Christians believe that this command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" was later cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations just BEFORE Jesus ascended to heaven:
1. Matthew 28:19; "Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit".
2. Mark 16.15; “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation.”
3. Acts 1.8 ; "and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth.”
4. Luke 24.47; “that repentance for forgiveness of sins should be proclaimed in His name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem.”
Therefore, it seems from these four verses that the apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPEL TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD.
But was it REALLY TRUE that the original apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPELS TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD ? Let see what happened between Peter and one influential man called Cornelius. This very incident, which occurred many years AFTER Jesus' departure, goes thus:
"At Caesarea there was a man named Cornelius, a centurion in what was known as the Italian Regiment. He and all his family were devout and God-fearing; he gave generously to those in need and prayed to God regularly. One day at about three in the afternoon he had a vision. He distinctly saw an angel of God, who came to him and said, “Cornelius!” Cornelius stared at him in fear. “What is it, Lord?” he asked. The angel answered, “Your prayers and gifts to the poor have come up as a memorial offering before God. Now send men to Joppa to bring back a man named Simon who is called Peter. He is staying with Simon the tanner, whose house is by the sea.” When the angel who spoke to him had gone, Cornelius called two of his servants and a devout soldier who was one of his attendants. He told them everything that had happened and sent them to Joppa. About noon the following day as they were on their journey and approaching the city, Peter went up on the roof to pray. He became hungry and wanted something to eat, and while the meal was being prepared, he fell into a trance. He saw heaven opened and something like a large sheet being let down to earth by its four corners. It contained all kinds of four-footed animals, as well as reptiles and birds. Then a voice told him, “Get up, Peter. Kill and eat.” “Surely not, Lord!” Peter replied. “I have never eaten anything impure or unclean.” The voice spoke to him a second time, “do not call anything impure that God has made clean.” This happened three times, and immediately the sheet was taken back to heaven. While Peter was wondering about the meaning of the VISION, the men sent by Cornelius found out where Simon’s house was and stopped at the gate. They called out, asking if Simon who was known as Peter was staying there. While Peter was still thinking about the VISION, the Spirit said to him, “Simon, three men are looking for you. So get up and go downstairs. Do not hesitate to go with them, for I have sent them.” Peter went down and said to the men, “I’m the one you’re looking for. Why have you come?” The men replied, “We have come from Cornelius the centurion. He is a righteous and God-fearing man, who is respected by all the Jewish people. A holy angel told him to ask you to come to his house so that he could hear what you have to say.” Then Peter invited the men into the house to be his guests. The next day Peter started out with them, and some of the believers from Joppa went along.The following day he arrived in Caesarea. Cornelius was expecting them and had called together his relatives and close friends. As Peter entered the house, Cornelius met him and fell at his feet in reverence. But Peter made him get up. “Stand up,” he said, “I am only a man myself.” While talking with him, Peter went inside and found a large gathering of people. He said to them ; "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN. So when I was sent for, I came without raising any objection. May I ask why you sent for me? (Acts 10:1-29 NIV)"
Remember: it seems from those four verses cited above that the apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPELS TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD. If this is true, then why did Peter have to say : "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE" ? Was Peter NOT aware that they were now FREE to visit the gentiles and preach the gospel to all the nations of the world?
Some of the Christians argued that the reason why Peter said: "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE" is because he has forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching to all the nations of the world. But if this is true, then why did remaining Jewish believers in Christ criticize Peter on the SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES on his return to Jerusalem as the following passage revealed ? Have they also forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching to all the nations of the world? Read the passage below
Acts 11 New Living Translation (NLT)
"Soon the news reached the apostles and other believers in Judea that the Gentiles had received the word of God. But when Peter arrived back in Jerusalem, THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM. “YOU ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND EVEN ATE WITH THEM!” they said (Acts 11:1-3 NLT).
If the other Jewish believers in Christ did not criticize Peter on his arrival to Jerusalem ON THE SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES as shown above, then we may think that it was Peter that was saying nonsense when he said "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. (Acts 10:28).
The second part of the Peter's statement "BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28) is only referring to the "VISION" he experienced just before the arrival of the men sent by Cornelius . The statement has NOTHING to do with the so-called Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world .
Again see the reaction of these Jewish believers in Christ when Peter finished the narration of his Vision; "When they heard this, they had NO FURTHER OBJECTIONS and praised God, saying, "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES, God has granted repentance that leads to life.(Acts 11:18 NIV). Please see the astonishment of these Jewish believers in Christ ; "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES" .
If they have already aware about the Jesus'new command of Preaching to all the Gentile nations in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47, and Acts 1:8, then WHY ALL THIS ASTONISHMENT?
Again, some Christians want to argue that the reason why Peter said:"YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE(Acts 10:28)" is because Peter and other apostles find it difficult to discard the Jewish custom of not associating and visiting the Gentiles. However,the fact that Peter responded positively to that VISION and departed with those gentiles on the following day is an evidence that he never find it difficult to discard this Jewish custom. Again, it is not possible for the apostles and disciples of Jesus to give PREFERENCE for mere Jewish custom OVER a great and important command from their Master.
What actually preventing them was the command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" in Matthew 10:5-6 and the fact that Jesus told them CATEGORICALLY that he was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the house of Israel( Matthew15:24).
Do you think Peter would follow those gentiles to meet Cornelius if not because of the Spirit that commanded him not to hesitate to go with them; "While Peter was still thinking about the VISION, the Spirit said to him, “Simon, three men are looking for you. So get up and go downstairs. Do not hesitate to go with them, for I have sent them(Acts 10:19-20)”.
From all these facts, it can be deduced that even if there is a record that Peter and other apostles preach to another Gentile apart from Cornelius and his households, then what "PERMIT" them to do this was the VISION that Peter experienced. It is DEFINITELY NOT the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world attributed FALSELY to Jesus in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts 1:8. Otherwise, the story of events between Peter and Cornelius (Acts 10:1-28) and also between Peter and other Jewish believers in Christ (Acts 11:1-18) are NOT TRUE.
God Almighty allowed the story of events between "Peter and Cornelius" and also between "Peter and the remaining Jewish believers" to be kept till today so that the evidence of the FORGERY behind Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts 1:8 can be clearly seen by every diligent reader of the Bible.

Now the flesh of Jesus has become the bread for the WHOLE WORLD. Yet he has already declared; I was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of ISREAL (Matthew 15:24).
Suppose you are being asked to distribute a packet of sweet to some children in your vicinity WITH AN INSTRUCTION TO START WITH THE MALE CHILDREN BEFORE THE FEMALE. Now one of the female children approaches you for the collection of her own sweet. Please before God and man would you say; " I WAS ONLY ASKED TO GIVE THE MALE" ? Of course, you would not utter such kind of statement. You would definitely say "IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE FEMALE".
Similarly, if it was already in the divine plan that JESUS AND HIS APOSTLES WOULD PREACH TO THE JEWS FIRST AND THEN TO ALL THE GENTILES, then Jesus' statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. Why did Jesus have to say such a statement if he was truly sent to the entire world to die for our sins ?
There is NO ANY VERSE in the Qur'an which says Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) or his companions were sent ONLY to the Arabs. But see how the Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent ONLY to the Israelites; I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL ( Matthew 15:24) and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to ALL MANKIND; " AND WE HAVE NOT SENT YOU (O Muhammad-pbuh) EXCEPT AS A GIVER OF GLAD TIDINGS AND AS A WARNER TO ALL MANKIND (Qur’an 34:28)". If God Almighty bring these two verses ( Matthew 15:24 and Qur'an 34:28) infront of you on the day of Judgement, do you have any excuse to tender before Him?