₦airaland Forum

Mr plainbibletruth, so you believe that an INNOCENT AND BELOVED PROPHET OF GOD MUST BE PUT UNDER THE
CURSE (Galatians 3:13) OF THE SAME GOD for God to achieve a particular purpose that can achieved through another rational means? No problem! we shall see sooner or later!
please what do you have to say about the illustration below;
If you are ask to distribute a packet of sweet to
some children in your vicinity with an instruction
to start with the male children before the
female.Now one of the female children approach
you for the collection of her own sweet .Would
you say; " I WAS ONLY ASKED TO GIVE THE
MALE" or "It is not yet time for the female" ? Pls
be sincere with your self. Definitely you will say:
it is not yet time for the female or something
similar in meaning like " wait for your turn".
Similarly if it was already in the
divine plan that Jesus was the last prophet sent
to both the Jews and the gentiles to die for our
sins, then Jesus' statement directed to that
Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have
been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or
something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS
SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE
OF ISRAEL”. Why did Jesus have to say such a
statement if he was truly sent to the entire world
and if truly no one can come to the Father except
through him? Because he was yet to be crucified?
No! Because he was in hurry? No! Because he
was yet to receive the power from his Father? No!
Because he was yet to be resurrected? No!
Because he was yet to be ascended to heaven?
No! THINK VERY WELL. YOU WILL NOT FIND ANY
REASONABLE REASON WHY JESUS REFUSE TO
ANSWER THAT CANANITE WOMAN IN THE FIRST
INSTANCE OTHER THAN THE REASON
MENTIONED IN THE VERSE.
The fact that Jesus later answered that woman
(Matthew 15:28) help us to know that there was
no any strong reason preventingJesus from
attending to her in the first instance other than
the fact that Jesus and his apostles were sent
only to the Israelites.
Now compare this Biblical verse with this
Qur’anic verse; AND WE HAVE NOT SENT YOU (O
Muhammad-pbuh) EXCEPT AS A GIVER OF GLAD
TIDINGS AND AS A WARNER TO ALL MANKIND
(Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically
declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the
Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that
Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind. It is
now left for you to decide.

QUESTION ONE: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did peter tell Cornelius and his households that it is still unlawful for him to visit the gentiles (Acts 10:28), many years after Jesus’ ascension to heaven? Was peter not aware of the Jesus’ new command of preaching to all the nations?
QUESTION TWO If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, then why did James still address his epistle to twelve tribes of Israel only i:e the Jews, and not to the gentiles (James 1:1)?
QUESTION THREE : If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why would these apostles be judging only the twelve tribes of Israel in the new world andnot judging the Gentiles (Matthew19:28)?
QUESTION FOUR: if the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Peter and his associates still agree to limit their ministry to the people of circumcision i.e. the Jews; leaving the work of Christianizing the gentiles only to Paul and Barnabas (Galatians 2:7-9)?
QUESTION FIVE : If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to all nations of the world, why was it that, after the book of Acts, all the letters specifically addressed to the gentiles were written by Paul and not by the original apostles of Jesus (Romans 1:1, 1stCorinthians 1:1, 2nd Corinthians 1:1, Galatians 1:1, Ephesians 1:1, Philippians 1:1, Colossians 1:1,etc.)?
QUESTION SIX: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did Paul repeatedly speak as if he was the only one authorized to preach the Gospel to the gentiles( Romans 15:15-18, Romans 11:13, 1st Timothy 2:7, Acts 9:15, 2nd Timothy 1:11 Ephesians 3:7-9)?
QUESTION SEVEN: If the apostles were later instructed by Jesus to preach the Gospel to all the nations of the world, why did disciples under the authority of the apostles still preach the gospel to none EXCEPT THE JEWS even after the persecution that followed the killing of Stephen (Acts 11:19)? Of course, the killing of Stephen took place after Jesus ascension to heaven (Acts 7: 55-58)
All the questions asked above are enough to prove that Jesus and his apostles were only commanded to preach to the Jews (i:e the Israelites) and the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world is nothing but forgery . The spreading of Christianity throughout the world of the Gentiles was majorly due to activities of Paul and his colleagues. Not by the original apostles who spent most of their time in Jerusalem (Act 8:1). This is the reason why all the letters( addressed to gentiles) written by Paul EXIST BEFORE the canonical gospels according to wikipedia.
The preaching of Peter to Cornelius and his households was an exception and one-time event. Peter’s initial response to thosegentiles was rejection (Acts 10: 25-28). We have no record that Peter evangelized another gentile. One incident does not constitute a ministry. In the book of Acts, we read plainly of Paul’stravels through Cyprus, Asia Minor, Greece and Italy. But the movement of the original apostles who ate and slept with Jesus is nowhere to be found. When Paul preached the gospel at Rome, where were Peter and other apostles?

Mr enilove, if Abraham, Moses and the likes are not Muslims( i:e submitters to the will and commandments of God), then they are what?
Honestly, when you open your eyes one day and found your self inside the grave, then you will realize how far you have strayed away from the truth. Do you ever ponder that a single verse from the Bible is enough to condemn you before God? If God hold you to ransom with this single verse, I swear by God, there is no way you can escape it. What is this verse? Jesus said: I was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the Israel(Matthew 15:24). The greatness of this very verse will be revealed to you when you enter the grave.
If you are ask to distribute a packet of sweet to some children in your vicinity with an instruction to start with the male children before the female.Now one of the female children approach you for the collection of her own sweet .Would you say; " I WAS ONLY ASKED TO GIVE THE MALE" or "It is not yet time for the female" ? Pls be sincere with your self. Definitely you will say: it is not yet time for the female or something similar in meaning like " wait for your turn".

Similarly if it was already in the
divine plan that Jesus was the last prophet sent to both the Jews and the gentiles to die for our sins, then Jesus' statement directed to that
Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have
been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. Why did Jesus have to say such a statement if he was truly sent to the entire world and if truly no one can come to the Father except through him? Because he was yet to be crucified? No! Because he was in hurry? No! Because he was yet to receive the power from his Father? No! Because he was yet to be resurrected? No! Because he was yet to be ascended to heaven? No! THINK VERY WELL. YOU WILL NOT FIND ANY REASONABLE REASON WHY JESUS REFUSE TO ANSWER THAT CANANITE WOMAN IN THE FIRST INSTANCE OTHER THAN THE REASON MENTIONED IN THE VERSE.
The fact that Jesus later answered that woman
(Matthew 15:28) help us to know that there was no any strong reason preventingJesus from attending to her in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus and his apostles were sent only to the Israelites.

Now compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic verse; AND WE HAVE NOT SENT YOU (O Muhammad-pbuh) EXCEPT AS A GIVER OF GLAD TIDINGS AND AS A WARNER TO ALL MANKIND (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind. It is now left for you to decide.

MR Plainbibletruth
There is one thing you have to understand; There is no any verse in the Bible where God declare that " the entire Bible was inspired by Me". This is the reason why you can never find the word "Bible" inside the Bible. Paul wrote extensively and gave judgments on the issue of marriage and divorce without being inspired by God- " But to the rest, I (PAUL), NOT THE LORD, say: If any brother has a wife who does not believe, and she is willing to live with him, let him not divorce her...... Now concerning virgins, I HAVE NO COMMANDMENT FROM THE LORD, yet I give judgment as one whom the Lord in His mercy has made trustworthy.(1st Corinthians 7:12-25) You see here how Paul is saying that he is using his best personal judgement ,and that what he was writing is not directly from God. Why would God “inspire” Paul to say that his words were NOT from Him? Have you now seen that Bible is a mixture of word of God and word of men? It is not stated in any verse that EVERY WORD of the Bible is word of God. In fact, the author of the book of Luke wrote as follows: “IT SEEMED GOOD TO ME ALSO, having had perfect understanding of all things from the beginning, to write to you an orderly account, most excellent Theophilus (Luke 1:3)”. You can see again that St Luke wrote his Gospel not because he was inspired by God but because it seemed good to him to write such an account due to his thought of having a sound knowledge on the matter. In fact, he wrote his Gospel not to the general humanity (like you and I) but to one specific influential person he addressed as "most excellent Theophilus" as clearly seen in the verse cited above.

Again you wrote "Christ understood that the JUSTICE of God needed to be satisfied for his mercy to be freely available to all mankind" If it is an act of INJUSTICE for God to FREELY forgive our sins, then is it not a GREATER ACT OF INJUSTICE for God to condemn an innocent and righteous soul for the sins he did not commit ? Yes or No?
Again you wrote "SINCERE REPENTANCE means understanding and accepting the fact that we cannot be good enough to attain God’s righteous requirements and therefore choosing (changing our minds) to go by his MERCY ALONE – the mercy demonstrated by the CROSS; ACCEPTING WHAT God has done through Jesus Christ rather than what we can DO to earn his merit"
Pls compare what you wrote above with what God said below;
"And if I say to the wicked person, you will surely die, but they then TURN FROM THEIR SINS and do what is just and right…follow the decree that gives life, and do no evil--THAT PERSON WILL SURELY LIVE :THEY WILL NOT DIE. NONE OF THE SINS that person has committed will be remembered against them.They have done what is just and right; they will surely live (Ezekiel 33:10-16)"
Do you see the contradiction? According to you, "repentance is to accept that we CANNOT attain God's righteous requirement and then choose the MERCY demonstrated by the CROSS. But according to God, repentance is to TURN AWAY FROM OUR SINS , DO WHAT IS JUST AND RIGHT…follow the decree that gives life, and do no evil. Again, God did not mention the mercy demonstrated by the cross.
Again you wrote; "If you accept that they gained eternal life without Mohamed and the quran then it means Islam is not necessarily the route to gain life."
Do you know where you have gotten it wrong? ISLAM did not start with the arrival of Prophet Muhammad(pbuh) and Qur'an. The word Islam simply means "submission to the will and commandment of God" at any particular period of time. The people that submit to this will and commandment are called Muslims.This is the reason why it is convinient for us to say Abraham, Moses and the likes are Muslims. But you can never called them Christians because ; 1. They have lived and died before the birth of Christ. 2. The word "Christians" was invented after the departure of Jesus Christ by Paul and his colleagues in Antioch( Acts 11:26) not even by the original apostles chosen by Jesus during his ministry.

All the Christian denominations including the Jehovah witnesses believe that Jesus suffer and died for our sins on the cross ( or on the stake). But what is the actual meaning of the statement: "Jesus suffer and died for our sins" ? The meaning of this statement can only be understood in two ways. It is either Jesus suffer and died on the cross so that we can have access to divine forgiveness for our sins- OR-Jesus suffer and died on the cross to remove our sinful nature so that we can have immunity against committing sins. However, complete removal of humanity sinful nature is impossible as nobody can be completely free from committing minor sins. Bible also attests to this fact; "If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us( 1John 1:7-9)
Therefore, the statement: "Jesus suffer and died for our sins" can only have a conceivable meaning if Jesus suffer and died on the cross so that we can have access to divine forgiveness for our sins.
But why MUST Jesus suffer and die on the cross before God can forgive our sins? If it is an act of injustice for God to freely forgive our sins, then is it not a GREATER ACT OF INJUSTICE for God to condemn an innocent and righteous soul for the sins he did not commit ?
Besides, Bible make it clear that any one that is crucified is accursed by God ( Galatians 3:13). How then are we to conceive a merciful and omnipotent God putting His BELOVED prophet under His CURSE when God of course knew that Jesus never did anything wrong?
If God is All-powerful and All-knowing Creator which ( therefore) cannot be compelled to follow one particular way, then He must have chosen at least one rational way to forgive our sins and earn our salvation . God Almighty must have set aside any irrational way that will later require Him to curse and condemn His innocent and beloved prophet for something that can be achieved through another means. Yes, one of the rational means which God has chosen to forgive our sins and earn our salvation is SINCERE REPENTANCE from our sinful acts : “Son of man, say to the Israelites; this is what you are saying: our offenses and sins weigh us down, and we are wasting away because of them. How then can we live? Say to them: as surely as I live declares the sovereign Lord, I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from their ways and live. Turn! TURN FROM YOUR EVIL WAYS! Why will you die, people of Israel? Therefore, son of man say to your people… if someone, one who is wicked, REPENTS, that person’s former wickedness will not bring condemnation… And if I say to the wicked person, you will surely die, but they then TURN FROM THEIR SINS and do what is just and right…follow the decree that gives life, and do no evil--THAT PERSON WILL SURELY LIVE :THEY WILL NOT DIE. NONE OF THE SINS that person has committed will be remembered against them.They have done what is just and right; they will surely live (Ezekiel 33:10-16)" . Did God ask the wicked sinners to believe in Jesus crucifixion before their sins can be forgiven (or before they can live) in all these verses? What He actually wants from them is sincere repentance from their sinful ways. Qur'an also pass the same message: O you who believe! Turn to Allah with SINCERE REPENTANCE! It may be that your Lord will REMIT FROM YOU YOUR SINS, and admit you into Gardens under which rivers flow (Qur'an 66:7-9)
Another rational way that God has chosen in the past for the people to achieve divine forgiveness of sins is through animal sacrifice. Leviticus 16:21-30 says as follow: "the GOAT will carry on itself ALL THE SINS of Israelites to a remote place and the man shall release the goat in the wilderness..... Then before the LORD, you will be CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS”. Please is there any indication in these verses that the sins of Israelites were only "cover" and not completely taken away? God says; “Then before the LORD, you will be CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS”. Yet the New Testament proclaimed that it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sin (Hebrew 10:4). This is another great lie that was fabricated to justify the doctrine of sin atonement through Jesus crucifixion.
If God can truly atone for our sins through animal sacrifice as the verses in the book of Leviticus quoted above affirm, then is there any need again for God to shed the blood of innocent human being on the cross ?
Therefore, if divine forgiveness for our sins is what we really need to gain eternal life, then the death of Jesus on the cross IS NOT NECCESSARY; God can decide to forgive our sins through sincere repentance or through animal sacrifice as He has done with the people that lived and died before Jesus arrival. These two ways are far more better than that irrational way which will later require God Almighty to condemn and curse His innocent and beloved prophet for something that can be acheived through another rational means.
Some Christians might want to argue that Jesus crucifixion make them entitle to many spiritual benefits that GO BEYOND achieving divine forgiveness for our sins. But no matter how numerous the spiritual benefits that can be derived from Jesus crucifixion, there is no way for such benefits to be ACTUALIZED in the life of the Old Testament prophets (like Abraham, Isaac, Jacob,Moses, Isaiah, Jeremiah etc) because they have lived and died before Jesus arrival talkless of his supposed crucifixion. Yet these people manage to earn their salvation and reconcilation back to God (because there is no any biblical verse that says these Old Testament Prophets were in a certain state of condemnation after their death until the time of Jesus crucifixion). So if these old testament prophets, who happened to be among the children of Adam, were able to gain their salvation without Jesus crucifixion, then there is alternative way also for the other children of Adam to gain their salvation without Jesus crucifixion. Therefore, the Christian doctrine which says that: "All powerful and All merciful God must condemn and curse His innocent and beloved son on the cross before the children of Adam can earn their salvation" is FALSE.
The falsehood behind this doctrine will become more clear to you when you consider the following premises of argument. You will see that the frequently-quoted verse( His ways are not our ways, His thoughts are not our thoughts—they are higher than ours-Isaiah 55:8 ) that Christians always use to justify this irrational doctrine cannot work this time around. It would only work if the Christians can believe that God Almighty can decide to choose a way of doing something that will later require Him to commit an act of lying . Now read the following six premises of argument and indicate with reason any one that is wrong.
PREMISE 1: As part of our concept about God; God is naturally known to ALWAYS SPEAK THE TRUTH just like God is naturally known to ALWAYS SANCTIFY( i:e to endorse and bless spiritually ) HIS INNOCENT AND BELOVED PROPHETS.
PREMISE 2: Therefore, for any reason whatsoever, it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO SPEAK A LIE just like it is IMPOSSIBLE FOR GOD TO CURSE (i:e to condemn spiritually ) HIS INNOCENT AND BELOVED PROPHETS
PREMISE 3: Consequently, if there is a religious faith which proclaims that GOD MUST SPEAK A LIE at a particular period of time in order to execute a plan designed by God Himself, then that religious faith must be false.
PREMISE 4 : Similarly, if there is religious faith which proclaims that GOD MUST CURSE( i:e to condemn spiritually) HIS INNOCENT AND BELOVED PROPHET at a particular period of time in order to execute a plan designed by God Himself, then that religious faith must also be false.
PREMISE 5 : But Christianity is a religious faith which proclaim that AN INNOCENT AND BELOVED PROPHET OF GOD (i:e Jesus Christ) MUST BE PUT UNDER THE CURSE OF THE SAME GOD ( see Deuteronomy 21:23, Galatians 3:13) before God can execute a plan He personally designed to save those who believe in Him.
PREMISE 6: Therefore, Christianity must be false.

God may allow His innocent and beloved prophet to suffer (i:e TO BE PHYSICALLY CONDEMNED) for one reason or the other. But God would never "curse" ( i:e SPIRITUALLY CONDEMN) His innocent and beloved prophet for any reason whatsover. Therefore, there is need for God to send another prophet to remove this negative and bad picture of God from the minds of the general humanity. This is one of the many reasons why Qur’an was revealed by God to Prophet Muhammad (pbuh). In the Holy Qur’an, God removed this negative and bad impression from the minds of the people by declaring that, in a miraculous way, Jesus escaped death on the cross (Qur’an 4:157-158). In this way, the "curse of God" associated with any one that is crucified and died on a cross according to the Jewish law (Galatians 3:13, Deuteronomy 21:23) was removed from the head of our beloved and innocent prophet called Jesus Christ (peace be upon him). This is exactly in line with the prayer of Jesus to God in the garden of Gethsemane when he asked for this “cup of condemnation” to be taken away from him in THREE consecutive times as stated clearly in Matthew 26:36-44. Therefore, an illogical and contradictory concept of "a merciful and omnipotent Father who could not see any other way of saving those who sincerely believe in Him except to condemn and curse His innocent and beloved son on the cross" is completely far away from the truth.

pls let the holy spirit direct you to solve these major problems associated with Christianity before you invite anybody
1. Problem of "who is God? and who is the creator?"
2. Problem of " illogical and contradictory doctrine of All-Knowing, All-powerful and All-merciful God who could not see any other way to save those who sincerely believe in Him except to physically and spiritually condemn ( Galatians 3:13) His innocent and beloved son ( Yet the Old Testament prophets, who happened to be among the same children of Adam, were able to receive salvation without Jesus crucifixion)".
3. Problem of "Jesus being sent only to the Israelites ; (Matthew 15:24, 10:5-6, 19:28. Compare Matthew 28:19 With Acts 10:28, 11:19, Galatians 2:7-9, 1st Peter1:1 and James1:1)"
4. Problem of "Jesus' private appearance to Paul" not being foretold to the original apostles: ( Compare Matthew 24:23-28, Luke 10:18 With Acts 22:6-9. Compare Genesis 17:9-14, Luke 2:21 With Galatians 5:2-4, Acts 23:12-14. Compare Acts 21:18-31 With Acts 26:1-8, 19-21, Romans 3:7. Compare 2 Corinthians 12:16 with Jeremiah 48:10)"
5. Problem of "the WHOLE Bible not being endorsed by God ; (the word "Bible" is no where to be found inside the Bible)".

Jesus was praying to the Father and he said;
"And this is eternal life, that they may know You,
the ONLY true God, and Jesus Christ whom you
have sent (John 17:3)" . If Jesus himself was
referring to another person (i:e the Father) as the
"ONLY true God" , then how could Jesus be God ?
If Jesus did not use the word "ONLY", then
hopefully the Christians might still want to argue
that Jesus is also God just like his Father.
However, the word "ONLY" used by Jesus will
continue to shatter the hope of those who want
to believe that Jesus is God.
2. Similarly in John 20:17, Jesus was reported to
have said “I am ascending to my Father and your
Father, and to my God and your God”. If Jesus is
God , then which God was he referring to when he
said ; "my God and your God" ? Can God have
another God? Please I did not say "can god have another God?" My question is Can God have another God?

3. Similarly, in John 14:28, Jesus said: “My
Father is GREATER THAN I”. If Jesus is God, why
is he having someone greater than him? Can
anybody be greater than God? Now answer all the questions under these three verses and then explain spiritually or logically how God can become Man

Is it possible
that Qur’an was deliberately fabricated by
Prophet Muhammad (pbuh)? It is a well known
fact that he can neither read nor write. Qur’an
29:48 says; “Neither did you (O Muhammad) read
any book before this Qur’an, nor did you write any
book with your right hand. In that case, indeed,
the followers of falsehood might have doubted.”
Now If this verse is a great lie and the prophet
could read and write, how could he have
comfortably called
himself illiterate in the Quran especially in the
presence of his close relatives and friends who
knew him very much?
WOULD YOU LIE TO YOUR PEOPLE ABOUT THE MATTER YOU KNOW THEY ARE WELL ACQUINTED WITH? WOULD DOING SUCH A THING WILL EVER COME TO YOUR MIND WHEN YOU KNOW THAT YOUR RELATIVES AND FRIENDS ARE THERE TO FALSIFY YOUR CLAIM? Now given that he was truly an illiterate, then how could he
have fabricated many verses and plagiarized the
Bible and then come up with such an eloquent
book like Holy Qur’an? Before he could come out
with any fabricated or plagiarized verses of the
Bible or chapter and recite it to the hearing of his
companion directly from memory, he must have
written down the verses, memorized them and
rehearsed the recitation many times in private.
Yet all these activities are impossible for an illiterate person. We have
never heard it in history that an illiterate person
authored a book. Again, there are some occasions
that Qur’an rebukes the prophet on certain
issues. Once, the prophet was deeply engaged in
trying to explain Islam to one pagan leader. He
was hopeful that he would accept Islam. But,
suddenly, the prophet was interrupted by a blind
man who wanted to learn the Qur’an from him.
The prophet did not like that interruption and this
was seen on his face. He turned away from this
blind man and continued his act of preaching to
this pagan leader. After a little moment, the
prophet received the revelation of some verses
which admonished and corrected him for this
action of neglecting the blind man. These verses
are as follows: He (the prophet) frowned and
turned away. Because there came to him the
blind man. And what would make you know that
he (the pagan leader) would purify himself or
become reminded so that the reminder should
profit him? As for him ( the pagan leader) who
consider himself self sufficient, to him you give
attention. And no blame is on you if he(pagan
leader) would not purify himself. But as for he
(the blind man) who came to you striving (for
knowledge) while he fears Allah, from him you
turned away (Qur’an 80:1-10). If the Qur’an was
fabricated by the prophet Muhammad (pbuh),
such a reproachful speech against him would not
be found in the Qur’an. Furthermore, there was a
certain instance when the prophet was rushing in
his attempt to grasp the revelation. He was in
haste and he did not allow the Angel Gabriel to
finish before he would start his own recitation.
Therefore, God commanded him as follows; Move
not your tongue concerning the Qur’an to make
haste therewith. It is for Us (God) to gather the
Qur’an in your chest and to give you the ability to
recite it. Therefore when We have recited it to
you, follow its recitation. Then it is for Us (God)
to make the Qur’an clear to you (Qur’an
75:16-19). In another place, God says; And be
not in haste with the Quran before its revelation
is completed to you (O Muhammad pbuh) and
say: My Lord increase me in knowledge (Qur’an
20:114). If the Holy Qur’an was fabricated by the
prophet, all these kind of verses- commanding
him not be in haste but to listen carefully and
also giving him confidence over the ability to
recite the Qur’an- would not be found on the
pages of the Qur’an.

Suratul Ahzaab verse 53 you quoted above is not a conclusive evidence that Prohet Muhammad(pbuh) fabricated the Qur'an. The vague resemblance between the great apes and homosapiens is not a conclusive evidence that evolution is true.

Mr Enilove, you are not feeling shame. Despite all the seven biblical verses I cited in my first post to prove that Jesus can never be God, you still have the audacity to call him God. Honestly you have been blindfolded spiritually . You only make me to remember this Qur'anic verse ;َ

And even if We had sent down unto them angels, and the dead had spoken unto them, and We had gathered together all things before their very eyes, they would not have believed, unless Allah willed, but most of them behave ignorantly(Qur'an 6:111)

Do you even know that one of the great attribute of God is unchangeabilty. That is, nature and essence of God cannot be changed. God has no begining; therefiore God did not create Himself. If God is the creator of Himself, then He can change Himself to become man or any other thing He wills. This is exactly the reason why invisible God cannot become visible Man like Jesus.

Your aim is just to divert our attention from the main topic of discussion. Let address the issue mention in the post. Do you agree with all the points I raised in the post or not? Have you dropped your belief in Jesus as "master worker of creation" or not? These are very important issues. When we are done with this, then we can talk about the one you mention. But be informed that polygamy started in the Bible. Why did God create Adam before Eve and not the other way round? Have you forgotten that woman was created FOR the man? So where is that partiality on the side of God? You are yet to get my belief as far as the Bible is concerned. My belief is that Bible is a mixture of truth and falsehood. There are part of the Bible that is plainly the word of God without any doubt. Yet there are part which are plainly the word of men without any doubt. But the major problem you are having is that you want to swallow both the hook and the sinker. Yet there is no any verse coming directly from God's mouth that says the whole of the Bible is "MY WORD" because the word "Bible" is no where to be found inside the Bible.

Irrelevant to the topic of discussion. Pls accept Islam. This is the only way you can be saved from the probem of foundation we have in Christianity.
Oneness pentecostal believe that Jesus is God and the same as God the Father .Trinatarian Christians believe that Jesus is God but not the same as God the Father. Jehovah witnesses believe that Jesus is not God but the creator. Despite the fact that all the three religious group are using the same Bible, they differ greatly as regards to identity of God and the Creator. Don't you see that the main cause of this PROBLEM is Bible itself as each group can cite biblical verses to defend their position. Yet God is not the author of confusion!

Hence, if Jehovah witnesses and other Christians rely heavily on the words of Paul and John or any other person and therefore insist that God assigned the creation of all things to Jesus Christ, then Jesus deserve their worship because the REASONABLE RESPONSE OF THE CREATURE IS TO WORSHIP THEIR CREATOR as we have established above. Yet, only God deserve to be worship. This is exactly the reason why God would never delegate the creation of things to any other person other than Himself as He clearly stated above: "BY MYSELF( Isaiah 44:24)". In fact, the question at the end of Isaiah 44:24 quoted above - "WHO WAS WITH ME ?" present in some versions of the Bible (including NWT Bible of Jehovah's witnesses) is an indisputable evidence that God did not employ the service of anybody during the creation of the heavens and the earth ! But sadly enough, the Christians still prefer those fallible words of men (which they believe to be inspired by God) to those infallible words of God that came DIRECTLY from God's mouth. Is this not the high time for the Christians to question their belief that the WHOLE of the Bible is an inspired word of God? Here we can see how Paul and John contradict God Almighty on the issue of creation; a very important matter!
The only way to resolve this contradiction is when we assume that Jesus is God. But as we have already established above, there are many verses of Bible that will never support this assumption. Consequently, if Jehovah witnesses manage to escape the problem of accepting Jesus as God, there is no way they can escape the problem of accepting him as master worker of all creation. The only solution to this problem is to expunge all those fallible words of men from the Bible while allowing the DIRECT words from God's mouth to stay. But then, what are we to say about the authenticity of the WHOLE Bible ?
Have you now agreed with me that the problem of "Who is God ? and who is the creator ?" is yet to be resolved in the world of Christianity . This is a FOUNDATIONAL problem that can never be overlooked. As we all know, any beautiful mansion that is erected on a very weak foundation is bound to collapse! This problem alone, if properly understood, is enough for any sincere seeker of truth to have preference for Islam over Christianity.
Unlike Bible, Qur'an is consistent regarding the identity of God ; it is consistent in establishing that God is God and He is the creator of all things, and that Jesus is neither God nor the Creator but a mighty prophet of God who was born miraculously by virgin Mary.

There are some Christians who want to argue that Allah is not God. I will only advice these Christians to get a Bible translated in Arabic language. They will discover that there is no other name the authors used for God except Allah ( the same spelling with that of Qur'an). Since God is the originator and creator of all languages, there is nothing wrong if God use Allah for himself in Quran given that Qur'an was revealed in Arabic language and there is no any other name that Arabs used for God other than Allah. What these Christians suppose to do is to investigate whether the description and identity given to Allah in Qur'an actually tally with that of God Almighty. Reading those verses of Qur'an quoted below are enough to convince you that description and identity of the speaker (Allah) tally perfectly with that of God Almighty, the God of Israel.
“O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone (Qur’an 2:40-41)”.
I made them not to witness the creation of the heavens and the earth and not (even) their own creation, nor was I to take the misleaders as helpers (Qur'an 18:51)
And that was Our proof which We gave to Abraham against his people. We raise whom We will in degrees. Certainly your Lord is All-Wise, All-Knowing. And We bestowed upon him Isaac and Jacob, each of them We guided. And before him We guided Noah, and among his progeny David, Solomon, Job, Joseph, Moses and Aaron. Thus do We reward the good doers. And Zachariah, and John and Jesus and Elias, all in the ranks of the righteous. And Ishmael and Elisha, and Jonah and Lot; each one of them We preferred above the nations (Qur'an 6:83-86).
O My servants who believe! Certainly, My earth is spacious. Therefore worship Me and Me alone. Every soul shall have a taste of death. Then to Us you shall be brought back (Qur’an 29:56-57).
When My servants ask you concerning Me, I am indeed close to them. I listen to the prayer of every suppliant when he called on Me. Therefore, let them also obey Me and believe in Me, so that they may be walked in the right way (Qur’an 2:186).
We did not send before you (O Muhammad-pbuh) any messenger but We inspired him that there is no God beside Me; therefore worship Me (Qur’an 21:25)
As you can see, all the personal pronouns in all the verses of Qur'an cited above can never be referred CONTEXTUALLY to any other person except God.

Since any false representation of God is tantamount to IDOLATRY, then it is of great importance that there should be no any iota of confusion regarding the identity of God. However, this is not the case in Christianity. Unlike Qur'an, Bible is not consistent with the identity of God. If it says Jesus is God in one place, then it will say Jesus is not God in another place.
John1:1 declare:" In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." Here we see that THE WORD = GOD In John 1:14, it states "The Word became flesh, and made His dwelling among us." Here we see again that JESUS = THE WORD. Simple logic declares that if A=B and B=C then A=C. Therefore, since JESUS = THE WORD and THE WORD = GOD, then JESUS = GOD . This is one of the many biblical evidence used by Trinitarian Christians to prove that Jesus is God.
Since we have seen how the book of John established that Jesus is God, let us now investigate whether the remaining part of the Bible support this claim or not.
1. Jesus was praying to the Father and he said; "And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the ONLY true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent (John 17:3)" . If Jesus himself was referring to another person (i:e the Father) as the "ONLY true God" , then how could Jesus be God ? If Jesus did not use the word "ONLY", then hopefully the Christians might still want to argue that Jesus is also God just like his Father. However, the word "ONLY" used by Jesus will continue to shatter the hope of those who want to believe that Jesus is God. This verse is the strongest evidence put forward by Jehovah witnesses to prove that Jesus is not God.
2. Similarly in John 20:17, Jesus was reported to have said “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, and to my God and your God”. If Jesus is God , then which God was he referring to when he said ; "my God and your God" ? Can God have another God?
3. Also Luke 6:12 says "He (Jesus) went out to the mountain side to pray, and continued all night in prayer to God" . If Jesus is God, who was he praying to? Was he praying to himself ?
4. Similarly, in John 14:28, Jesus said: “My Father is GREATER THAN I”. If Jesus is God, why is he having someone greater than him? Can anybody be greater than God?
5. Again in Mark 10:18, Jesus said to one man who called him good teacher as follows: “why do you call me good? No one is good, but one, that is God”. If Jesus is God, why did he reject being called “good” and then submit that all goodness belongs only to God?
6. Furthermore, in John 14:1, Jesus said “let not your heart be troubled: you believe in God, believe also in me”. Remember Jesus did NOT say: "you believe in Father, believe also in me". He said : "you believe in God, believe also in me”. Therefore, if Jesus is God, why did he clearly distinguish himself from God?
7. Finally in Matthew 24:36, Jesus said; “But of that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the son, but ONLY THE FATHER”. If Jesus is God, why did he confess his lack of knowledge about the Day of Judgment and then submit that the knowledge of that day belongs only to the Father? Can God be lacking anything as regard to knowledge?
As you can see, there is no way we can reconcile John 1:1,14 (which teaches that Jesus is God ) with other verses of the Bible that dispute this claim. Despite the fact that Trinitarian Christians and Jehovah witnesses are using the same Bible; yet they differ in their belief regarding the identity of God. The former believe that Jesus is God while the latter believe that Jesus is not God. Have you now seen that the main cause of this discrepancy is the Bible itself. This is the reason why Jehovah witnesses were forced to change the translation of John 1:1 to " In the beginning was the word and the word was with God and the word was a god" . They change the clause "and the word was God" in all other versions of the Bible to "and the word was a god" in their NWT Bible. Therefore, by refering to Jesus as a lesser "god", they managed to run away from the problem of calling Jesus God.
However, as they managed to run away from the problem of accepting Jesus as God , they were unable to run away from the problem of accepting him as "master worker of all creation" . In other words , like other Christian denominations, the Jehovah witnesses also believe that God created everything THROUGH Jesus Christ . They believe that God did not create anything EXCEPT Jesus. That is to say: God created Jesus, then it was Jesus that created all other things including the heavens and the earth. So according to their claim, Jesus is the immediate Creator of all things. That God created everything through (or by )Jesus Christ is no where to be found in the Gospel of Matthew, Mark and Luke. It is only found in the books written by Paul and John;
Yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, THROUGH WHOM ALL THINGS CAME and through whom we live.( 1st Corinthians 8:6).
For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; ALL THINGS HAVE BEEN CREATED THROUGH him and for him ( Colossians 1:16).
THROUGH him ALL THINGS WERE MADE ; without him nothing was made that has been made (John 1:3)
But is it really true that God assigned the creation of heavens and earth to Jesus christ ? Let see what God Almighty say about this matter ;
"This is what the LORD says, your Redeemer and the one who formed you in the womb: 'I am the LORD, who has made everything, who ALONE stretched out the heavens, who spread out the earth BY MYSELF (WHO WAS WITH ME ?) (Isaiah 44:24 KJV, NWT)
"MY OWN HAND laid the foundations of the earth, and MY RIGHT HAND spread out the heavens; when I summon them, they all stand up together. (Isaiah 48:13)".
It is I who made the earth and created mankind on it. MY OWN HANDS stretched out the heavens; I marshaled their starry hosts (Isaiah 45:12)
"For My HAND made all these things, Thus all these things came into being," declares the LORD ( Isaiah 66:2)
“To whom will you compare me? Or who is my equal?” says the Holy One. Lift your eyes and look to the heavens: Who created all these? He who brings out the starry host one by one, and calls them each by name. Because of his great power and mighty strength, not one of them is missing… Do you not know? Have you not heard? The Lord is the everlasting God, the Creator of the ends of the earth. (Isaiah 40:25–28)
As you can see from above, Paul and John proclaimed that God delegated the creation of all things to Jesus Christ. But God Almighty declare that He created all things ALL ALONE, BY HIMSELF, BY HIS OWN HANDS AND NOBODY WAS WITH HIM. What better words do we want God to use before we can believe that He created the heavens and the earth without the assistance of anybody ? If a man hires a contractor as his agent to build a house, could the man say that he built the house “ALL ALONE” and "BY HIS OWN HANDS" without lying? So could God Almighty have lied about creating the heavens and the earth by His own hands while He actually used another distinct person as His agent to actually do the creation for Him?
Besides, who want to know or care that one true God exist if not for His act of creation? The only reason why we label all the idols as " false gods" is because they did not create anything and that is the reason they did not deserve our worship. Therefore, it is quite true that all the worship and glorification we give to God originate from the fact of being the Creator of all things . In other words, the STRONGEST REASON why God deserve our worship, praises and glory is because He was the one that created us and all other things that exist (See Psalm 95:6, 96:4-5, 139:14, Revelation 4:11, 14:7). Does it now make sense to believe that God assigned the creation of all things to another person given that it is through that very act of creation He deserve our worship and through it we acknowledge His existence ?

I choose and accept Islam because I see it as the
most rational world view out of many world views
that exist today. Let me start explaining my
points.
We have atheism, hinduism, buddhism etc on one
part. Then we have Judaism, Christianity and
Islam on another part.
Let consider the atheism: Atheists are those who
reject the existence of God. They only affirm the
existence of nature. However, they agree that ;
nature is not aware of itself, nature cannot think,
nature cannot see, nature cannot hear, nature
cannot speak. Yet they believe that human beings
with full self awareness that are capable of
thinking, capable of seeing, capable of hearing
and capable of speaking over 6000 different
languages evolved from the same very nature.
That is a logical contradiction! Therefore, Atheism
can never be true
Again Hinduism, Buddhism and the likes believe
that god exist but this god is impersonal. How
could impersonal god ( that lack free will) create
personal human beings which consist of male and
female?
What of Judaism; one of the obvious problem of
Judaism is that it is too restricted to some
certain places. If it is truly the world view that
God want us to adopt, then at this present time,
it should be within our reach. We should have free
access to it like Christianity and Islam. But this is
not so. Besides, there is no any verse in their scriptures commanding the believers to persuade the general people to embrace Judaism.
Now we are left with Christianity and Islam. The
major reason why I believe Islam to be far more
rational than Christianity is the fact that Qur'an is
consistent in establishing that God is God
and Jesus is not God but a mighty prophet of
God who was born miraculously by virgin Mary.
However, unlike Qur'an, Bible is not consistent
with the identity of God. If it says Jesus is God in
one place, then it will say Jesus is not God in
another place. Since knowing " WHO THE GOD IS
" is the foundational doctrine of any true religious
faith, there should be no any iota of confusion
regarding the identity of God. Unfortunately, this
is not so in Christianity.
John1:1 declare:" In the beginning was the Word,
and the Word was with God, and the Word was
God." Here we see that THE WORD = GOD
In John 1:14, it states "The Word became flesh,
and made His dwelling among us." Here we see
again that JESUS = THE WORD. Simple logic
declares that if A=B and B=C then A=C.
Therefore, since JESUS = THE WORD and THE
WORD = GOD, then JESUS = GOD
Now that we have seen how the book of John
established that Jesus is God, let us investigate
whether the remaining part of the Bible support
this claim or not.
1. Jesus was praying to the Father and he said;
And this is eternal life, that they may know You,
THE ONLY TRUE GOD, and Jesus Christ whom
you have sent (John 17:3). If the Father is the
"only true God" according to Jesus Christ, then
how could Jesus be God ?
2. Similarly in John 20:17, Jesus was reported to
have said “I am ascending to my Father and your
Father, and to my God and your God”. If Jesus is
God , then can God have another God?
3. Also Luke 6:12 recorded that Jesus went out
to the mountain side to pray, and continued all
night in prayer to God. If Jesus is God, who was
he praying to? Was he praying to himself ?
4. Similarly, in John 14:28, Jesus said: “My
Father is GREATER THAN I”. If Jesus is God, why
is he having someone greater than him? Can
anybody be greater than God?
5. Again in Mark 10:18, Jesus said to one man
who called him good teacher as follows: “why do
you call me good? No one is good, but one, that
is God”. If Jesus is God, why did he reject being
called “good” and submit that all goodness
belongs only to God?
6. Furthermore, in John 14:1, Jesus said “let not
your heart be troubled: you believe in God, believe
also in me”. If Jesus is God, why did he clearly
distinguish himself from God?
7. Finally in Matthew 24:36, Jesus said; “But of
that day or hour no one knows, not even the
angels in heaven, nor the son, but ONLY THE
FATHER”. If Jesus is God, why did he confess his
ignorance about the Day of Judgment and then
submit that the knowledge of that day belongs
only to God? Can God be ignorant of anything?
As you can see, there is no way we can reconcile
John 1:1,14 (which teaches that Jesus is God )
with other verses of the Bible that dispute this
claim. This is the reason why Jehovah witnesses
were forced to translate John 1:1 as " In the
beginning was the word and the word was with
God and the word was a god" . They change the
term "and the word was God" in all other versions
of the Bible to "and the word was a god" in their
NWT Bible. Therefore, by refering to Jesus as a
lesser "god", they managed to run away from the
problem of calling Jesus God.
However, as they managed to run away from the
problem of accepting Jesus as God , they were
unable to run away from the problem of accepting
him as " master worker of all creation" . In other
words , like other Christian denominations, the
Jehovah witnesses believe that God created
everything THROUGH Jesus Christ . They believe that God did not create anything EXCEPT Jesus. i:e God created Jesus, then it was Jesus that created all other things including the heavens and the earth. So according to their claim, Jesus is the immediate Creator of all things. That God created everything through ( or by )Jesus Christ is no where to be found in the Gospel of Matthew, Mark and Luke. It is only found in the books written by Paul and John;
Yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from
whom all things came and for whom we live; and
there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, THROUGH
WHOM ALL THINGS CAME and through whom we
live.( 1st Corinthians 8:6).
For in him all things were created: things in
heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether
thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; ALL
THINGS HAVE BEEN CREATED THROUGH him and
for him ( Colossians 1:16).
THROUGH him ALL THINGS WERE MADE ;
without him nothing was made that has been
made (John 1:3)

But is it really true that God created all things
through Jesus christ ? Let see what God Almighty
say about this matter ;
"This is what the LORD says, your Redeemer and
the one who formed you in the womb: 'I am the
LORD, who has made everything, who ALONE
stretched out the heavens, who spread out the
earth BY MYSELF -(WHO WAS WITH ME AT THAT TIME?) (Isaiah 44:24 KJV, ISV)

"MY OWN HAND laid the foundations of the earth,
and MY RIGHT HAND spread out the heavens;
when I summon them, they all stand up together.
(Isaiah 48:13)".

It is I who made the earth and created mankind
on it. MY OWN HANDS stretched out the heavens;
I marshaled their starry hosts (Isaiah 45:12)

"For My HAND made all these things, Thus all
these things came into being," declares the LORD
( Isaiah 66:2)
As you can see from above, Paul and John
proclaimed that God created all things THROUGH
Jesus Christ. But God Almighty Himself declare
that He created all things ALL ALONE, BY HIMSELF, BY HIS OWN HANDS AND NOBODY WAS WITH HIM. What better words do we expect God to use before we can believe that He created the heavens and the
earth without the assistance of anybody. But unfortunately for the Christians they prefer the
words of men ( that can commit error) to those
infallible words that came DIRECTLY from God's
mouth.
Here we can see how Paul and John contradict
God Almighty on the issue of creation.
The only way to resolve this contradiction is
when we assume that Jesus is God. But as we
have already established above, there are many
verses of Bible that will never support this
assumption. Consequently, if Jehovah witnesses
manage to escape the problem of accepting Jesus
as God, there is no way they can escape the
problem of accepting him as master worker of all
creation.
Have you now agreed with me that the problem of
"Who is God ?" and "who is the creator ?" is yet
to be resolved in world of Christianity as a whole.
This is a FOUNDATIONAL problem that can never
be overlooked. As we all know, any beautiful
mansion that is erected on a very weak
foundation is bound to collapse! This fact alone, if
properly understood, is enough for any sincere
seeker of truth to have preference for Islam over
Christianity.
Unlike Bible, Qur'an is consistently establishing
that Allah is God and creator of all things.
There are some Christians who want to argue
that Allah is not God. I will only advice these
Christians to get a Bible translated in Arabic
language. They will discover that there is no other
name the authors used for God except Allah ( the
same spelling with that of Qur'an). Since God is
the originator and creator of all languages, there
is nothing wrong if God use Allah for himself in
Quran becaus Qur'an was revealed in Arabic
language and there is no any other name that
Arabs used for God other than Allah.
What these Christians suppose to do is to
investigate whether the description and identity
given to Allah in Qur'an actually tallies with that
of God Almighty. Reading those verses of Qur'an
quoted below are enough to convince you that
description and identity of the speaker (Allah)
tallies perfectly with that of God Almighty, the
God of Israel.
“O children of Israel! Remember My special favor
which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your
covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with
you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I
have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that
which is with you, and be not the first to reject it,
nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me,
and Me alone (Qur’an 2:40-41)”.
I made them not to witness the creation of the
heavens and the earth and not (even) their own
creation, nor was I to take the misleaders as
helpers (Qur'an 18:51)
And that was Our proof which We gave to
Abraham against his people. We raise whom We
will in degrees. Certainly your Lord is All-Wise,
All-Knowing. And We bestowed upon him Isaac
and Jacob, each of them We guided. And before
him We guided Noah, and among his progeny
David, Solomon, Job, Joseph, Moses and Aaron.
Thus do We reward the good doers. And
Zachariah, and John and Jesus and Elias, all in
the ranks of the righteous. And Ishmael and
Elisha, and Jonah and Lot; each one of them We
preferred above the nations. And also some of
their fathers, and their progeny and their brethren,
We chose them, and We guided them to a straight
path. This is the guidance of God with which He
guides whomsoever He wills of His servants. But
if they had joined in worship others with God, all
their deeds would have been of no benefit to
them. They are whom We gave the book, and
authority and prophet hood…They are those whom
God had guided. So follow their guidance
(Qur’an6:84-90).
O My servants who believe! Certainly, My earth is
spacious. Therefore worship Me and Me alone.
Every soul shall have a taste of death. Then to
Us you shall be brought back (Qur’an 29:56-57).
When My servants ask you concerning Me, I am
indeed close to them. I listen to the prayer of
every suppliant when he called on Me. Therefore,
let them also obey Me and believe in Me, so that
they may be walked in the right way
(Qur’an2:186).
We did not send before you (O Muhammad-pbuh)
any messenger but We inspired him that there is
no God beside Me; therefore worship Me (Qur’an
21:25)
As you can see, all the personal pronouns in all
the verses of Qur'an cited above can never be
referred CONTEXTUALLY to any other person
except God.

Another serious problem with Christianity is this; Redemption through Jesus death on the cross cannot be actualised in the life of the Old Testament saints (like Abraham, Isaac, Jacob,Moses, Isaiah, Jeremiah etc) because this redemption work was yet to happen as at that time.Yet these people manage to earn their salvation and reconcilation back to God before they die (unless you can show me a biblical verse to prove that these old testament saints were in a state of damnation until Jesus crucifixion ). So if these old testament saints, who happened to be among the children of Adam, can gain eternal life without Jesus crucifixion, then there is alternative way also for other children of Adam to gain eternal life other than Jesus crucifixion. Therefore, there is no need for God to curse and condemn his beloved prophet almost unclad on the cross before we can earn our salvation. But all these problems you pretend as if they do not exist and you are asking me to accept something that is totally foolish to my logical reasoning. Do you think God can just ask us to believe in anything? If someone ask you to believe that God of truth must commit an act of lying before we can earn our salvation, will you believe such a nonsense. But now you believe God of mercy must cursed his beloved prophet for the sins he had not committef before we can earn our salvation. Dont worry what cover your eyes from not seeing this truth will be removed when you enter the grave.

Another serious problem with Christianity is this; Redemption through Jesus death on the cross cannot be actualised in the life of the Old Testament saints (like Abraham, Isaac, Jacob,Moses, Isaiah, Jeremiah etc) because this redemption work was yet to happen as at that time.Yet these people manage to earn their salvation and reconcilation back to God before they die (unless you can show me a biblical verse to prove that these old testament saints were in a state of damnation until Jesus crucifixion ). So if these old testament saints, who happened to be among the children of Adam, can gain eternal life without Jesus crucifixion, then there is alternative way also for other children of Adam to gain eternal life other than Jesus crucifixion. Therefore, there is no need for God to curse and condemn his beloved prophet almost unclad on the cross before we can earn our salvation. But all these problems you pretend as if they do not exist and you are asking me to accept something that is totally foolish to my logical reasoning. Do you think God can just ask us to believe in anything? If someone ask you to believe that God of truth must commit an act of lying before we can earn our salvation, will you believe such a nonsense. But now you believe God of mercy must cursed his beloved prophet for the sins he had not committef before we can earn our salvation. Dont worry what cover your eyes from not seeing this truth will be removed when you enter the grave.

Another serious problem with Christianity is this; Redemption through Jesus death on the cross cannot be actualised in the life of the Old Testament saints (like Abraham, Isaac, Jacob,Moses, Isaiah, Jeremiah etc) because this redemption work was yet to happen as at that time.Yet these people manage to earn their salvation and reconcilation back to God before they die (unless you can show me a biblical verse to prove that these old testament saints were in a state of damnation until Jesus crucifixion ). So if these old testament saints, who happened to be among the children of Adam, can gain eternal life without Jesus crucifixion, then there is alternative way also for other children of Adam to gain eternal life other than Jesus crucifixion. Therefore, there is no need for God to curse and condemn his beloved prophet almost unclad on the cross before we can earn our salvation.
But all these problems you pretend as if they do not exist and you are asking me to accept something that is totally foolish to my logical reasoning. Do you think God can just ask us to believe in anything? If someone ask you to believe that God of truth must commit an act of lying before we can earn our salvation, will you believe such a nonsense. But now you believe God of mercy must cursed his beloved prophet for the sins he had not committef before we can earn our salvation. Dont worry what cover your eyes from not seeing this truth will be removed when you enter the grave.

The major problem with Christianity is explained below. Please ponder over it very well. This problem alone is enough for any wise person to discover that christianity is fake.

Condemnation of an innocent and righteous
soul for the sins he has never committed is
illogical and act of injustice that is clearly
forbidden in the Bible (Matthew 12:7, Proverb
17:15, Exodus 23:7, Psalm 34:22). Besides, Bible
make it clear that any one that is crucified is
accursed by God ( Galatians 3:13). How then are
we to conceive a merciful God putting His beloved
prophet under His curse when God of course knew
that Jesus never did anything wrong? A beloved
prophet of God under the curse of God? What a
contradiction ! God must have chosen a more
rational way to earn our salvation ( other than
cursing and condemning His beloved prophet) if
truly He is All-powerful and All-knowing creator
that planned everything from begining to end. Yes,
the rational way which God has chosen to earn
our salvation is sincere repentance: “Son of man,
say to the Israelites; this is what you are saying:
our offenses and sins weigh us down, and we are
wasting away because of them. How then can we
live? Say to them: as surely as I live declares the
sovereign Lord, I take no pleasure in the death of
the wicked, but rather that they turn from their
ways and live. Turn! Turn from your evil ways!
Why will you die, people of Israel? Therefore, son
of man say to your people… if someone, one who
is wicked, REPENTS, that person’s former
wickedness will not bring condemnation… And if I
say to the wicked person, you will surely die, but
they then turn from their sins and do what is just
and right…follow the decree that gives life, and do
no evil--THAT PERSON WILL SURELY LIVE :THEY
WILL NOT DIE. NONE OF THE SINS that person
has committed will be remembered against
them.They have done what is just and right; they
will surely live(Ezekiel 33:10-16)" . You can see
that God did not ask the wicked sinners to believe
in Jesus crucifixion before their sins can be
forgiven (or before they can live) in all these
verses. What He actually wants from them is
sincere repentance from their sinful ways. Qur'an
also pass the same message: O you who believe!
Turn to Allah with sincere repentance! It may be
that your Lord will remit from you your sins, and
admit you into Gardens under which rivers flow
(Qur'an 66:

But be it so, I did not burden you: nevertheless
being CRAFTY, I caught you with DECEIT. (2
Corinithians 12:16)
CURSED be he that does the work of the Lord
DECEITFULLY ( Jeremiah 48:10)
Based on these two verses, have you now agreed with me that it was Paul that is accursed by
God not the prophet of Islam.
Remember; out of 27 books in the NT, only Paul
wrote 13 ( i:e almost half) . This prove clearly the
reason why God did not ENDORSE the entire Bible
because God can never open His eyes to allow
His UNADULTERATED words to be endorsed
together with the word of an accursed apostle.
Therefore ,the word "Bible" cannot be found inside
the Bible. In other words, there is no a single
verse in the Bible coming directly from God’s
mouth that would establish divine origin for the
WHOLE of the Bible. This simply shows that
selection and compilation of all the books in the
Bible was not something commissioned by God
Almighty. Therefore, the reason why Catholic Bible
contains seven more books than the Protestant
Bible is now clear to us. But does the Qur’an
suffer similar problem? Certainly not! Beside the
fact that Qur’an unite all its part together by
making reference to its self as an entity called
Qur’an (i:e the word “Qur’an” is found inside the
Qur’an) in more than seventy places (in places
like Qur’an 17:88, 10:37, 38:1, 47:24, 36:2, 50:1,
59:21 etc); there are also many verses coming
directly from God’s mouth which establish the
divine origin for the whole of the Qur’an.
Examples of such verses are as follows
“O children of Israel! Remember My favor which I
bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with
Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear
none but Me. And believe in what I HAVE SENT
DOWN ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is
with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell
My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me
alone(Qur’an 2:40-41).
WE HAVE NOT SENT DOWN QUR'AN unto you (O
Muhammad-pbuh) to cause you distress. But
only as a reminder to those who fear God. A
revelation from Him who created the earth and
the high heavens (Qur’an 20:2-3).
You can see that all the first person pronouns like
"I , MY, ME and WE” in the verses of Qur’an
quoted above can never be referred
CONTEXTUALLY to any other person except God.
Also take note of the phrase " SENT DOWN" .
Other examples of similar verses can be found in
Qur’an 15:9, 12:2-3, 21:10.50, 35:31-32,
17:105-106 16:101-103, 6:92 etc. However,
example of such verses “coming directly from
God’s mouth which would establish divine origin
for the WHOLE of the Bible” cannot be found
inside the Bible.

In Genesis 1:26, God was talking to the angels
because it was the angels that gather the clay
used to create Adam. Proverb 8:22-34 was
talking about the wisdom of God. Dont you know
that if Jesus is our immediate creator, then he
deserve to be worshipped according to Revelation
14:7. Yet only God deserved to be worshipped.
The sole reason why God deserve our worshipped
is because He is the one that created us. Again,
the only reason why false gods do not deserve
our worship is because they did not create
anything.

In Genesis 1:26, God was talking to the angels because it was the angels that gather the clay used to create Adam. Proverb 8:22-34 was talking about the wisdom of God. Dont you know that if Jesus is our immediate creator, then it deserve to be worshipped according to Revelation 14:7. Yet only God deserved to be worshipped. The sole reason why God deserve our worshipped is because He is the one that created us. Again, the only reason why false gods do not deserve our worship is because they did not create anything.

In Genesis 1:26, God was talking to the angels because it was the angels that gather the clay used to create Adam. Proverb 8:22-34 was talking about the wisdom of God. Dont you know that if Jesus is our immediate creator, then it deserve to be worshipped according to Revelation 14:7. Yet only God deserved to be worshipped. The sole reason why God deserve our worshipped is because He is the one that created us. Again, the only reason why false gods do not deserve our worship is because they did not create anything.

Yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from
whom all things came and for whom we live; and
there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, THROUGH
WHOM ALL THINGS CAME and through whom we
live.( 1st Corinthians 8:6).
For in him all things were created: things in
heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether
thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; ALL
THINGS HAVE BEEN CREATED THROUGH him and
for him ( Colossians 1:16).
THROUGH him ALL THINGS WERE MADE ;
without him nothing was made that has been
made (John 1:3)

But is it really true that God created all things
through Jesus christ ? Let see what God Almighty
say about this matter ;
"This is what the LORD says, your Redeemer and
the one who formed you in the womb: 'I am the
LORD, who has made everything, who ALONE
stretched out the heavens, who spread out the
earth -WHO WAS WITH ME AT THAT TIME?
(Isaiah 44:24)".
"MY OWN HAND laid the foundations of the earth,
and MY RIGHT HAND spread out the heavens;
when I summon them, they all stand up together.
(Isaiah 48:13)".
As you can see from above, Paul and John
proclaimed that God created all things THROUGH
Jesus Christ. But God Almighty Himself declare
that He created all things ALL ALONE, BY HIS
OWN HANDS AND NOBODY WAS WITH HIM. What
better words do we expect God to use before we
can believe that He created the heavens and the
earth without the aid of Jesus Christ?
Here we can see how Paul and John contradict
God Almighty on the issue of creation of things

Honestly you have to study Bible with great care to understand the whole truth. Many have tempered with the Bible to distort the true mission of Jesus christ. Please read below to see the forgery behind matthew 28:19
If Jesus (pbuh)
was actually the last prophet of God sent to the
entire world, then why did he have to say: I WAS
NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE
HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? Now
compare this Biblical verse with this Qur’anic
verse; And We have not sent you (O Muhammad-
pbuh) except as a giver of glad tidings and as a
Warner to all mankind, but most men do not
know (Qur’an 34:28). See how Bible categorically
declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent only to the
Israelites and see how Qur’an declared that
Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to all mankind!
There is no any indication in that Biblical verse
that Jesus (pbuh) would later have anything to
do with the Non- Israelites. In fact, when Jesus
(pbuh) was sending out his apostles for
evangelical mission, he also warned them
categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles
i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS
SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM,SAYING,
GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES,AND
INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE
NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF
THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This
further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent
only to the Israelites. But many of the Christian
scholars proclaimed that this command of not
preaching to the Gentiles was later cancelled and
replaced by new command of preaching to all the
nations in Matthew 28:19, where Jesus was
reported to have commanded the apostles to
make disciples of all nations. Therefore, according
to these Christian scholars, Jesus (pbuh) who
was originally sent only to the Israelites later
became the last prophet sent to the entire world.
But should we really accept Matthew 28:19 as the
actual word of Jesus (pbuh)? If the apostles were
later instructed by Jesus to preach the gospel to
all the nations of the world as spuriously stated
in Matthew 28:19, then why did Peter have to tell
some of the Gentiles (Cornelius and his
households) that sent for him as follows; YOU
ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW
FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A
GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I
SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR
UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28 NIV)? This very incident
occurred many years after Jesus’ departure from
this world. Was Peter, who happened to be a
Jewish man, not aware of the Jesus’ new
command of preaching to all the nations stated in
Matthew 28:19? Then why did peter have to say
it is unlawful for him to associate with or visit a
Gentile i:e the Non-Israelite after Jesus
departure? Has he forgotten such a very great
and important command in Matthew 28:19? Very
hard to believe! The fact that the other apostles
also criticized peter and became astonished when
they overheard that Peter later honored the
invitation of those Gentiles ( Acts 11:1-18) prove
further that Peter and other apostles were
completely unaware of the Jesus’ new command
of preaching to all the nations in Matthew 28:19;
Not that they had all forgotten. How could all
apostles have forgotten such a very great and
important command from their master? Even
when Peter was justifying his visitation to those
gentiles, he only defended himself and convinced
the other apostles by making reference to the
vision he had before he received the message
from those Gentiles (Acts 10:1-28, 11:4-18)
instead of simply reminding the other apostles
about the so-called new command in Matthew
28:19.
After Jesus ascension to heaven, Jesus’ apostles
understood the command of not preaching to the
gentiles so well that even under intense
persecution, they refused to leave Jerusalem
(Acts 8:1). In fact, those disciples under the
authority of the Jesus’ apostles who were forced
to leave Jerusalem preached the gospel message
to none except the Jews (Acts 11:19) and the
Hellenists (Acts 11:20).Hellenists are the Greek-
speaking Jews living in Greece. King James
Version of the Bible called them Grecians (Acts
11:20 KJV) and New international version called
them Greeks (Acts 11:20 NIV). But International
standard version of the Bible reveal their true
identity by calling them Hellenistic Jews (Acts
11:20 ISV). Ellicott and John-gill’s commentaries
on this very verse (Acts 11:20) also confirm that
these people were most likely to be Jews. You
can Google search for parallel verses of Acts
11:20 on the internet to confirm all these facts.
Moreover, if it was already in the divine plan ( i:e
before Jesus came into the world) that the
command of not preaching to the Gentiles in
Matthew 10:5-6 would later be cancelled and
replaced by the new command of preaching to all
the nations in Matthew 28:19, then Jesus’
statement in Matthew 15:24 should have been;
“IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES” or
something similar in meaning, rather than; “I WAS
NOT SENT EXCEPT TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE
HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. All these facts are enough to
prove that the new command of preaching to all
the nations attributed to Jesus in Matthew 28:19
and other similar verses like it in other books of
the New Testament are nothing but forgery.

yes

You are just wasting your time in following a fake Jesus( Matthew 24:4-5) for true Jesus said; I was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of Israel( Matthew 15:24). May God Almighty open your eyes.

Many will say to me in that day ‘Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and done many wonders in your name? And then I will declare to them; I never knew you, depart from me, you who practice lawlessness (Matthew 7:22-23). See how you will be disowned and rejected by Jesus on the Day of Judgment!

According to Genesis 1:1-26 and Psalm 33:6, 9 God created all things by series of commands coming from God’s mouth; not from Jesus’ mouth. If God created all things through Jesus Christ , then what actual role did Jesus play in assisting God?

According to Genesis 1:1-26 and Psalm 33:6, 9 God created all things by series of commands coming from God’s mouth; not from Jesus’ mouth. If God created all things through Jesus Christ , then what actual role did Jesus play in assisting God?

According to Genesis 1:1-26 and Psalm 33:6, 9 God created all things by series of commands coming from God’s mouth; not from Jesus’ mouth. If God created all things through Jesus Christ , then what actual role did Jesus play in assisting God?

Mr Riofidelio please shed more light on this:

Jehovah witnesses believe that God created
everything THROUGH Jesus Christ . That God
created everything through ( or by )Jesus Christ
is no where to be found in the Gospel of Matthew,
Mark and Luke. It is only found in the books
written by Paul and John;
Yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from
whom all things came and for whom we live; and
there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, THROUGH
WHOM ALL THINGS CAME and through whom we
live.( 1st Corinthians 8:6).
For in him all things were created: things in
heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether
thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; ALL
THINGS HAVE BEEN CREATED THROUGH him and
for him ( Colossians 1:16).
THROUGH him ALL THINGS WERE MADE ;
without him nothing was made that has been
made (John 1:3)

But is it really true that God created all things
through Jesus christ ? Let see what God Almighty
say about this matter ; "This is what the LORD
says, your Redeemer and the one who formed you
in the womb: 'I am the LORD, who has made
everything, who ALONE stretched out the
heavens, who spread out the earth— Who was
with me at that time? (Isaiah 44:24)".
As you can see from above, Paul and John
proclaimed that God created all things THROUGH
Jesus Christ. But God Almighty Himself declare
that He created all things ALL ALONE.
This is an obvious contradiction.

John1:1 declare:" In the beginning was the Word,
and the Word was with God, and the Word was
God." Here we see that THE WORD = GOD
In John 1:14, it states "The Word became flesh,
and made His dwelling among us." Here we see
again that JESUS = THE WORD. Simple logic
declares that if A=B and B=C then A=C.
Therefore, since JESUS = THE WORD and THE
WORD = GOD, then JESUS = GOD
Now that we have seen how the book of John
established that Jesus is God, let us investigate
whether the remaining part of the Bible support
this claim
1. Jesus was praying to the Father and he said;
And this is eternal life, that they may know You,
THE ONLY TRUE GOD, and Jesus Christ whom
you have sent (John 17:3). If the Father is the
"only true God" according to Jesus Christ, then
how could Jesus be God ?
2. Similarly in John 20:17, Jesus was reported to
have said “I am ascending to my Father and your
Father, and to my God and your God”. If Jesus is
God , then can God have another God?
3. Also Luke 6:12 recorded that Jesus went out
to the mountain side to pray, and continued all
night in prayer to God. If Jesus is God, who was
he praying to? Was he praying to himself ?
4. Similarly, in John 14:28, Jesus said: “My
Father is GREATER THAN I”. If Jesus is God, why
is he having someone greater than him? Can
anybody be greater than God?
5. Again in Mark 10:18, Jesus said to one man
who called him good teacher as follows: “why do
you call me good? No one is good, but one, that
is God”. If Jesus is God, why did he reject being
called “good” and submit that all goodness
belongs only to God?
6. Furthermore, in John 14:1, Jesus said “let not
your heart be troubled: you believe in God, believe
also in me”. If Jesus is God, why did he clearly
distinguish himself from God?
7. Finally in Matthew 24:36, Jesus said; “But of
that day or hour no one knows, not even the
angels in heaven, nor the son, but ONLY THE
FATHER”. If Jesus is God, why did he confess his
ignorance about the Day of Judgment and then
submit that the knowledge of that day belongs
only to God? Can God be ignorant of anything? PLEASE ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS CITED ABOVE