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Any false representation of God is nothing but IDOLATRY. Therefore, it is of great importance that there should be no any iota of confusion or doubt regarding the identity of God . In other words, being the foundational doctrine, the answer to the question "Who is God?" should always remain the same in any faith that is truly endorsed and approved by God. However, this is not the case with Christianity. Bible is not consistent with the identity of God. If it says Jesus is God in one place, then it will say Jesus is not God in another place.
For example; John1:1 declare:" In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." Here we see that THE WORD =GOD
In John 1:14, it states "The Word became flesh, and made His dwelling among us." Here we see again that JESUS = THE WORD.
Simple logic declares that if A=B and B=C then A=C. Therefore, since JESUS = THE WORD and THE WORD = GOD, then JESUS = GOD . This is the commonest and the strongest biblical evidence used by Trinitarian Christians to prove that Jesus is God just like his Father.
Since we have seen how the book of John established that Jesus is God, let us now see how the remaining part of the Bible established again that Jesus is not God.
1. Jesus was praying to the Father and he said; "And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the ONLY true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent (John 17:3)" . If Jesus himself was referring to another person (i:e the Father) as the "ONLY true God" , then how could Jesus be God ? If Jesus did not use the word "ONLY", then hopefully the Christians might still want to argue that Jesus is also God just like his Father. However, the word "ONLY" used by Jesus will continue to shatter the hope of those who want to believe that Jesus is God. The phrase "THE ONLY TRUE GOD" used by Jesus in reference to the Father implies that apart from "THE FATHER", all other Gods or gods are FALSE. This verse is the strongest evidence put forward by Jehovah witnesses to prove that Jesus is not God.
2. Similarly in John 20:17, Jesus was reported to have said “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, and to my God and your God”. If Jesus is God Almighty, then which God was he referring to when he said ; "my God and your God" ? Can God Almighty have another God? Impossible! But If Jesus is just another true God different from God Almighty, then this will imply the existence of two seperate Gods. Yet there is only one God according to the Bible(Deuteronomy 6:4). Therefore, Jesus can never be God.
3. Also Luke 6:12 says "He (Jesus) went out to the mountain side to pray, and continued all night in prayer to God" . If Jesus is God, who was he praying to? Was he praying to himself ?
4. Similarly, in John 14:28, Jesus said: “My Father is GREATER THAN I”. If Jesus is God, why is he having someone greater than him? Can anybody be greater than God?
5. Again in Mark 10:18, Jesus said to one man who called him good teacher as follows: “why do you call me good? No one is good, but one, that is God”. If Jesus is God, why did he reject being called “good” and then submit that all goodness belongs only to God?
6. Furthermore, in John 14:1, Jesus said “let not your heart be troubled: you believe in God, believe also in me”. Remember Jesus did NOT say: "you believe in Father, believe also in me". He said : "you believe in God, believe also in me”. Therefore, if Jesus is God, why did he clearly distinguish himself from God?
7. Again, in Matthew 24:36, Jesus said; “But of that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the son, but ONLY THE FATHER”. If Jesus is God, why did he confess his lack of knowledge about the Day of Judgment and then submit that the knowledge of that day belongs only to the Father? Can God be lacking anything as regard to knowledge?
8. Finally in John 5:30, Jesus was reported to have said: " I can of my own self do nothing". If Jesus is God, is it possible for All- powerful and independent God to utter this kind of statement?
As you can see, there is no way we can reconcile John 1:1,14 (which teaches that Jesus is God ) with other verses of the Bible that established that Jesus is not God. Despite the fact that Trinitarian Christians and Jehovah witnesses are using the same Bible; yet they differ in their belief regarding the identity of God. The former believe that Jesus is God while the latter believe that Jesus is not God. Therefore, according to the Trinitarian Christians, Jehovah witnesses are unbelievers since they refuse to believe that Jesus is God. But in the eyes of Jehovah witnesses, Trinitarian Christians are polytheists due to their belief that Jesus is God. Have you now seen that the main cause of this nagging problem is the Bible itself because the two sects are able to support their claims using different verses from the same Bible. George Bernard Shaw has declared many years ago; "BIBLE IS THE MOST DANGEROUS BOOK ON EARTH, KEEP IT UNDER LOCK AND KEY". Bible make it possible for those who wholly believe in it to have different answers to the most important question; Who is God?
This is the reason why Jehovah witnesses were forced to modify the translation of John 1:1, the verse often used by Trinitarian Christians to prove that is Jesus is God. They change the translation of John 1:1 to " In the beginning was the word and the word was with God and the word was a god" . They alter the clause "and the word was God" in all other versions of the Bible to "and the word was a god" in their NWT Bible. Therefore, by refering to Jesus as a lesser "god" they managed to run away from the problem of calling Jesus God.
However, as they managed to run away from the problem of accepting Jesus as God , they were unable to run away from the problem of accepting him as "master worker of all creation" . In other words , like other Christian denominations, the Jehovah witnesses also believe that God created everything THROUGH Jesus Christ . They believe that God did not create anything EXCEPT Jesus. That is to say: God created Jesus, then it was Jesus that created all other things including the heavens and the earth. So according to their claim, Jesus is the immediate Creator of all things. That God created everything through (or by )Jesus Christ is no where to be found in the Gospel of Matthew, Mark and Luke. It is only found in the books written by Paul and John;
Yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, THROUGH WHOM ALL THINGS CAME and through whom we live.( 1st Corinthians 8:6).
For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; ALL THINGS HAVE BEEN CREATED THROUGH him and for him ( Colossians 1:16).
THROUGH him ALL THINGS WERE MADE ; without him nothing was made that has been made (John 1:3)
But is it really true that God assigned the creation of things, including the heavens and earth, to Jesus christ ? Let see what God Almighty say about this matter ;
"This is what the LORD says, your Redeemer and the one who formed you in the womb: 'I am the LORD, who has made everything, who ALONE stretched out the heavens, who spread out the earth BY MYSELF (WHO WAS WITH ME ?) (Isaiah 44:24 KJV, NWT)
"MY OWN HAND laid the foundations of the earth, and MY RIGHT HAND spread out the heavens; when I summon them, they all stand up together. (Isaiah 48:13)".
It is I who made the earth and created mankind on it. MY OWN HANDS stretched out the heavens; I marshaled their starry hosts (Isaiah 45:12)
"For My HAND made all these things, Thus all these things came into being," declares the LORD ( Isaiah 66:2)
As you can see from above, Paul and John proclaimed that God delegated the creation of all things to Jesus Christ. But God Almighty declare that He created all things ALL ALONE, BY HIMSELF, BY HIS OWN HANDS AND NOBODY WAS WITH HIM. What better words do we want God to use before we can believe that He created the heavens and the earth without the assistance of anybody ? If a man hires a contractor as his agent to build a house, could the man say that he built the house “ALL ALONE” and "BY HIS OWN HANDS" without lying? So could God Almighty have lied about creating the heavens and the earth by His own hands while He actually used another distinct person as His agent to actually do the creation for Him?
Besides, who want to know or care that one true God exist if not for His act of creation? The only reason why we label all the idols as " false gods" is because they did not create anything and that is the reason they do not deserve our worship. Therefore, it is quite true that all the worship and glorification we give to God originate from the fact of being the Creator of all things . In other words, the STRONGEST REASON why God deserve our worship, praises and glory is because He was the one that created us and all other things that exist (See Psalm 95:6, 96:4-5, 139:14, Revelation 4:11, 14:7). Does it now make sense to believe that God assigned the creation of all things to another person given that it is through that very act of creation He deserve our worship and through it we acknowledge His existence ? Hence, if Jehovah witnesses and other Christians rely heavily on the words of Paul and John or any other person and therefore insist that God assigned the creation of all things to Jesus Christ, then Jesus deserve their worship because the reasonable response of the creature is to worship their Creator. Yet, only God deserve to be worship. This is exactly the reason why God would never delegate the creation of things to any other person other than Himself as He clearly stated above: "BY MYSELF( Isaiah 44:24)". In fact, the question at the end of Isaiah 44:24 quoted above - "WHO WAS WITH ME ?" present in some versions of the Bible (including NWT Bible of Jehovah's witnesses) is an indisputable evidence that God did not employ the service of anybody during the creation of the heavens and the earth ! But sadly enough, the Christians still prefer those fallible words of men (which they believe to be inspired by God) to those infallible words of God that came DIRECTLY from God's mouth. Is this not the high time for the Christians to question their belief that the whole of the Bible is an inspired word of God? Here we can see how Paul and John contradict God Almighty on the issue of creation; a very important matter that seperate the one true God from all other false gods.
The only way to resolve this contradiction is when we assume that Jesus is God. But as we have already established above, there are many verses of Bible that will never support this assumption. Consequently, if Jehovah witnesses manage to escape the problem of accepting Jesus as God, there is no way they can escape the problem of accepting him as master worker of all creation. The only solution to this problem is to expunge all those fallible words of men from the Bible while allowing the DIRECT words from God's mouth to stay. But then, what are we to say about the authenticity of the Bible ?
Have you now agreed with me that the problem of "Who is God ? and who is the creator ?" is yet to be resolved in the world of Christianity . This is a FOUNDATIONAL problem that can never be overlooked. As we all know, any beautiful mansion that is erected on a very weak foundation is bound to collapse! This problem alone, if properly understood, is enough for any sincere seeker of truth to have preference for Islam over Christianity.
Unlike Bible, Qur'an is consistent regarding the identity of God ; it is consistent in establishing that Allah is God and Allah is the creator of all things, and that Jesus is neither God nor the Creator but one of the mighty prophets of God who was born miraculously by virgin Mary. This is how Islam managed to solve the most nagging problem in Christianity.

There are some Christians who want to argue that Allah is not God. I will only advice these Christians to get a Bible translated in Arabic language. They will discover that there is no any other name that the translators used for God except Allah ( the same spelling with that of Qur'an). Since God is the originator and creator of all languages, there is nothing wrong if God use Allah for himself in Quran given that Qur'an was revealed in Arabic language and there is no any other name that Arabs used for God other than Allah. What these Christians suppose to do is to investigate whether the description and identity given to Allah in Qur'an actually tally with that of God Almighty. Reading those verses of Qur'an quoted below are enough to convince you that description and identity of the speaker (Allah) tally perfectly with that of God Almighty, the God of Israel.
“O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone (Qur’an 2:40-41)”.
I made them not to witness the creation of the heavens and the earth and not (even) their own creation, nor was I to take the misleaders as helpers (Qur'an 18:51)
And that was Our proof which We gave to Abraham against his people. We raise whom We will in degrees. Certainly your Lord is All-Wise, All-Knowing. And We bestowed upon him Isaac and Jacob, each of them We guided. And before him We guided Noah, and among his progeny David, Solomon, Job, Joseph, Moses and Aaron. Thus do We reward the good doers. And Zachariah, and John and Jesus and Elias, all in the ranks of the righteous. And Ishmael and Elisha, and Jonah and Lot; each one of them We preferred above the nations (Qur'an 6:83-86).
O My servants who believe! Certainly, My earth is spacious. Therefore worship Me and Me alone. Every soul shall have a taste of death. Then to Us you shall be brought back (Qur’an 29:56-57).
When My servants ask you concerning Me, I am indeed close to them. I listen to the prayer of every suppliant when he called on Me. Therefore, let them also obey Me and believe in Me, so that they may be walked in the right way (Qur’an 2:186).
We did not send before you (O Muhammad-pbuh) any messenger but We inspired him that there is no God beside Me; therefore worship Me (Qur’an 21:25)
As you can see, all the personal pronouns in all the verses of Qur'an cited above can never be referred CONTEXTUALLY to any other person except God.
present in some versions of the Bible (including NWT Bible of Jehovah

Since any false representation of God is tantamount to IDOLATRY, then it is of great importance that there should be no any iota of confusion regarding the identity of God. However, this is not the case in Christianity. Unlike Qur'an, Bible is not consistent with the identity of God. If it says Jesus is God in one place, then it will say Jesus is not God in another place.


John1:1 declare:" In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." Here we see that THE WORD = GOD

In John 1:14, it states "The Word became flesh, and made His dwelling among us." Here we see again that JESUS = THE WORD. Simple logic declares that if A=B and B=C then A=C.


Therefore, since JESUS = THE WORD and THE WORD = GOD, then JESUS = GOD . This is just one out of many biblical evidence used by Trinitarian Christians to prove that Jesus is God.


Since we have seen how the book of John established that Jesus is God, let us now investigate whether the remaining part of the Bible support this claim or not.
1. Jesus was praying to the Father and he said; "And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the ONLY true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent (John 17:3)" . If Jesus himself was referring to another person (i:e the Father) as the "ONLY true God" , then how could Jesus be God ? If Jesus did not use the word "ONLY", then hopefully the Christians might still want to argue that Jesus is also God just like his Father. However, the word "ONLY" used by Jesus will continue to shatter the hope of those who want to believe that Jesus is God. This verse is the strongest evidence put forward by Jehovah witnesses to prove that Jesus is not God.


2. Similarly in John 20:17, Jesus was reported to have said “I am ascending to my Father and your Father, and to my God and your God”. If Jesus is God Almighty , then which God was he referring to when he said ; "my God and your God" ? Can God Almighty have another God?


3. Also Luke 6:12 says "He (Jesus) went out to the mountain side to pray, and continued all night in prayer to God" . If Jesus is God, who was he praying to? Was he praying to himself ?


4. Similarly, in John 14:28, Jesus said: “My Father is GREATER THAN I”. If Jesus is God, why is he having someone greater than him? Can anybody be greater than God?


5. Again in Mark 10:18, Jesus said to one man who called him good teacher as follows: “why do you call me good? No one is good, but one, that is God”. If Jesus is God, why did he reject being called “good” and then submit that all goodness belongs only to God?


6. Furthermore, in John 14:1, Jesus said “let not your heart be troubled: you believe in God, believe also in me”. Remember Jesus did NOT say: "you believe in Father, believe also in me". He said : "you believe in God, believe also in me”. Therefore, if Jesus is God, why did he clearly distinguish himself from God?

7. Again, in Matthew 24:36, Jesus said; “But of that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the son, but ONLY THE FATHER”. If Jesus is God, why did he confess his lack of knowledge about the Day of Judgment and then submit that the knowledge of that day belongs only to the Father? Can God be lacking anything as regard to knowledge?

8. Finally in John 5:30, Jesus was reported to have said: " I can of my own self do nothing". If Jesus is God, is it possible for All- powerful and independent God to utter this kind of statement?

As you can see, there is no way we can reconcile John 1:1,14 (which teaches that Jesus is God ) with other verses of the Bible that dispute this claim. Despite the fact that Trinitarian Christians and Jehovah witnesses are using the same Bible; yet they differ in their belief regarding the identity of God. The former believe that Jesus is God while the latter believe that Jesus is not God. Have you now seen that the main cause of this discrepancy is the Bible itself. This is the reason why Jehovah witnesses were forced to change the translation of John 1:1 to " In the beginning was the word and the word was with God and the word was a god" . They change the clause "and the word was God" in all other versions of the Bible to "and the word was a god" in their NWT Bible. Therefore, by refering to Jesus as a lesser "god", they managed to run away from the problem of calling Jesus God.


However, as they managed to run away from the problem of accepting Jesus as God , they were unable to run away from the problem of accepting him as "master worker of all creation" . In other words , like other Christian denominations, the Jehovah witnesses also believe that God created everything THROUGH Jesus Christ . They believe that God did not create anything EXCEPT Jesus. That is to say: God created Jesus, then it was Jesus that created all other things including the heavens and the earth. So according to their claim, Jesus is the immediate Creator of all things. That God created everything through (or by )Jesus Christ is no where to be found in the Gospel of Matthew, Mark and Luke. It is only found in the books written by Paul and John;


Yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom all things came and for whom we live; and there is but one Lord, Jesus Christ, THROUGH WHOM ALL THINGS CAME and through whom we live.( 1st Corinthians 8:6).


For in him all things were created: things in heaven and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or powers or rulers or authorities; ALL THINGS HAVE BEEN CREATED THROUGH him and for him ( Colossians 1:16).


THROUGH him ALL THINGS WERE MADE ; without him nothing was made that has been made (John 1:3)


But is it really true that God assigned the creation of heavens and earth to Jesus christ ? Let see what God Almighty say about this matter ;


"This is what the LORD says, your Redeemer and the one who formed you in the womb: 'I am the LORD, who has made everything, who ALONE stretched out the heavens, who spread out the earth BY MYSELF (WHO WAS WITH ME ?) (Isaiah 44:24 KJV, NWT)


"MY OWN HAND laid the foundations of the earth, and MY RIGHT HAND spread out the heavens; when I summon them, they all stand up together. (Isaiah 48:13)".

It is I who made the earth and created mankind on it. MY OWN HANDS stretched out the heavens; I marshaled their starry hosts (Isaiah 45:12)


"For My HAND made all these things, Thus all these things came into being," declares the LORD ( Isaiah 66:2)

As you can see from above, Paul and John proclaimed that God delegated the creation of all things to Jesus Christ. But God Almighty declare that He created all things ALL ALONE, BY HIMSELF, BY HIS OWN HANDS AND NOBODY WAS WITH HIM. What better words do we want God to use before we can believe that He created the heavens and the earth without the assistance of anybody ?

If a man hires a contractor as his agent to build a house, could the man say that he built the house “ALL ALONE” and "BY HIS OWN HANDS" without lying? So could God Almighty have lied about creating the heavens and the earth by His own hands while He actually used another distinct person as His agent to actually do the creation for Him?


Besides, who want to know or care that one true God exist if not for His act of creation? The only reason why we label all the idols as " false gods" is because they did not create anything and that is the reason they do not deserve our worship. Therefore, it is quite true that all the worship and glorification we give to God originate from the fact of being the Creator of all things . In other words, the STRONGEST REASON why God deserve our worship, praises and glory is because He was the one that created us and all other things that exist (See Psalm 95:6, 96:4-5, 139:14, Revelation 4:11, 14:7). Does it now make sense to believe that God assigned the creation of all things to another person given that it is through that very act of creation He deserve our worship and through it we acknowledge His existence ?
Hence, if Jehovah witnesses and other Christians rely heavily on the words of Paul and John or any other person and therefore insist that God assigned the creation of all things to Jesus Christ, then Jesus deserve their worship because the reasonable response of the creature is to worship their Creator. Yet, only God deserve to be worship. This is exactly the reason why God would never delegate the creation of things to any other person other than Himself as He clearly stated above: "BY MYSELF( Isaiah 44:24)".
In fact, the question at the end of Isaiah 44:24 quoted above - "WHO WAS WITH ME ?" present in some versions of the Bible (including NWT Bible of Jehovah's witnesses) is an indisputable evidence that God did not employ the service of anybody during the creation of the heavens and the earth ! But sadly enough, the Christians still prefer those fallible words of men (which they believe to be inspired by God) to those infallible words of God that came DIRECTLY from God's mouth. Is this not the high time for the Christians to question their belief that the whole of the Bible is an inspired word of God? Here we can see how Paul and John contradict God Almighty on the answer to the question "who is the actual Creator of all things?"; a very important question that demands a straightforward answer!


The only way to resolve this contradiction is when we assume that Jesus is God. But as we have already established above, there are many verses of Bible that will never support this assumption.

Consequently, if Jehovah witnesses manage to escape the problem of accepting Jesus as God, there is no way they can escape the problem of accepting him as master worker of all creation. The only solution to this problem is to expunge all those fallible words of men from the Bible while allowing the DIRECT words from God's mouth to stay. But then, what are we to say about the authenticity of the Bible ?


Have you now agreed with me that the problem of "Who is God ? and who is the creator ?" is yet to be resolved in the world of Christianity . This is a FOUNDATIONAL problem that can never be overlooked. As we all know, any beautiful mansion that is erected on a very weak foundation is bound to collapse! This problem alone, if properly understood, is enough for any sincere seeker of truth to have preference for Islam over Christianity.
Unlike Bible, Qur'an is consistent regarding the identity of God ; it is consistent in establishing that God is God and He is the creator of all things, and that Jesus is neither God nor the Creator but one of the mighty prophets of God who was born miraculously by virgin Mary.

There are some Christians who want to argue that Allah is not God. I will only advice these Christians to get a Bible translated in Arabic language. They will discover that there is no other name the authors used for God except Allah ( the same spelling with that of Qur'an). Since God is the originator and creator of all languages, there is nothing wrong if God use Allah for himself in Quran given that Qur'an was revealed in Arabic language and there is no any other name that Arabs used for God other than Allah. What these Christians suppose to do is to investigate whether the description and identity given to Allah in Qur'an actually tally with that of God Almighty. Reading those verses of Qur'an quoted below are enough to convince you that description and identity of the speaker (Allah) tally perfectly with that of God Almighty, the God of Israel.


“O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone (Qur’an 2:40-41)”.


I made them not to witness the creation of the heavens and the earth and not (even) their own creation, nor was I to take the misleaders as helpers (Qur'an 18:51)


And that was Our proof which We gave to Abraham against his people. We raise whom We will in degrees. Certainly your Lord is All-Wise, All-Knowing. And We bestowed upon him Isaac and Jacob, each of them We guided. And before him We guided Noah, and among his progeny David, Solomon, Job, Joseph, Moses and Aaron. Thus do We reward the good doers. And Zachariah, and John and Jesus and Elias, all in the ranks of the righteous. And Ishmael and Elisha, and Jonah and Lot; each one of them We preferred above the nations (Qur'an 6:83-86).


O My servants who believe! Certainly, My earth is spacious. Therefore worship Me and Me alone. Every soul shall have a taste of death. Then to Us you shall be brought back (Qur’an 29:56-57).


When My servants ask you concerning Me, I am indeed close to them. I listen to the prayer of every suppliant when he called on Me. Therefore, let them also obey Me and believe in Me, so that they may be walked in the right way (Qur’an 2:186).


We did not send before you (O Muhammad-pbuh) any messenger but We inspired him that there is no God beside Me; therefore worship Me (Qur’an 21:25)


As you can see, all the personal pronouns in all the verses of Qur'an cited above can never be referred CONTEXTUALLY to any other person except God.

We have atheism, hinduism, buddhism etc on one part. Then we have Judaism, Christianity and Islam on another part.
Let consider the atheism: Atheists are those who reject the existence of God. They only affirm the existence of nature. However, they agree that ; nature is not aware of itself, nature cannot think, nature cannot see, nature cannot hear, nature cannot speak. Yet they believe that human beings with full self awareness that are capable of thinking, capable of seeing, capable of hearing and capable of speaking over 6000 different languages emerged from the same very nature. That is a logical contradiction! Therefore, Atheism can never be true.
Again Hinduism, Buddhism and the likes believe that a supreme god exist along with some other gods. However, this supreme god is impersonal. But how could impersonal god ( that lack free will) create personal human beings which consist of male and female? This is also logically contradictory.
Before I proceed, I want to digress to quickly address the view of those who believe that God exist but do not believe in any organized religion. The major problem with this view is that you have to believe that God did not send anybody to communicate His words to humanity. Therefore, according to this view, all the prophets of God including Moses, Jesus and Muhammad (peace be upon them) are nothing but great liars . Yet it is impossible for all of them to delibrately fabricate a lie against God.
What of Judaism; one of the obvious problem of Judaism is that it is too restricted to some certain places. If it is truly the world view that God want us to adopt, then at this present time, it should be within our reach. We should have free access to it like Christianity and Islam. But this is not so. Besides, there is no any verse in their scriptures commanding the believers to urge the people of all nations to embrace Judaism.
Now we are left with Christianity and Islam. Out of these two faiths, which one did God Almighty endorse and approve ? Let us use a very simple logic explained below;
THE POWER OF "NAME"
Can you imagine what a mess it would be in a world that no one or nothing has a name？Without naming, to make reference to anything would be almost impossible. So, obviously all entities have to get a name in order to distinguish one entity from the other so that our world could be in a state of perfect order. Therefore, the act of giving a person or an entity a "NAME" is indispensable and unavoidable. This is the reason why you hardly see a book without a "NAME" given to it by the author of that book. Consequently, If the WHOLE of the Bible( from Genesis to revelation) was really inspired by God as the Christians want us to believe, then God Himself should have given a NAME to His book. In other words, there must be AT LEAST ONE BIBLICAL VERSE which will contain the word "Bible" because as we have established above a book MUST always have a " NAME" given to it by its original author for proper identification and to distinguish it from all other books present in the world. In the same sense, if God Almighty is really the originator of the "system of faith" we know today as Christianity, then God Himself should have given a NAME to His faith. In other word, there must be AT LEAST ONE BIBLICAL VERSE which will contain the word "Christianity" because any system of faith MUST always have a NAME for proper identification and to distinguish it from all other system of faiths that are present in the world. However, the word "Bible" and the word "Christianity" are no where to be found inside the Bible. Infact, Jesus did not call his followers "Christians" during his life time on the surface of the earth. The word "Christian" was invented in Antioch by Paul and Barnabas many years AFTER Jesus departure from this world- NOT even by the original apostles of Jesus in Jerusalem ; "When he (Barnabas) found him (Paul), he brought him to Antioch , and for a whole year they were guests of the church and taught many people. It was in Antioch that the disciples were FIRST called Christians(Acts 11:26).
If the real founder of Christianity is either God or Jesus, then the word "Christianity" should have been found in the Bible and Jesus Christ himself should have named his followers "Christians" before his departure from this world. The simple reason why Jesus failed to carry out such an important assignment is because He was NOT sent to the whole world to establish any permanent system of faith . By his own admission; I was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the house of Israel (Matthew 15:24). As we have read above, the real founder of Christianity is Paul and his colleagues; not Jesus.
Some of the Christians want to argue that the reason why Christianity is not mention in the Bible is because Jesus did not come to establish any "system of faith" on the earth; he only came to accomplish a "TASK" that will lead to our salvation and reconcilation back to God. But do you know why these Christians get it wrong? They have to exercise a FAITH in this TASK before they can be entitled to its benefits (i:e salvation and reconcilation back to God). If this is the case, then this particular "FAITH" they have to exercise must also have a "NAME" in order to distiguish it from other system of faiths ( like Judaism, Islam, Hinduism, Buddhism etc) that exist on the earth. Therefore, if the present day Christians reject Christianity as the name of their faith, then there is no any other name they can use to address their faith . On the other hand, if they accept Christianity as the name of their faith and insist that this faith is truly from God, then Jesus or God Himself should have made mention of Christianity in the Bible because a "TRUE FAITH" from God must have a unique NAME given to it by God in order to distinguish it from all other false faiths that exist in the world. Like Christianity, the names of all other system of faiths on the earth ( such as Judaism, Hiduism, Buddhism etc) are no where to be found inside their scriptures.
But does Islam suffer from similar problem? Certainly not! The two terms "Qur'an" and "Islam" are found in many verses of the Qur'an. Look at one example for each term
"Had We sent down this QUR'AN on a mountain, you would surely have seen it humbling itself and rending asunder by the fear of God. Such are the parables which We put forward to mankind that they may reflect (Qur'an 59:21)."
"This day, I (God) have perfected your religion for you, and I have completed My favour upon you, and I have chosen for you ISLAM as your religion ( Qur'an 5:3)".
The word "Islam" means ; submission to the will and commandment of God. Those who submit in this manner are called Muslims (i:e submitters to the will and commandment of one true God). God Almighty says in the Qur'an:
O you who believe! Fear God as He should be feared, and die not except as MUSLIMS (Qur'an 3:102).
See the evidence of divine signature! The three terms: "Qur'an", "Islam" and "Muslim" are all present in the Qur'an. But the two terms: "Bible" and "Christianity" are no where to be found inside the Bible. Even the word "Christian" that is present in the Bible is a name that was invented after the departure of Jesus Christ as we have read from above.
Looking at it from another angle, Abraham, Moses, Isaac, Jacob and the likes cannot be called Christians (i:e the followers of Christ) because these people have lived and died before the arrival of Jesus Christ. Therefore, we cannot say they practice Christianity. However, all these People can be called Muslims (i:e submitters to the will and commandment of one true God) without any problem. Hence, we can say conveniently that old testament believers practice Islam (i:e they submit to the will and commandment of one true God).
If the name of our religion is not Islam but mohammedanism (which is analogous to Christianity), then similar problem will occur since we cannot called them Mohammedans and we cannot say they practice Mohammedanism. But God Almighty Himself has carefully chosen the word "Islam" for the name of only religion He is going to accept.

That a prophet slept with a nine year old girl is not enough to falsify Islam. He married her at the age of six with the consent of her father. He did not consumate the marraige until 3 years later. Why did he have to wait for this period of time if he did not take her age and her stature into consideration. Beside there is no any Biblical verse or Qur'anic verse that specifies the age of marraige for a female child. Even if, by our own moral standard, we assume that it is a sin, then it is not stated in any religious scriptures that a true prophet of God can never commit sin. Therefore, this is not enough to falsify Islamic religion

Suppose we are neither Christians nor Muslims. We just believe in God. Now suppose you are being invited to one religion. But in this religion you have to believe that God MUST commit an act of LYING before God can grant salvation to all humanity. Honestly, we will not accept that religion. Why? This is because God is naturally known to ALWAYS tell the TRUTH and never to commit an act of lying. Now what of Christianity which also ask us to believe that God MUST CURSE( See Deuteronomy 21:23, and Galatians 3:13) His innocent and beloved son(or prophet) before God can grant salvation to humanity. Using the same standard, Christianity has to be rejected because God is naturally known to ALWAYS BLESS His innocent and beloved son( or prophet) and never to curse His innocent and beloved son(or prophet). If Jesus has to die by stoning to death, then this very argument against Christianity will no longer be valid. But according to the Christians, he was not only die but also accursed by God due to his supposed death on the cross.

But why MUST Jesus suffer and die on the cross before God can forgive our sins? If it is an act of injustice for God to freely forgive our sins, then is it not a GREATER ACT OF INJUSTICE for God to condemn an innocent and righteous soul for the sins he did not commit ? Besides, Bible make it clear that any one that is crucified is accursed by God ( Galatians 3:13). How then are we to conceive a merciful and omnipotent God putting His BELOVED prophet under His CURSE when God of course knew that Jesus never did anything wrong?
If God is All-powerful and All-knowing Creator which ( therefore) CANNOT BE COMPELLED to follow one particular way, then He must have chosen at least one rational way to forgive our sins and earn our salvation . God Almighty must have set aside any irrational way that will later require Him to curse and condemn His innocent and beloved prophet for something that can be achieved through another means. Yes, one of the rational means which God has chosen to forgive our sins and earn our salvation is SINCERE REPENTANCE from our sinful acts : “Son of man, say to the Israelites; this is what you are saying: our offenses and sins weigh us down, and we are wasting away because of them. How then can we live? Say to them: as surely as I live declares the sovereign Lord, I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from their ways and live. Turn! TURN FROM YOUR EVIL WAYS! Why will you die, people of Israel? Therefore, son of man say to your people… if someone, one who is wicked, REPENTS, that person’s former wickedness will not bringcondemnation… And if I say to the wicked person, you will surely die, but they then TURN FROM THEIR SINS and do what is just and right…follow the decree that gives life, and do no evil--THAT PERSON WILL SURELY LIVE :THEY WILL NOT DIE. NONE OF THE SINS that person has committed will be remembered against them.They have done what is just and right; they will surely live (Ezekiel 33:10-16)" . Did God ask the wicked sinners to believe in Jesus crucifixion before their sins can be forgiven (or before they can live) in all these verses? What He actually wants from them is sincere repentance from their sinful ways. Qur'an also pass the same message: O you who believe! Turn to Allah with SINCERE REPENTANCE! It may be that your Lord will REMIT FROM YOU YOUR SINS, and admit you into Gardens under which rivers flow (Qur'an 66:7-9).
Another rational way that God has chosen in the past for the people to achieve divine forgiveness of sins is through animal sacrifice. Leviticus 16:21-30 says as follow: "the GOAT will carry on itself ALL THE SINS of Israelites to a remote place and the man shall release the goat in the wilderness..... Then before the LORD, you will be CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS”. Please is there any indication in these verses that the sins of Israelites were only "cover" and not completely taken away? God says; “Then before the LORD, you will be CLEAN FROM ALL YOUR SINS”. Yet the New Testament proclaimed that it is impossible for the blood of bulls and goats to take away sin (Hebrew 10:4). This is another great lie that was fabricated to justify the doctrine of sin atonement through Jesus crucifixion. If God can truly atone for our sins through animal sacrifice as the verses in the book of Leviticus quoted above affirm, then is there any need again for God to shed the blood of innocent human being on the cross ?
Therefore, if divine forgiveness for our sins is what we really need to gain eternal life, then the death of Jesus on the cross IS NOT NECCESSARY; God can decide to forgive our sins through sincere repentance or through animal sacrifice as He has done with the people that lived and died before Jesus arrival. These two ways are far more better than that irrational way which will later require God Almighty to condemn and curse His innocent and beloved prophet for something that can be acheived through another rational means.
Some Christians might want to argue that Jesus crucifixion make them entitle to many spiritual benefits that GO BEYOND achieving divine forgiveness for our sins. But no matter how numerous the spiritual benefits that can be derived from Jesus crucifixion, there is no way for such benefits to be ACTUALIZED in the life of the Old Testament believers (like Abraham, Isaac, Jacob,Moses, Isaiah, Jeremiah etc) because they have lived and died before Jesus arrival talkless of his supposed crucifixion. Yet these people manage to earn their salvation and reconcilation back to God (because there is no any biblical verse that says these Old Testament believers were in a certain state of condemnation after their death until the time of Jesus crucifixion). So if these old testament believers, who happened to be among the children of Adam, were able to gain their salvation without Jesus crucifixion, then there is alternative way also for the other children of Adam to gain their salvation without Jesus crucifixion. Therefore, the Christian doctrine which says that: "All powerful and All merciful God MUST condemn and curse His innocent and beloved son on the cross before the children of Adam can earn their salvation" is NOT TRUE

The remaining FOUR PROBLEMS I noticed with Christianity are listed below; 1. Problem of " WHO IS GOD?" ( Compare John 1:1,14 WITH John 17:3, John 20:17, John 14:28,John 5:30, John 14:1, Luke 6:12, Mark 10:18 and Matthew 24:36) and WHO IS THE CREATOR ? ( Compare John 1:3, 1st Corinthians 8:6, Colossians 1:16 WITH Isaiah 44:24, 48:13, 45:12 and 66:2). 2. Problem of All merciful and All powerful Father who CURSED (Deuteronomy 21:23,Galatians 3:13) His innocent and beloved son in order to achieve something that can be achieved through another way ( all the Old testament Prophets and believers lived and died before Jesus crucifixion; Yet there is no any biblical verse that says they were in the state of condemnation after their death until the time of Jesus crucifixion). 3. Problem of "Jesus' private appearance to Paul" NOT BEING FORETOLD to the original apostles: ( Compare Matthew 24:23-28, Luke 10:18 With Acts 22:6-9. Compare Genesis 17:9-14, Luke 2:21 With Galatians 5:2-4, Acts 23:12-14. Compare Acts 21:18-31 With Acts 26:1-8, 19-21, Romans 3:7. Compare 2 Corinthians 12:16 with Jeremiah 48:10)" 4 . Problem of "the Bible not being endorsed by God ; (the word "Bible" is no where to be found inside the Bible)". If you rely heavily on the MIRACLE and WONDERS you receive in Jesus name and overlook all these FIVE problems in Christianity, then you are not a wise person; because performing wonders and miracle in Jesus name is NOT a conclusive evidence for authenticity of Christianity due to Jesus statement; MANY will say to me in that day ‘Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and done many wonders in your name? And then I will declare to them; I NEVER KNEW YOU depart from me, you who practice lawlessness. (Matthew 7:22-23). Again, If you insist that Qur'an is not from God then you have to solve another great problem; PROBLEM OF GOD'S IMPERSONATION Let me explain it for you; Qur'an contain many REASONABLE verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD'S MOUTH. Look at one example; O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone (Qur’an 2:40-41)”. If the original author of Qur'an is not God, then ONE GREAT LIAR HAS IMPERSONATED GOD. Yes, a dishonest and untruthful person may allow his FRIEND to impersonate him in order to deceive some innocent people. Now, what about a truthful and honest person like you? Would you allow your friend to impersonate you reasonably and perfectly in order to deceive some innocent people? CERTAINLY NOT! Your Honesty and your truthfulness will never allow you to do such a thing. Now,if you as a truthful and honest person will never allow your friend (talkless of your enemy) to reasonably and perfectly impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people, then why do you think God Almighty, WHO IS MORE TRUTHFUL AND MORE HONEST THAN YOU, would allow His enemy ( not His friend this time around) to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly ( See the verses of Qur'an quoted just above)? Of course God Almighty would NEVER allow such a thing to happen. God may allow anybody to write or speak about Him as you may also allow your friend to write or speak about you. But God of truth and honesty will NEVER allow His friend talkless of His enemy to impersonate Him; just like you as a truthful and honest person will never allow your friend or your enemy to impersonate you. This is the reason why you can NEVER find a single verse coming DIRECTLY from God's mouth in the New Testament, the backbone of Christianity.Yet we can find many verses coming DIRECTLY from God's mouth in the Old Testament. Why? Because Christianity is never from God! Now, let us take A VERY GREAT AND COSTLY ASSUMPTION by assuming that God Almighty, in His infinite wisdom, deliberately allow His enemy to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly in order to serve as a TEST for the true believers in the Bible. If this is the case, then God should have clearly informed us in the Bible just like Jesus informed us about his own impersonation: “Take heed that no one deceives you. For MANY WILL COME IN MY NAME, saying ‘I am the Christ’, and will deceive many (Matthew 24:4-5) ”.See how Jesus declared in an unambiguous terms that MANY LIARS would impersonate him. However, you can never find a single biblical verse where God categorically inform us and foretell that a great liar is going to impersonate Him. If God of truth and honesty would also allow a liar to impersonate Him, He should also have informed us in a very precise term in the Bible just like Jesus did. Read the summary of my point below: Qur'an contain many verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD'S MOUTH. Yet there is NO ANY VERSE in the Bible where it is prophesied that one great liar will IMPERSONATE God. Therefore, with respect to the Bible, the probability of Qur'an being the word of a liar is ZERO. The New Testament do NOT contain any verse that appear to be coming directly from God's mouth. Therefore, it is not entitle to this divine endorsement. Although it contains many verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM Jesus 'mouth. But there are some verses that prophesied that MANY LIARS WILL IMPERSONATE JESUS( e.g Matthew 24:4-5). Therefore, there is a probability, no matter how small it is, that some of the words attributed to Jesus may not actually came from his mouth.

Jesus said; I WAS SENT ONLY TO LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24) Again Jesus commanded his twelve apostles as follows; THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM, SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES, AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent ONLY to the Israelites. However, many of the Christians believe that this command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" was later cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations JUST BEFORE Jesus ascended to heaven: 1. Matthew 28:19; "Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit". 2. Mark 16.15; “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation.” 3. Acts 1.8 ; "and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth.” 4. Luke 24.47; “that repentance for forgiveness of sins should be proclaimed in His name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem.” Therefore, it seems from these four verses that the apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPEL TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD. But was it REALLY TRUE that the original apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPELS TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD ? If this is true, then why did Peter utter the statement below MANY YEARS AFTER Jesus' departure from this world? "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN. So when I was sent for, I came without raising any objection. May I ask why you sent for me? (Acts 10:28-29 NIV). Was Peter NOT aware that they were now FREE to visit the gentiles and preach the gospel to all the nations of the world? Some of the Christians want to argue that the reason why Peter said: "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE" is because he has forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching to all the nations of the world. But if this is true, then why did remaining Jewish believers in Christ criticize Peter on the SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES on his return to Jerusalem as the following passage revealed ? Acts 11 New Living Translation (NLT) "Soon the news reached the apostles and other believers in Judea that the Gentiles had received the word of God. But when Peter arrived back in Jerusalem, THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM. “YOU ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND EVEN ATE WITH THEM!” (Acts 11:1-3 NLT). Have they also forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching all the nations of the world? If the other Jewish believers in Christ do not critize Peter on his arrival to Jerusalem ON THE SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES as shown above, then we may think that it was Peter that was saying nonsense when he said "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. (Acts 10:28).The second part of the Peter's statement "BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN" is only referring to the "VISION" he experienced just before the arrival of the men sent by Cornelius (See Acts 10:1-28) . The statement has NOTHING to do with the so-called Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world . Again see the reaction of these Jewish believers in Christ when Peter finished the narration of his Vision; "When they heard this, they had NO FURTHER OBJECTIONS and praised God, saying, "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES, God has granted repentance that leads to life.(Acts 11:18 NIV). Please see the astonishment of these Jewish believers; "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES" . If they have already aware about the Jesus'new command of Preaching to all the Gentile nations in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47, and Acts 1:8, then WHY ALL THIS ASTONISHMENT? Again some Christians want to argue that the reason why Peter said:"YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE(Acts 10:28)" is because Peter and other apostles find it difficult to discard the Jewish custom of not associating and visiting the Gentiles. However,The fact that Peter responded positively to that VISION and go quickly with those gentiles is an evidence that he never find it difficult to discard this Jewish custom. Again, it is not possible for the all the apostles and disciples of Jesus to give PREFERENCE for mere Jewish custom OVER a great and important command from their Master. What actually preventing them was the command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" in Matthew 10:5-6 and the fact that Jesus told them CATEGORICALLY that he was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the house of Israel( Matthew 15:24).Do you think Peter would follow those gentiles to meet Cornelius if not because of the VISION he experienced before their arrival. From this, we can be deduced that even if there is a record that Peter and other apostles preach to another Gentile apart from Cornelius and his households, then what "PERMIT" them to do this was the VISION that Peter experienced. It is DEFINITELY NOT the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed FALSELY to Jesus in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts 1:8. Otherwise, the story of events between Peter and Cornelius (Acts 10) and also between Peter and other Jewish believers(Acts 11) are NOT TRUE. Infact, the truth of this forgery can also be realized from Jesus own statement; if it was already in the divine plan that JESUS AND HIS APOSTLES WOULD PREACH TO THE JEWS FIRST AND THEN THE GENTILES, then Jesus' statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. This is the FIRST PROBLEM WITH CHRISTIANITY.

The remaining FOUR PROBLEMS I noticed with Christianity are listed below; 1. Problem of " WHO IS GOD?" ( Compare John 1:1,14 WITH John 17:3, John 20:17, John 14:28,John 5:30, John 14:1, Luke 6:12, Mark 10:18 and Matthew 24:36) and WHO IS THE CREATOR ? ( Compare John 1:3, 1st Corinthians 8:6, Colossians 1:16 WITH Isaiah 44:24, 48:13, 45:12 and 66:2). 2. Problem of All merciful and All powerful Father who CURSED (Deuteronomy 21:23,Galatians 3:13) His innocent and beloved son in order to achieve something that can be achieved through another way ( all the Old testament Prophets and believers lived and died before Jesus crucifixion; Yet there is no any biblical verse that says they were in the state of condemnation after their death until the time of Jesus crucifixion). 3. Problem of "Jesus' private appearance to Paul" NOT BEING FORETOLD to the original apostles: ( Compare Matthew 24:23-28, Luke 10:18 With Acts 22:6-9. Compare Genesis 17:9-14, Luke 2:21 With Galatians 5:2-4, Acts 23:12-14. Compare Acts 21:18-31 With Acts 26:1-8, 19-21, Romans 3:7. Compare 2 Corinthians 12:16 with Jeremiah 48:10)" 4 . Problem of "the Bible not being endorsed by God ; (the word "Bible" is no where to be found inside the Bible)". If you rely heavily on the MIRACLE and WONDERS you receive in Jesus name and overlook all these FIVE problems in Christianity, then you are not a wise person; because performing wonders and miracle in Jesus name is NOT a conclusive evidence for authenticity of Christianity due to Jesus statement; MANY will say to me in that day ‘Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and done many wonders in your name? And then I will declare to them; I NEVER KNEW YOU depart from me, you who practice lawlessness. (Matthew 7:22-23). Again, If you insist that Qur'an is not from God then you have to solve another great problem; PROBLEM OF GOD'S IMPERSONATION Let me explain it for you; Qur'an contain many REASONABLE verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD'S MOUTH. Look at one example; O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone (Qur’an 2:40-41)”. If the original author of Qur'an is not God, then ONE GREAT LIAR HAS IMPERSONATED GOD. Yes, a dishonest and untruthful person may allow his FRIEND to impersonate him in order to deceive some innocent people. But what about a truthful and honest person like you? Would you allow your friend to impersonate you reasonably and perfectly in order to deceive some innocent people? CERTAINLY NOT! Your Honesty and your truthfulness will never allow you to do such a thing. Now,if you as a truthful and honest person will never allow your friend (talkless of your enemy) to reasonably and perfectly impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people, then why do you think God Almighty, WHO IS MORE TRUTHFUL AND MORE HONEST THAN YOU, would allow His enemy ( not His friend this time around) to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly ( See the verses of Qur'an quoted just above)? Of course God Almighty would NEVER allow such a thing to happen. God may allow anybody to write or speak about Him as you may also allow your friend to write or speak about you. But God of truth and honesty will NEVER allow His friend talkless of His enemy to impersonate Him; just like you as a truthful and honest person will never allow your friend or your enemy to impersonate you. This is the reason why you can NEVER find a single verse coming DIRECTLY from God's mouth in the New Testament, the backbone of Christianity.Yet we can find many verses coming DIRECTLY from God's mouth in the Old Testament. Why? Because Christianity is never from God! Now, let us take A VERY GREAT AND COSTLY ASSUMPTION by assuming that God Almighty, in His infinite wisdom, deliberately allow His enemy to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly in order to serve as a TEST for the true believers in the Bible. If this is the case, then God should have clearly informed us in the Bible just like Jesus informed us about his own impersonation: “Take heed that no one deceives you. For MANY WILL COME IN MY NAME, saying ‘I am the Christ’, and will deceive many (Matthew 24:4-5) ”.See how Jesus declared in an unambiguous terms that MANY LIARS would impersonate him. However, you can never find a single biblical verse where God categorically inform us and foretell that a great liar is going to impersonate Him. If God of truth and honesty would also allow a liar to impersonate Him, He should also have informed us in a very precise term in the Bible just like Jesus did. The summary of my point on this issue of God's impersonation is explained below: Qur'an contain many verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD'S MOUTH. Yet there is NO ANY VERSE in the Bible where it is prophesied that one great liar will IMPERSONATE God. Therefore, from the biblical point of view, the probability of Qur'an being the word of a liar is ZERO. The New Testament do NOT contain any verse that appear to be coming directly from God's mouth. Therefore, it is not entitle to this divine endorsement. Although it contains many verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM Jesus 'mouth. But there are some verses that prophesied that MANY LIARS WILL IMPERSONATE JESUS ( e.g Matthew 24:4-5). Therefore, there is a probability, no matter how small it is, that some of the words attributed to Jesus may not actually came from his mouth.

Jesus said; I WAS SENT ONLY TO LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24) Again Jesus commanded his twelve apostles as follows; THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT OUT WITH THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS; “DO NOT GO AMONG THE GENTILES OR ENTER ANY TOWN OF THE SAMARITANS. GO RATHER TO THE LOST OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent ONLY to the Israelites. However, many of the Christians believe that this command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" was later cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations JUST BEFORE Jesus ascended to heaven: 1. Matthew 28:19; "Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit". 2. Mark 16.15; “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation.” 3. Acts 1.8 ; "and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth.” 4. Luke 24.47; “that repentance for forgiveness of sins should be proclaimed in His name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem.” Therefore, it seems from these four verses that the apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPEL TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD. But was it REALLY TRUE that the original apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPELS TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD ? If this is true, then why did Peter utter the statement below MANY YEARS AFTER Jesus' departure from this world? "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN. So when I was sent for, I came without raising any objection. May I ask why you sent for me? (Acts 10:28-29 NIV). Was Peter NOT aware that they were now FREE to visit the gentiles and preach the gospel to all the nations of the world? Some of the Christians want to argue that the reason why Peter said: "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE" is because he has forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching to all the nations of the world. But if this is true, then why did remaining Jewish believers in Christ criticize Peter on the SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES on his return to Jerusalem as the following passage revealed ? Acts 11 New Living Translation (NLT) "Soon the news reached the apostles and other believers in Judea that the Gentiles had received the word of God. But when Peter arrived back in Jerusalem, THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM. “YOU ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND EVEN ATE WITH THEM!” they said (Acts 11:1-3 NLT). Have they also forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching to all the nations of the world? If the other Jewish believers in Christ did not criticize Peter on his arrival to Jerusalem ON THE SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES as shown above, then we may think that it was Peter that was saying nonsense when he said "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. (Acts 10:28). The second part of the Peter's statement "BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN" is only referring to the "VISION" he experienced just before the arrival of the men sent by Cornelius (See Acts 10:1-28) . The statement has NOTHING to do with the so-called Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world . Again see the reaction of these Jewish believers in Christ when Peter finished the narration of his Vision; "When they heard this, they had NO FURTHER OBJECTIONS and praised God, saying, "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES, God has granted repentance that leads to life.(Acts 11:18 NIV). Please see the astonishment of these Jewish believers; "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES" . If they have already aware about the Jesus'new command of Preaching to all the Gentile nations in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47, and Acts 1:8, then WHY ALL THIS ASTONISHMENT? Again some Christians want to argue that the reason why Peter said:"YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE(Acts 10:28)" is because Peter and other apostles find it difficult to discard the Jewish custom of not associating and visiting the Gentiles. However,the fact that Peter responded positively to that VISION and go quickly with those gentiles is an evidence that he never find it difficult to discard this Jewish custom. Again, it is not possible for all the apostles and disciples of Jesus to give PREFERENCE for mere Jewish custom OVER a great and important command from their Master. What actually preventing them was the command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" in Matthew 10:5-6 and the fact that Jesus told them CATEGORICALLY that he was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the house of Israel( Matthew 15:24).Do you think Peter would follow those gentiles to meet Cornelius if not because of the VISION he experienced just before their arrival. From this, it can be deduced that even if there is a record that Peter and other apostles preach to another Gentile apart from Cornelius and his households, then what "PERMIT" them to do this was the VISION that Peter experienced. It is DEFINITELY NOT the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed FALSELY to Jesus in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts 1:8. Otherwise, the story of events between Peter and Cornelius (Acts 10:1-28) and also between Peter and other Jewish believers(Acts 11:1-18) are NOT TRUE. Infact, the truth of this forgery can also be realized from Jesus own statement; I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel (Matthew 15:24). If it was already in the divine plan that JESUS AND HIS APOSTLES WOULD PREACH TO THE JEWS FIRST AND THEN THE GENTILES, then Jesus' statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. This is the FIRST PROBLEM I DISCOVER IN CHRISTIANITY.

you dont understand simple english .What Allah was saying is that we (Muslim) should not take Christian as our helper and protectot or as our bossom friend

The remaining FOUR PROBLEMS I noticed with Christianity are listed below;
1. Problem of " WHO IS GOD?" ( Compare John 1:1,14 WITH John 17:3, John 20:17, John 14:28,John 5:30, John 14:1, Luke 6:12, Mark 10:18 and Matthew 24:36) and WHO IS THE CREATOR ? ( Compare John 1:3, 1st Corinthians 8:6, Colossians 1:16 WITH Isaiah 44:24, 48:13, 45:12 and 66:2).

2. Problem of All merciful and All powerful Father who CURSED (Deuteronomy 21:23,Galatians 3:13) His innocent and beloved son in order to achieve something that can be achieved through another way ( all the Old testament Prophets and believers lived and died before Jesus crucifixion; Yet there is no any biblical verse that says they were in the state of condemnation after their death until the time of Jesus crucifixion).

3. Problem of "Jesus' private appearance to Paul" NOT BEING FORETOLD to the original apostles: ( Compare Matthew 24:23-28, Luke 10:18 With Acts 22:6-9. Compare Genesis 17:9-14, Luke 2:21 With Galatians 5:2-4, Acts 23:12-14. Compare Acts 21:18-31 With Acts 26:1-8, 19-21, Romans 3:7. Compare 2 Corinthians 12:16 with Jeremiah 48:10)"

4 . Problem of "the Bible not being endorsed by God ; (the word "Bible" is no where to be found inside the Bible)".

If you rely heavily on the MIRACLE and WONDERS you receive in Jesus name and overlook all these FIVE problems in Christianity, then you are not a wise person; because performing wonders and miracle in Jesus name is NOT a conclusive evidence for authenticity of Christianity due to Jesus statement; MANY will say to me in that day ‘Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and done many wonders in your name? And then I will declare to them; I NEVER KNEW YOU depart from me, you who practice lawlessness. (Matthew 7:22-23).

Again, If you insist that Qur'an is not from God then you have to solve another great problem; PROBLEM OF GOD'S IMPERSONATION
Let me explain it for you;
Qur'an contain many REASONABLE verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD'S MOUTH. Look at one example;
O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone (Qur’an 2:40-41)”.
If the original author of Qur'an is not God, then ONE GREAT LIAR HAS IMPERSONATED GOD.
Yes, a dishonest and untruthful person may allow his FRIEND to impersonate him in order to deceive some innocent people.
But what about a truthful and honest person like you? Would you allow your friend to impersonate you reasonably and perfectly in order to deceive some innocent people? CERTAINLY NOT! Your Honesty and your truthfulness will never allow you to do such a thing.
Now,if you as a truthful and honest person will never allow your friend (talkless of your enemy) to reasonably and perfectly impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people, then why do you think God Almighty, WHO IS MORE TRUTHFUL AND MORE HONEST THAN YOU, would allow His enemy ( not His friend this time around) to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly ( See the verses of Qur'an quoted just above)? Of course God Almighty would NEVER allow such a thing to happen.
God may allow anybody to write or speak about Him as you may also allow your friend to write or speak about you. But God of truth and honesty will NEVER allow His friend talkless of His enemy to impersonate Him; just like you as a truthful and honest person will never allow your friend or your enemy to impersonate you.
This is the reason why you can NEVER find a single verse coming DIRECTLY from God's mouth in the New Testament, the backbone of Christianity.Yet we can find many verses coming DIRECTLY from God's mouth in the Old Testament. Why? Because Christianity is never from God!

Now, let us take A VERY GREAT AND COSTLY ASSUMPTION by assuming that God Almighty, in His infinite wisdom, deliberately allow His enemy to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly in order to serve as a TEST for the true believers in the Bible. If this is the case, then God should have clearly informed us in the Bible just like Jesus informed us about his own impersonation: “Take heed that no one deceives you. For MANY WILL COME IN MY NAME, saying ‘I am the Christ’, and will deceive many (Matthew 24:4-5) ”.See how Jesus declared in an unambiguous terms that MANY LIARS would impersonate him. However, you can never find a single biblical verse where God categorically inform us and foretell that a great liar is going to impersonate Him. If God of truth and honesty would also allow a liar to impersonate Him, He should also have informed us in a very precise term in the Bible just like Jesus did.
The summary of my point on this issue of God's impersonation is explained below:
Qur'an contain many verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD'S MOUTH. Yet there is NO ANY VERSE in the Bible where it is prophesied that one great liar will IMPERSONATE God. Therefore, from the biblical point of view, the probability of Qur'an being the word of a liar is ZERO. The New Testament do NOT contain any verse that appear to be coming directly from God's mouth. Therefore, it is not entitle to this divine endorsement. Although it contains many verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM Jesus 'mouth. But there are some verses that prophesied that MANY LIARS WILL IMPERSONATE JESUS ( e.g Matthew 24:4-5). Therefore, there is a probability, no matter how small it is, that some of the words attributed to Jesus may not actually came from his mouth.

Jesus said; I WAS SENT ONLY TO LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)


Again Jesus commanded his twelve apostles as follows; THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT OUT WITH THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS; “DO NOT GO AMONG THE GENTILES OR ENTER ANY TOWN OF THE SAMARITANS. GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent ONLY to the Israelites.


However, many of the Christians believe that this command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" was later cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations JUST BEFORE Jesus ascended to heaven:
1. Matthew 28:19; "Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit".
2. Mark 16.15; “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation.”
3. Acts 1.8 ; "and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth.”
4. Luke 24.47; “that repentance for forgiveness of sins should be proclaimed in His name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem.”


Therefore, it seems from these four verses that the apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPEL TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD.
But was it REALLY TRUE that the original apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPELS TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD ?

If this is true, then why did Peter utter the statement below MANY YEARS AFTER Jesus' departure from this world?
"YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN. So when I was sent for, I came without raising any objection. May I ask why you sent for me? (Acts 10:28-29 NIV). Was Peter NOT aware that they were now FREE to visit the gentiles and preach the gospel to all the nations of the world?


Some of the Christians want to argue that the reason why Peter said: "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE" is because he has forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching to all the nations of the world. But if this is true, then why did remaining Jewish believers in Christ criticize Peter on the SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES on his return to Jerusalem as the following passage revealed ?

Acts 11 New Living Translation (NLT)
"Soon the news reached the apostles and other believers in Judea that the Gentiles had received the word of God. But when Peter arrived back in Jerusalem, THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM. “YOU ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND EVEN ATE WITH THEM!” they said (Acts 11:1-3 NLT).
Have they also forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching to all the nations of the world? If the other Jewish believers in Christ did not criticize Peter on his arrival to Jerusalem ON THE SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES as shown above, then we may think that it was Peter that was saying nonsense when he said "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. (Acts 10:28).
The second part of the Peter's statement "BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN" is only referring to the "VISION" he experienced just before the arrival of the men sent by Cornelius (See Acts 10:1-28) . The statement has NOTHING to do with the so-called Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world .

Again see the reaction of these Jewish believers in Christ when Peter finished the narration of his Vision; "When they heard this, they had NO FURTHER OBJECTIONS and praised God, saying, "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES, God has granted repentance that leads to life.(Acts 11:18 NIV). Please see the astonishment of these Jewish believers; "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES" .
If they have already aware about the Jesus'new command of Preaching to all the Gentile nations in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47, and Acts 1:8, then WHY ALL THIS ASTONISHMENT?

Again some Christians want to argue that the reason why Peter said:"YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE(Acts 10:28)" is because Peter and other apostles find it difficult to discard the Jewish custom of not associating and visiting the Gentiles. However,the fact that Peter responded positively to that VISION and go quickly with those gentiles is an evidence that he never find it difficult to discard this Jewish custom. Again, it is not possible for all the apostles and disciples of Jesus to give PREFERENCE for mere Jewish custom OVER a great and important command from their Master. What actually preventing them was the command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" in Matthew 10:5-6 and the fact that Jesus told them CATEGORICALLY that he was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the house of Israel( Matthew 15:24).Do you think Peter would follow those gentiles to meet Cornelius if not because of the VISION he experienced just before their arrival.

From this, it can be deduced that even if there is a record that Peter and other apostles preach to another Gentile apart from Cornelius and his households, then what "PERMIT" them to do this was the VISION that Peter experienced. It is DEFINITELY NOT the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed FALSELY to Jesus in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts 1:8. Otherwise, the story of events between Peter and Cornelius (Acts 10:1-28) and also between Peter and other Jewish believers(Acts 11:1-18) are NOT TRUE.
Infact, the truth of this forgery can also be realized from Jesus own statement; I was sent only to the lost sheep of the house of Israel(Matthew 15:24). If it was already in the divine plan that JESUS AND HIS APOSTLES WOULD PREACH TO THE JEWS FIRST AND THEN THE GENTILES, then Jesus' statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”.

This is the FIRST PROBLEM I DISCOVER IN CHRISTIANITY.

You finally run away

What Allah was saying in maaida: 51 is that we should not take Jews and Christian as Awliyah ; that is the original arabic word used in Quran. The meaning of this word can be " helper or protector or an intimate friend" .Not an ordinary friend. Get arabic dictionary to confirm this. Please do you agree with me that it is either Matthew 28:19 and its colleagues are fake or Acts 10 and Acts 11 are fake? Both cannot be true. One must be fake

What Allah was saying in maaida: 51 is that we should not take Jews and Christian as Awliyah ; that is the original arabic word used in Quran. The meaning of this word can be " helper or protector or an intimate friend" .Not an ordinary friend. Get arabic dictionary to confirm this. Please do you agree with me that it is either Matthew 28:19 and its colleagues are fake or Acts 10 and Acts 11 are fake? Both cannot be true.

THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM: "YOU ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND EVEN ATE WITH THEM!” ( Acts 11:3 NLT) If the other Jewish believers in Christ did not critize Peter on his arrival to Jerusalem ON THE SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES as shown above, then we may think that it was Peter that was saying nonsense when he said "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. (Acts 10:28).The second part of the Peter's statement "BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN" is only referring to the "VISION" he experienced just before the arrival of the men sent by Cornelius as we have read from the passage . The statement has NOTHING to do with the so-called Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world . Again see the reaction of these Jewish believers in Christ when Peter finished the narration of his Vision; "When they heard this, they had NO FURTHER OBJECTIONS and praised God, saying, "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES, God has granted repentance that leads to life.(Acts 11:18 NIV) Please see the astonishment of these Jewish believers; "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES" . If they have already aware about the Jesus'new command of Preaching to all the Gentiles in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47, and Acts 1:8, then WHY ALL THESE ASTONISHMENT? Please get me clear for the last time. This is MY POINT: Even if it is true that Peter and other apostles preached to more Gentiles apart from Cornelius and his households as you claim, then what "PERMIT" them to do this was the VISION that Peter experienced. It is DEFINITELY NOT the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed FALSELY to Jesus in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts 1:8. Otherwise, the story of events between Peter and Cornelius and also between Peter and otherJewish believers are NOT TRUE. Please do you AGREE with me on this point or not ? ( before I proceed to answer your questions regarding those verses of Qur'an )

THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM : "YOU ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND
EVEN ATE WITH THEM!” ( Acts 11:3 NLT)
If the other Jewish believers in Christ did not
critize Peter on his arrival to Jerusalem ON THE
SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING
WITH GENTILES as shown above, then we may
think that it was Peter that was saying nonsense
when he said "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS
AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE
WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. (Acts 10:28).The
second part of the Peter's statement "BUT GOD
HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL
ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN" is only referring
to the "VISION" he experienced just before the
arrival of the men sent by Cornelius as we have
read from the passage . The statement has
NOTHING to do with the so-called Jesus' new
command of preaching to all the nations of the
world .
Again see the reaction of these Jewish believers in
Christ when Peter finished the narration of his
Vision; "When they heard this, they had NO
FURTHER OBJECTIONS and praised God, saying,
"SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES, God has granted
repentance that leads to life.(Acts 11:18 NIV)
Please see the astonishment of these Jewish
believers; "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES" . If
they have already aware about the Jesus'new
command of Preaching to all the Gentiles in
Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47, and Acts
1:8, then WHY ALL THESE ASTONISHMENT?
Please get me clear for the last time. This is MY
POINT: Even if it is true that Peter and other
apostles preached to more Gentiles apart from
Cornelius and his households as you claim, then
what "PERMIT" them to do this was the VISION
that Peter experienced. It is DEFINITELY NOT the
new command of preaching to all the nations
attributed FALSELY to Jesus in Matthew 28:19,
Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts 1:8. Otherwise,
the story of events between Peter and Cornelius
and also between Peter and otherJewish believers
are NOT TRUE. Please do you AGREE with me on
this point or not ? ( before I proceed to answer
your questions regarding those verses of Qur'an )

THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM. “YOU ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND EVEN ATE WITH THEM!” ( Acts 11:3 NLT)
If the other Jewish believers in Christ did not critize Peter on his arrival to Jerusalem ON THE SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES as shown above, then we may think that it was Peter that was saying nonsense when he said "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. (Acts 10:28).The second part of the Peter's statement "BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN" is only referring to the "VISION" he experienced just before the arrival of the men sent by Cornelius as we have read from the passage . The statement has NOTHING to do with the so-called Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world .
Again see the reaction of these Jewish believers in Christ when Peter finished the narration of his Vision; "When they heard this, they had NO FURTHER OBJECTIONS and praised God, saying, "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES, God has granted repentance that leads to life.(Acts 11:18 NIV) Please see the astonishment of these Jewish believers; "SO THEN, EVEN THE GENTILES" . If they have already aware about the Jesus'new command of Preaching to all the Gentiles in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47, and Acts 1:8, then WHY ALL THESE ASTONISHMENT? Please get me clear for the last time. This is MY POINT: Even if it is true that Peter and other apostles preached to more Gentiles apart from Cornelius and his households as you claim, then what "PERMIT" them to do this was the VISION that Peter experienced. It is DEFINITELY NOT the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed FALSELY to Jesus in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts 1:8. Otherwise, the story of events between Peter and Cornelius and also between Peter and otherJewish believers are NOT TRUE. Please do you AGREE with me on this point or not ? ( before I proceed to answer your questions regarding those verses of Qur'an )

Please read my LAST post on this thread CAREFULLY from begining to end, you will find the answers to ALL your question.

See how the two of you are playing drama on the thread!
Back to the topic of the post; this is my final submission. You will agree with me that all the verses ( Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts 1: where the apostles were commanded to preach to all the Gentiles CANNOT BE RECONCILED with what Peter said to cornelius and his household; "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN (Acts 10:28). We can ONLY make the reconcilation using either of the TWO assumptions; 1. When we assume that Peter has forgotten the new command of preaching to all the gentiles. Or 2. When we assume that Peter and the other apostles find it difficult to do away with the Jewish tradition of not visiting and associating with Gentiles.
Let see the first assumption; If Peter had forgotten, what of the remaining Jewish believers that criticize Peter on the SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES on his return to Jerusalem as the following passage revealed ? Have they also forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching to all the nations of the world ?
Acts 11 New Living Translation (NLT)
"Soon the news reached the apostles and other believers in Judea that the Gentiles had received the word of God. But when Peter arrived back in Jerusalem, THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM. “YOU ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND EVEN ATE WITH THEM!” ( Acts 11:1-3 NLT)
Again, Why did Holy spirit have to tell peter that HE SHOULD GO WITH THEM AND HE SHOULD NOT WORRY THAT THEY WERE GENTILES( Acts 11:12 NLT), if they have already free to visit the gentiles and preach the gospel to all the nations of the world as the four verses cited above proclaimed? Again see the last statement made by the Jewish believers in Christ: "WE CAN SEE THAT GOD HAS ALSO GIVEN THE GENTILES the privilege of repenting of their sins and receiving eternal life (Acts 11:18)". They were hearing it for the FIRST TIME that God has given the gentiles the priviledge of repentance and receiving eternal life. Have you now seen that Peter did not forget anything when he said to Cornelius and his households; "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE (Acts10:28). Therefore, the first assumption cannot work.
What of the second assumption; The fact that Peter responded positively to that VISION and go quickly with those gentiles is an evidence that he never find it difficult to discard the Jewish customs of not visitng and associating with Gentiles. Again, it is not possible for the TRUE apostles of Jesus to give PREFERENCE for mere Jewish custom OVER a great and important command from their Master. What actually preventing them was the command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" in Matthew 10:5-6 and the fact that Jesus told them CATEGORICALLY that he was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the house of Israel( Matthew 15:24) Do you think Peter would follow those gentiles to meet Cornelius if not because of the VISION he experienced before their arrival. Therefore, second assumption cannot also work.
Consequently, even if it is true that Peter and other apostles preached to more Gentiles apart from Cornelius and his households as you claim, then what "PERMIT" them to do this was the VISION that Peter experienced. It is DEFINITELY NOT the new command of preaching to all the nations attributed FALSELY to Jesus in Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts 1:8. Otherwise, the story of events between Peter and Cornelius and also between Peter and other Jewish believers is NOT TRUE. Therefore, this very problem which I personally called " Problem of Jesus being SENT ONLY to the Israelites (Matthew 15:24) " is a REAL PROBLEM in the world of Christianity. The remaining FOUR PROBLEMS I noticed with Christianity are listed below;
1. Problem of " WHO IS GOD?" ( Compare John 1:1,14 WITH John 17:3, John 20:17, John 14:28, John 5:30, John 14:1, Luke 6:12, Mark 10:18 and Matthew 24:36) and WHO IS THE CREATOR ? ( Compare John 1:3, 1st Corinthians 8:6, Colossians 1:16 WITH Isaiah 44:24, 48:13, 45:12 and 66:2).
2. Problem of All merciful and All powerful Father who CURSED (Deuteronomy 21:23,Galatians 3:13) His innocent and beloved son in order to achieve something that can be achieved through another way ( all the Old testament Prophets and believers lived and died before Jesus crucifixion; Yet there is no any biblical verse that says they were in the state of condemnation after their death until the time of Jesus crucifixion).
3. Problem of "Jesus' private appearance to Paul" NOT BEING FORETOLD to the original apostles: ( Compare Matthew 24:23-28, Luke 10:18 With Acts 22:6-9. Compare Genesis 17:9-14, Luke 2:21 With Galatians 5:2-4, Acts 23:12-14. Compare Acts 21:18-31 With Acts 26:1-8, 19-21, Romans 3:7. Compare 2 Corinthians 12:16 with Jeremiah 48:10)"
4 . Problem of "the Bible not being endorsed by God ; (the word "Bible" is no where to be found inside the Bible)".
If you rely heavily on the MIRACLE and WONDERS you receive in Jesus name and overlook all these FIVE problems in Christianity, then you are not a wise person; because performing wonders and miracle in Jesus name is NOT a conclusive evidence for authenticity of Christianity due to Jesus statement;
MANY will say to me in that day ‘Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and done many wonders in your name? And then I will declare to them; I NEVER KNEW YOU depart from me, you who practice lawlessness. (Matthew 7:22-23).
Again, If you insist that Qur'an is not from God, then you have to solve another great problem; PROBLEM OF GOD'S IMPERSONATION which will lead you to "denying the existence of God". Let me explain it for you;
Qur'an contain many REASONABLE verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD'S MOUTH. Look at one example; O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone (Qur’an 2:40-41)”.
If the original author of Qur'an is not God, then ONE GREAT LIAR HAS IMPERSONATED GOD.
Yes, a dishonest and untruthful person may allow his FRIEND to impersonate him in order to deceive some innocent people. But it is not certain whether such a person will allow his ENEMY to impersonate him or not.
Now, what about a truthful and honest person like you? Would you allow your friend (or your enemy) to impersonate you reasonably and perfectly in order to deceive some innocent people? CERTAINLY NOT! Your Honesty and your truthfulness will never allow you to do such a thing.
Now, if you as a truthful and honest person will never allow your friend (talkless of your enemy) to reasonably and perfectly impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people, then why do you think God Almighty, WHO IS MORE TRUTHFUL AND MORE HONEST THAN YOU, would allow His enemy ( not His friend this time around) to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly ( See the verses of Qur'an quoted just above)? Of course God Almighty would NEVER allow such a thing to happen. God may allow anybody to write or speak about Him as you may also allow your friend to write or speak about you. But God of truth and honesty will NEVER allow His friend talkless of His enemy to impersonate Him; just like you as a truthful and honest person will never allow your friend or your enemy to impersonate you. This is the reason why you can NEVER find a single verse coming DIRECTLY from God's mouth in the New Testament, the backbone of Christianity.Yet we can find many verses coming DIRECTLY from God's mouth in the Old Testament. Why? Because Christianity is never from God!
Now, let us take A VERY GREAT AND COSTLY ASSUMPTION by assuming that God Almighty, in His infinite wisdom, deliberately allow His enemy to impersonate Him reasonably and perfectly in order to serve as a TEST for the true believers in the Bible. If this is the case, then God should have clearly informed us in the Bible just like Jesus informed us about his own impersonation: “Take heed that no one deceives you. For MANY WILL COME IN MY NAME, saying ‘I am the Christ’, and will deceive many (Matthew 24:4-5)”.See how Jesus declared in an unambiguous terms that MANY LIARS would impersonate him. However, you can never find a single biblical verse where God categorically inform us and foretell that a great liar is going to impersonate Him. If God of truth and honesty would also allow a liar to impersonate Him, He should also have informed us in a very precise term in the Bible just like Jesus did. Therefore, from what we have been established above, if any body reject Qur'an as the word of God, then such a person is saying INDIRECTLY THAT GOD OF TRUTH AND HONESTY DOES NOT EXIST.
This is my logical evidence for believing in Qur'an as word of God.
THIS LOGICAL EVIDENCE COUPLED WITH MY PERSONAL MIRACULOUS EVIDENCE FOR THIS BOOK, I SWEAR BY GOD, I AM READY TO ROAST IN HELL FIRE FOR MY FAITH IN QUR'AN AS THE WORD OF GOD!
If we have some dificulties in understanding the reason why God allow one or more of its verses to look uncomfortable in "our own limited mind", then we have to believe that there is a greater divine wisdom why God allow it to be so; Just like there is a greater divine wisdom why God allow human beings and great apes to resemble each other, a resemblance which seems to support the theory of evolution on the surface. But when we consider all the evidence for creation and evolution together, then you will see many evidence for the creation in great number which will never allow you to accept the theory of evolution. Similar principle applies to word of God like Qur'an. One or two verses may look troublesome in our limited mind which tends toward rejecting Qur'an as word of God. But when we consider all the verses together, you will see many verses in great number which will never allow you to deny Qur'an as the word of God. Therefore, to believe that there is a greater divine wisdom behind one or two difficult verses is more preferable than denying the existence of God of truth and honesty by insisting that Qur'an is the word of a great liar that impersonated God. Hopefully this will be my last post on this particular thread. May God Almighty guide everyone of us to the truth!

Many will say to me in that day ‘Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in your name, and cast out demons in your name, and done many wonders in your name? And then I will declare to them; I never knew you, depart from me, you who practice lawlessness (Matthew 7:22-23). See how you will be disowned and rejected by Jesus on the Day of Judgment despite all the healings and power you receive in his name!
You said peter preached to the gentiles in Acts 2 . Please where is your evidence for this. It is only when the disciples are speaking in tongues that strangers came near.
Peter only address the israelites and not the gentiles;
“FELLOW ISRAELITES listen to this: Jesus of Nazareth was a man accredited by God to you by miracles, wonders and signs, which God did among jyou through him, as you yourselves know"(Acts 2:22)
“FELLOW ISRAELITES I can tell you confidently that the patriarch David died and was buried, and his tomb is here to this day.(Acts 2:29)
What do you have to say about James that address his epistle only to the Jews( James 1:1)? Was he not aware of the new command of preaching to all the nations of the world?
Again what about the disciples that preached ONLY TO THE JEWS after the persecution that arose due to the killing of stephen( Acts 11:19)?
What you fail to realize is that there is NO WAY you can reconcile all these verses Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Luke 24:47 and Acts 1:8 (where the apostles were commanded to preach to all the nations of the world) with the incidents that happened between peter & Cornelius(Acts 10:1-28) and also between Peter & other Jewish believers on his arrival to Jerusalem( Acts 11:1-18). It is either all these verses are forgery OR the incident between Peter and cornelius is forgery.
The issue of Gbenga Adeboye is irrelevant because both the Bible and the Quran agree that it is appointed for a man TO DIE ONCE. (Hebrew 9:27 , Quran 23:99-100). So he was only dreaming while in the state of coma. What do you have to say about a baby boy born in Russia by the year 2009 with verses of Quran on his thigh. It is still on the internet. It was confirmed by ABC NEWS.
Let me quickly give you two reasons why must prefer Islam to Christianity;
1. Qur'an contain many verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM GOD'S MOUTH. Yet there is NO ANY VERSE in the Bible where it is prophesied that one great liar will IMPERSONATE God. Therefore, the probability of Qur'an being the word of a liar is ZERO. The New Testament do NOT contain any verse that appear to be coming directly from God's mouth. Therefore, it is not entitle to this divine endorsement. Although it contains many verses which appear to be COMING DIRECTLY FROM Jesus 'mouth. But there are some verses that prophesied that MANY LIARS WILL IMPERSONATE JESUS( e.g Matthew 24:4-5). Therefore, there is a probability, no matter how small it is, that some of the words attributed to Jesus may not actually came from his mouth.
2. Almost every islamic town in Nigeria have central mosque or central praying ground where they meet weekly or yearly. This is a sign of unity in Islam. Qur'an in its original arabic language are the same throughout. There is nothing like king abdulazeez version or new international version of Quran. This is another sign of unity. All muslims from all over the world gather behind one Imam during hajj in Mecca. This is another of sign of unity. However there is no central church in any Nigeria town or in any country because the different christian denominations CANNOT WORSHIP TOGETHER. Even right from foundation, Christians differ, Jehovah witnesses and seven day adventist believe that Jesus is NOT God while Trinitarians and oneness pentecostal believe that Jesus is God. Again, Trinitarians believe that Jesus is NOT the same as the Father while oneness pentecostal believe that Jesus is the same as the Father. There is NO UNITY in Christianity despite the fact that Jesus prayed for this unity:
“My prayer is not for them alone. I pray also for those who will believe in me through their message, that ALL OF THEM MAY BE ONE, Father, just as you are in me and I am in you. May they also be in us so that the world may believe that you have sent me. I have given them the glory that you gave me, that they may be ONE as we are one— I in them and you in me—so that they may be brought to COMPLETE UNITY. Then the world will know that you sent me and have loved them even as you have loved me. (John 17:20-23). This is not the word of Jesus but the word of his impersonator because God ALWAYS ANSWER THE PRAYER OF HIS PROPHETS.
On the contrary what Qur'an says is exactly what we found in Christianity;
And from those who call themselves Christians, We took their covenant, but they have abandoned a good part of the Message that was sent to them. So We planted amongst them ENMITY AND HATRED till the Day of Resurrection , and Allah will inform them of what they used to do.
(Quran 5:14)

You always blame me for abandoning the thread half-way. The reason is that you quickly jump to another topic when you are pushed to the wall and you cannot find any way to escape. What we are discussing before was the forgery behind all the verses commanding the apostles to preach to all the nations of the world. Have you agreed that all those verses are forgery or you still believe that TRUE apostles and disciples of Jesus gave PREFERENCE FOR MERE JEWISH CUSTOMS OVER THE GREAT AND IMPORTANT COMMAND (OF PREACHING TO ALL THE NATIONS ) from their master ? As you rightly said the original always come before the fake. Matthew 10:5-6 and Matthew 15:24 came FIRST .Therefore, they are the ORIGINAL. But Matthew 28:19 and its colleagues came LATER to negate the first. So they are the FAKE.
Do you think Peter would follow those gentiles
to meet Cornelius if not because of the VISION he
experienced just before their arrival ;
"YOU ARE WELL AWARE
THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A
JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A
GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME
THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE
IMPURE OR UNCLEAN. So when I was
sent for, I came without raising any
objection. May I ask why you sent for
me? (Acts 10:28-29)

The fact that Peter responded positively to this VISION and go with those gentiles is an evidence that he never prefer mere Jewish customs to any divine revelations.

Stylishly you left the phrase " VISIT TO GENTILE" and go on defending "ASSOCIATE WITH". Let me repeat what Peter said; "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE(Acts 10:28). There is no way they can preach to the gentiles without FIRST VISITING THEM.
Again you wrote;"THE JEWISH CUSTOM OF NOT ASSOCIATING WITH THE GENTILES HAD BEEN PART AND PARSEL OF THEIR LIVES WHICH PETER AND SOME OF THEM FOUND HARD TO DISCARD". This is NOT what was preventing them to visit the Gentiles because it is not possible for the TRUE apostles and disciples of Jesus to give PREFERENCE for mere Jewish custom OVER a great and important command from their Master; take it or leave it . What actually preventing them was the command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" in Matthew 10:5-6 and the fact that Jesus told them CATEGORICALLY that he was sent ONLY to the lost sheep of the house of Israel( Matthew 15:24). Do you think Peter would follow those gentiles to meet Cornelius if not because of the VISION he experienced before their arrival.
The new command of preaching to ALL THE NATIONS attributed to Jesus is FALSE. Infact, God Almighty allow the incident between Peter and Cornelius to be kept till today so that every keen reader of the Bible may see the LEGS of the corpse that Church Fathers have burried many years ago . Look at another evidence for the forgery behind Matthew 28:19 where Jesus was reported to have commanded the apostles as follows ; “Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy spirit.” But did Jesus’ apostles really act on this command of baptizing with Trinitarian formula? See the following verses:
Then peter said to them, repent, and let everyone of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38).
For as yet He had fallen upon none of them. They had only been baptized in the name of the lord Jesus (Acts 8:16).
So peter ordered them to be baptized in the name of Jesus the Messiah. Then they asked him to stay there for three days (Acts 10:48).
If “Matthew 28:19” is true and Jesus did command his apostles to baptize in the name of the Father, the son and Holy Spirit, then why would apostles go against this command and baptize only in Jesus name?
Pls do not put words into my mouth: The whole Bible is not forged.It is only a mixture of truth and falsehood.
The time of this forgery i:e those four verses and many others ( whether before the arrival of Prophet muhammad -pbuh or after his arrival) is irrelavant. All what I know is that Christianity is a false religion that is base on manipulation here and there. The people that follow Christianity with sincerity before the advent of Qur'an are free because God will never punish until he send a messenger to warn;
Whoever goes right, then he goes right only for the benefit of his ownself. And whoever goes astray, then he goes astray to his own loss. No one laden with burdens can bear another's burden. And We never punish until We have sent a Messenger to give warning( Qur'an 17:15)

I promise not to run away if you stop using abusive languages for Allah and his prophet. But have you agreed that all the verses where Jesus commanded the apostles to preach to all the nations of the world are forgery? If not, please reconcile all these verses with the incidents that happened between Peter and Cornelius and between Peter and other Jewish believers as explained below;

Remember: it seems from those four verses( Matthew 28:19, Mark 16:15, Acts 1:8, Luke 24:47 ) cited above that the apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPELS TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD. If this is true, then why did Peter have to say : "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW
FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A
GENTILE" (Acts 10:28) ? Was Peter not aware of the Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world? Has he given preference for the tradition of the Jews over this command given to them by Jesus? Has he forgotten such a very
great and important command from his Master?
The second part of the Peter's statement "BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN" in Acts 10:28 is only referring to the "VISION" he experienced just before the arrival of the men sent by Cornelius as we have read from the passage above. The statement has NOTHING to do with the so-called Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world . Some of the Christians want to argue that the reason why
Peter said: "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS
AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE
WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE" is because he has
forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching
to all the nations of the world. But if their
argument is true, then why did remaining Jewish
believers criticize Peter on the SAME ISSUE OF
VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES on
his return to Jerusalem as the following passage
revealed ? Have they also forgotten the
Jesus'new command of preaching to all the
nations of the world ? Now read the passage
below.

Acts 11 New Living Translation (NLT) "Soon the
news reached the apostles and other believers in
Judea that the Gentiles had received the word of
God. But when Peter arrived back in Jerusalem,
THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM. “YOU
ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND
EVEN ATE WITH THEM!” ( Acts 11:1-3)
Again, Why did Holy
spirit have to tell peter that HE SHOULD GO WITH
THEM AND HE SHOULD NOT WORRY THAT THEY
WERE GENTILES( Acts 11:12 NLT), if they have
already free to visit the gentiles and preach the
gospel to all the nations of the world as the four
verses cited above proclaimed? Again see the last
statement made by the Jewish believers in Christ:
" WE CAN SEE THAT GOD HAS ALSO GIVEN THE
GENTILES the privilege of repenting of their sins
and receiving eternal life (Acts 11:18)". They were hearing it for the FIRST TIME that God has given the gentiles the priviledge of repentance and receiving eternal life. Have you now seen that Peter did not forget anything when he said to Cornelius and his households; "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE
WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE(Acts 10:28)

Mr enilove pls for the sake of God and for the sake of your parents, what personal experience lead you to the conclusion that Christianity is the truth. Please for sake of God and for the sake of your parents share your experience with me.

Acts 11 New Living Translation (NLT) "Soon the news reached the apostles and other believers in Judea that the Gentiles had received the word of God. But when Peter arrived back in Jerusalem, THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM. “YOU ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND EVEN ATE WITH THEM!” they said. Then Peter told them exactly what had happened.“I was in the town of Joppa,” he said, “and while I was praying, I went into a trance and saw a vision. Something like a large sheet was let down by its four corners from the sky. And it came right down to me. When I looked inside the sheet, I saw all sorts of tame and wild animals, reptiles, and birds. And I heard a voice say, ‘Get up, Peter; kill and eat them. “No, Lord,’ I replied. ‘I have never eaten anything that our Jewish laws have declared impure or unclean. “But the voice from heaven spoke again: ‘Do not call something unclean if God has made it clean.’ This happened three times before the sheet and all it contained was pulled back up to heaven. “Just then three men who had been sent from Caesarea arrived at the house where we were staying. The Holy Spirit told me to go with them AND NOT TO WORRY THAT THEY WERE GENTILES. These six brothers here accompanied me, and we soon entered the home of the man who had sent for us. He told us how an angel had appeared to him in his home and had told him, ‘Send messengers to Joppa, and summon a man named Simon Peter. He will tell you how you and everyone in your household can be saved!’ “As I began to speak,” Peter continued, “the Holy Spirit fell on them, just as he fell on us at the beginning. Then I thought of the Lord’s words when he said, ‘John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.’ And since God gave these Gentiles the same gift he gave us when we believed in the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I to stand in God’s way?” When the others heard this, they stopped objecting and began praising God. They said, “We can see that God has also given the Gentiles the privilege of repenting of their sins and receiving eternal life. ( Acts 11:1-18 NLT). Why did Holy spirit have to tell peter that HE SHOULD GO WITH THEM AND HE SHOULD NOT WORRY THAT THEY WERE GENTILES( Acts 11:12), if they have already free to visit the gentiles and preach the gospel to all the nations of the world as the four verses cited above proclaimed? Again see the last statement made by the Jewish believers in Christ: " WE CAN SEE THAT GOD HAS ALSO GIVEN THE GENTILES the privilege of repenting of their sins and receiving eternal life". They were hearing it for the FIRST TIME that God has given the gentiles the priviledge of repentance and receiving eternal life. Have you now seen that Peter did not forget anything when he said to Cornelius and his households; "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE(Acts 10:28) This very incident (which took place between Peter, the leader of all the apostles, and Cornelius the centurion) is an indisputable evidence that Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world are nothing but SPURIOUS ADDITIONS TO THE TEXT. Even the evidence for this spurious addition can also be deduced from Jesus original statement; "I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL" using the following illustration; Suppose you are being asked to distribute a packet of sweet to some children in your vicinity WITH AN INSTRUCTION TO START WITH THE MALE CHILDREN BEFORE THE FEMALE. Now one of the female children approaches you for the collection of her own sweet. Please before God and man would you say; " I WAS ONLY ASKED TO GIVE THE MALE" or you would say "IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE FEMALE" ? Pls be sincere with your self. Again, if that female child insist to collect the sweet from you, would you say again : IT IS NOT RIGHT TO TAKE THE CHILDREN'S SWEET AND TOSS IT TO THE DOGS ? Of course, you would not utter such a statement. The only reason why such statement can come out from your mouth is when you are STRICTLY COMMANDED to give the sweet to the male children ONLY. Similarly, if it was already in the divine plan that JESUS AND HIS APOSTLES WOULD PREACH TO THE JEWS FIRST AND THEN THE GENTILES, then Jesus' statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. Why did Jesus have to say such a statement if he was truly sent to the entire world and if truly no one can come to the Father except through him? Because he was yet to be crucified? No! Because he was in hurry? No! Because he was yet to receive the power from his Father? No! Because he was yet to be resurrected? No! Because he was yet to be ascended to heaven? No! THINK VERY WELL. YOU WILL NOT FIND ANY REASONABLE REASON WHY JESUS REFUSE TO ANSWER THAT CANANITE WOMAN IN THE FIRST INSTANCE OTHER THAN THE REASON MENTIONED IN THE VERSE. The fact that Jesus later answered that woman (Matthew 15:28) help us to know that there was no any strong reason preventing Jesus from attending to her in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus and his apostles were sent ONLY to the Israelites.The preaching of Peter to Cornelius and his households was an exception and one-time event. Peter’s initial response to those gentiles was rejection (Acts 10:28). We have no record that Peter evangelized another gentile. ONE INCIDENT DOES NOT CONSTITUTE A MINISTRY . There is NO ANY VERSE in the Qur'an which says Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) or his companions were sent ONLY to the Arabs. But see how the Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent ONLY to the Israelites; I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL ( Matthew 15:24) and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to ALL MANKIND; " AND WE HAVE NOT SENT YOU (O Muhammad-pbuh) EXCEPT AS A GIVER OF GLAD TIDINGS AND AS A WARNER TO ALL MANKIND (Qur’an 34:28)". If God Almighty bring these two verses( Matthew 15:24 and Qur'an 34:28) infront of you on the day of Judgement, do you have any excuse to tender before Him? I have already conveyed the message to all sincere seekers of truth. It is now left for you to decide.

Leaving that place, Jesus withdrew to the region of Tyre and Sidon. A CANAANITE woman from that vicinity came to him, crying out, “Lord, Son of David, have mercy on me! My daughter is demon-possessed and suffering terribly.” Jesus DID NOT ANSWER her a word. So his disciples came to him and urged him, “Send her away, for she keeps crying out after us.” He answered, “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL.” The woman came and knelt before him. “Lord, help me!” she said. He replied, “IT IS NOT RIGHT TO TAKE THE CHILDREN'S BREAD AND TOSS IT TO THE DOGS. “Yes it is, Lord,” she said. “Even the dogs eat the crumbs that fall from their master’s table.” Then Jesus said to her, “Woman, you have great faith! Your request is granted.” And her daughter was healed at that moment.(Matthew 15:21-28) If Jesus (pbuh) was actually the last prophet of God sent to the entire world to die for our sins, then why did he have to say: I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? See how Bible categorically declare that Jesus (pbuh) was sent ONLY to the Israelites. Furthermore, when Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM, SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES, AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent ONLY to the Israelites. However, many of the Christians believe that this command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" was later cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations BEFORE Jesus ascended to heaven: 1. Matthew 28:19; "Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit". 2. Mark 16.15; “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation.” 3. Acts 1.8 ; "and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth.” 4. Luke 24.47; “that repentance for forgiveness of sins should be proclaimed in His name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem.” Therefore, it seems from these four verses that the apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPEL TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD. But was it REALLY TRUE that the original apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPELS TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD ? Let see what happened between Peter and one influential man called Cornelius. This very incident, which occurred many years AFTER Jesus' departure, goes thus: "At Caesarea there was a man named Cornelius, a centurion in what was known as the Italian Regiment. He and all his family were devout and God-fearing; he gave generously to those in need and prayed to God regularly. One day at about three in the afternoon he had a vision. He distinctly saw an angel of God, who came to him and said, “Cornelius!” Cornelius stared at him in fear. “What is it, Lord?” he asked. The angel answered, “Your prayers and gifts to the poor have come up as a memorial offering before God. Now send men to Joppa to bring back a man named Simon who is called Peter. He is staying with Simon the tanner, whose house is by the sea.” When the angel who spoke to him had gone, Cornelius called two of his servants and a devout soldier who was one of his attendants. He told them everything that had happened and sent them to Joppa. About noon the following day as they were on their journey and approaching the city, Peter went up on the roof to pray. He became hungry and wanted something to eat, and while the meal was being prepared, he fell into a trance. He saw heaven opened and something like a large sheet being let down to earth by its four corners. It contained all kinds of four-footed animals, as well as reptiles and birds. Then a voice told him, “Get up, Peter. Kill and eat.” “Surely not, Lord!” Peter replied. “I have never eaten anything impure or unclean.” The voice spoke to him a second time, “DO NOT CALL ANYTHING IMPURE THAT GOD HAS MADE CLEAN.” This happened three times, and immediately the sheet was taken back to heaven. While Peter was wondering about the meaning of the VISION, the men sent by Cornelius found out where Simon’s house was and stopped at the gate. They called out, asking if Simon who was known as Peter was staying there. While Peter was still thinking about the VISION, the Spirit said to him, “Simon, three men are looking for you. So get up and go downstairs. Do not hesitate to go with them, for I have sent them.” Peter went down and said to the men, “I’m the one you’re looking for. Why have you come?” The men replied, “We have come from Cornelius the centurion. He is a righteous and God-fearing man, who is respected by all the Jewish people. A holy angel told him to ask you to come to his house so that he could hear what you have to say.” Then Peter invited the men into the house to be his guests. The next day Peter started out with them, and some of the believers from Joppa went along.The following day he arrived in Caesarea. Cornelius was expecting them and had called together his relatives and close friends. As Peter entered the house, Cornelius met him and fell at his feet in reverence. But Peter made him get up. “Stand up,” he said, “I am only a man myself.” While talking with him, Peter went inside and found a large gathering of people. He said to them ; "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN. So when I was sent for, I came without raising any objection. May I ask why you sent for me? (Acts 10:1-29 NIV)" Remember: it seems from four verses cited above that the apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPELS TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD. If this is true, then why did Peter have to say : "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE" ? Was Peter not aware of the Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world? Has he given preference for the tradition of the Jews over this command given to them by Jesus? Has he forgotten such a very great and important command from his Master? Very hard to believe! Forgery and manipulation must have occured somewhere. The second part of the Peter's statement "BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN" is only referring to the "VISION" he experienced just before the arrival of the men sent by Cornelius as we have read from the passage above. The statement has NOTHING to do with the so-called Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world . Some of the Christians want to argue that the reason why Peter said: "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE" is because he has forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching to all the nations of the world. But if their argument is true, then why did remaining Jewish believers criticize Peter on the SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES on his return to Jerusalem as the following passage revealed ? Have they also forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching to all the nations of the world ? Now read the passage below.

Acts 11 New Living Translation (NLT)
"Soon the news reached the apostles and other believers in Judea that the Gentiles had received the word of God. But when Peter arrived back in Jerusalem, THE JEWISH BELIEVERS CRITICIZED HIM. “YOU ENTERED THE HOME OF THE GENTILES AND EVEN ATE WITH THEM!” they said. Then Peter told them exactly what had happened.“I was in the town of Joppa,” he said, “and while I was praying, I went into a trance and saw a vision. Something like a large sheet was let down by its four corners from the sky. And it came right down to me. When I looked inside the sheet, I saw all sorts of tame and wild animals, reptiles, and birds. And I heard a voice say, ‘Get up, Peter; kill and eat them. “No, Lord,’ I replied. ‘I have never eaten anything that our Jewish laws have declared impure or unclean. “But the voice from heaven spoke again: ‘Do not call something unclean if God has made it clean.’ This happened three times before the sheet and all it contained was pulled back up to heaven. “Just then three men who had been sent from Caesarea arrived at the house where we were staying. The Holy Spirit told me to go with them AND NOT TO WORRY THAT THEY WERE GENTILES. These six brothers here accompanied me, and we soon entered the home of the man who had sent for us. He told us how an angel had appeared to him in his home and had told him, ‘Send messengers to Joppa, and summon a man named Simon Peter. He will tell you how you and everyone in your household can be saved!’ “As I began to speak,” Peter continued, “the Holy Spirit fell on them, just as he fell on us at the beginning. Then I thought of the Lord’s words when he said, ‘John baptized with water, but you will be baptized with the Holy Spirit.’ And since God gave these Gentiles the same gift he gave us when we believed in the Lord Jesus Christ, who was I to stand in God’s way?” When the others heard this, they stopped objecting and began praising God. They said, “We can see that God has also given the Gentiles the privilege of repenting of their sins and receiving eternal life. ( Acts 11:1-18 NLT).
Why did Holy spirit have to tell peter that HE SHOULD GO WITH THEM AND HE SHOULD NOT WORRY THAT THEY WERE GENTILES( Acts 11:12), if they have already free to visit the gentiles and preach the gospel to all the nations of the world as the four verses cited above proclaimed? Again see the last statement made by the Jewish believers in Christ: " WE CAN SEE THAT GOD HAS ALSO GIVEN THE GENTILES the privilege of repenting of their sins and receiving eternal life".
They were hearing it for the FIRST TIME that God
has given the gentiles the priviledge of repentance
and receiving eternal life.
Have you now seen that Peter did not forget anything when he said to Cornelius and his households; "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE(Acts 10:28)
This very incident (which took place between Peter, the leader of all the apostles, and Cornelius the centurion) is an indisputable evidence that Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world are nothing but SPURIOUS ADDITIONS TO THE TEXT. Even the evidence for this spurious addition can also be deduced from Jesus original statement; "I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL" using the following illustration;
Suppose you are being asked to distribute a packet of sweet to some children in your vicinity WITH AN INSTRUCTION TO START WITH THE MALE CHILDREN BEFORE THE FEMALE. Now one of the female children approaches you for the collection of her own sweet. Please before God and man would you say; " I WAS ONLY ASKED TO GIVE THE MALE" or you would say "IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE FEMALE" ? Pls be sincere with your self. Again, if that female child insist to collect the sweet from you, would you say again : IT IS NOT RIGHT TO TAKE THE CHILDREN'S SWEET AND TOSS IT TO THE DOGS ? Of course, you would not utter such a statement. The only reason why such statement can come out from your mouth is when you are STRICTLY COMMANDED to give the sweet to the male children ONLY.
Similarly, if it was already in the divine plan that JESUS AND HIS APOSTLES WOULD PREACH TO THE JEWS FIRST AND THEN THE GENTILES, then Jesus' statement directed to that Canaanite woman in Matthew 15:24 should have been: IT IS NOT YET TIME FOR THE GENTILES or something similar in meaning rather than “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL”. Why did Jesus have to say such a statement if he was truly sent to the entire world and if truly no one can come to the Father except through him? Because he was yet to be crucified? No! Because he was in hurry? No! Because he was yet to receive the power from his Father? No! Because he was yet to be resurrected? No! Because he was yet to be ascended to heaven? No! THINK VERY WELL. YOU WILL NOT FIND ANY REASONABLE REASON WHY JESUS REFUSE TO ANSWER THAT CANANITE WOMAN IN THE FIRST INSTANCE OTHER THAN THE REASON MENTIONED IN THE VERSE. The fact that Jesus later answered that woman (Matthew 15:28) help us to know that there was no any strong reason preventing Jesus from attending to her in the first instance other than the fact that Jesus and his apostles were sent ONLY to the Israelites.The preaching of Peter to Cornelius and his households was an exception and one-time event. Peter’s initial response to those gentiles was rejection (Acts 10:28). We have no record that Peter evangelized another gentile. ONE INCIDENT DOES NOT CONSTITUTE A MINISTRY .
There is NO ANY VERSE in the Qur'an which says Prophet Muhammad (pbuh) or his companions were sent ONLY to the Arabs. But see how the Bible categorically declared that Jesus (pbuh) was sent ONLY to the Israelites; I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL ( Matthew 15:24) and see how Qur’an declared that Muhammad (pbuh) was sent to ALL MANKIND; " AND WE HAVE NOT SENT YOU (O Muhammad-pbuh) EXCEPT AS A GIVER OF GLAD TIDINGS AND AS A WARNER TO ALL MANKIND (Qur’an 34:28)". If God Almighty bring these two verses( Matthew 15:24 and Qur'an 34:28) infront of you on the day of Judgement, do you have any excuse to tender before Him? I have already conveyed the message to all sincere seekers of truth. It is now left for you to decide.

Leaving that place, Jesus withdrew to the region of Tyre and Sidon. A CANAANITE woman from that vicinity came to him, crying out, “Lord, Son of David, have mercy on me! My daughter is demon-possessed and suffering terribly.” Jesus DID NOT ANSWER her a word. So his disciples came to him and urged him, “Send her away, for she keeps crying out after us.” He answered, “I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL.” The woman came and knelt before him. “Lord, help me!” she said. He replied, “IT IS NOT RIGHT TO TAKE THE CHILDREN'S BREAD AND TOSS IT TO THE DOGS. “Yes it is, Lord,” she said. “Even the dogs eat the crumbs that fall from their master’s table.” Then Jesus said to her, “Woman, you have great faith! Your request is granted.” And her daughter was healed at that moment.(Matthew 15:21-28)

If Jesus (pbuh) was actually the last prophet of God sent to the entire world to die for our sins, then why did he have to say: I WAS SENT ONLY TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 15:24)? See how Bible categorically declare that Jesus (pbuh) was sent ONLY to the Israelites. Furthermore, when Jesus (pbuh) was sending out his apostles for evangelical mission, he also warned them categorically to avoid preaching to the Gentiles i:e the Non-Israelites: THESE TWELVE JESUS SENT FORTH, AND COMMANDED THEM, SAYING, GO NOT INTO THE WAY OF THE GENTILES, AND INTO ANY CITY OF THE SAMARITANS ENTER YE NOT: BUT GO RATHER TO THE LOST SHEEP OF THE HOUSE OF ISRAEL (Matthew 10:5-6). This further corroborates the fact that Jesus was sent ONLY to the Israelites.
However, many of the Christians believe that this command of "NOT PREACHING TO THE GENTILES" was later cancelled and replaced by the new command of preaching to all the nations BEFORE Jesus ascended to heaven:
1. Matthew 28:19; "Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit".
2. Mark 16.15; “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to all creation.”
3. Acts 1.8 ; "and you will be my witnesses in Jerusalem, in all Judea and Samaria, and to the ends of the earth.”
4. Luke 24.47; “that repentance for forgiveness of sins should be proclaimed in His name to all the nations, beginning from Jerusalem.”
Therefore, it seems from these four verses that the apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPEL TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD.
But was it REALLY TRUE that the original apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPELS TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD ? Let see what happened between Peter and one influential man called Cornelius. This very incident, which occurred many years AFTER Jesus' departure, goes thus:
"At Caesarea there was a man named Cornelius, a centurion in what was known as the Italian Regiment. He and all his family were devout and God-fearing; he gave generously to those in need and prayed to God regularly. One day at about three in the afternoon he had a vision. He distinctly saw an angel of God, who came to him and said, “Cornelius!” Cornelius stared at him in fear. “What is it, Lord?” he asked. The angel answered, “Your prayers and gifts to the poor have come up as a memorial offering before God. Now send men to Joppa to bring back a man named Simon who is called Peter. He is staying with Simon the tanner, whose house is by the sea.” When the angel who spoke to him had gone, Cornelius called two of his servants and a devout soldier who was one of his attendants. He told them everything that had happened and sent them to Joppa. About noon the following day as they were on their journey and approaching the city, Peter went up on the roof to pray. He became hungry and wanted something to eat, and while the meal was being prepared, he fell into a trance. He saw heaven opened and something like a large sheet being let down to earth by its four corners. It contained all kinds of four-footed animals, as well as reptiles and birds. Then a voice told him, “Get up, Peter. Kill and eat.” “Surely not, Lord!” Peter replied. “I have never eaten anything impure or unclean.” The voice spoke to him a second time, “DO NOT CALL ANYTHING IMPURE THAT GOD HAS MADE CLEAN.” This happened three times, and immediately the sheet was taken back to heaven. While Peter was wondering about the meaning of the VISION, the men sent by Cornelius found out where Simon’s house was and stopped at the gate. They called out, asking if Simon who was known as Peter was staying there. While Peter was still thinking about the VISION, the Spirit said to him, “Simon, three men are looking for you. So get up and go downstairs. Do not hesitate to go with them, for I have sent them.” Peter went down and said to the men, “I’m the one you’re looking for. Why have you come?” The men replied, “We have come from Cornelius the centurion. He is a righteous and God-fearing man, who is respected by all the Jewish people. A holy angel told him to ask you to come to his house so that he could hear what you have to say.” Then Peter invited the men into the house to be his guests. The next day Peter started out with them, and some of the believers from Joppa went along.The following day he arrived in Caesarea. Cornelius was expecting them and had called together his relatives and close friends. As Peter entered the house, Cornelius met him and fell at his feet in reverence. But Peter made him get up. “Stand up,” he said, “I am only a man myself.” While talking with him, Peter went inside and found a large gathering of people. He said to them ; "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE. BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN. So when I was sent for, I came without raising any objection. May I ask why you sent for me? (Acts 10:1-29 NIV)"
Remember: it seems from four verses cited above that the apostles of Jesus were NOW FREE TO VISIT THE GENTILES AND PREACH THE GOSPELS TO ALL THE NATIONS OF THE WORLD. If this is true, then why did Peter have to say : "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE" ? Was Peter not aware of the Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world? Has he given preference for the tradition of the Jews over this command given to them by Jesus? Has he forgotten such a very great and important command from his Master? Very hard to believe! Forgery and manipulation must have occured somewhere.
The second part of the Peter's statement "BUT GOD HAS SHOWN ME THAT I SHOULD NOT CALL ANYONE IMPURE OR UNCLEAN" is only referring to the "VISION" he experienced just before the arrival of the men sent by Cornelius as we have read from the passage above. The statement has NOTHING to do with the so-called Jesus' new command of preaching to all the nations of the world .
Some of the Christians want to argue that the reason why Peter said: "YOU ARE WELL AWARE THAT IT IS AGAINST OUR LAW FOR A JEW TO ASSOCIATE WITH OR VISIT A GENTILE" is because he has forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching to all the nations of the world. But if their argument is true, then why did remaining Jewish believers criticize Peter on the SAME ISSUE OF VISITING AND ASSOCIATING WITH GENTILES on his return to Jerusalem as the following passage revealed ? Have they also forgotten the Jesus'new command of preaching to all the nations of the world ? Now read the passage below.

Mr enilove;
You may be wonder about the reason why I have so much convinction about Islam. Let me quickly share one of these reasons with you; It is absolutely true that there are many REASONABLE verses in the Qur'an that appear to be coming DIRECTLY from God's mouth. Consider these two examples :
“O children of Israel! Remember My special favor which I bestowed upon you, and fulfill your covenant with Me as I fulfill My covenant with you, and fear none but Me. And believe in what I have sent down ( i:e this Qur’an) confirming that which is with you, and be not the first to reject it, nor sell My verses for a small price; and fear Me, and Me alone (Qur’an 2:40-41)”.
I made them not to witness the creation of the heavens and the earth and not (even) their own creation, nor was I to take the misleaders as helpers (Qur'an 18:51). You will agree with me that all the personal pronouns "I, Me, My etc" in these two verese can only be referred to God contextually. With this fact, we can say conviniently that the original author of Qur'an is either God or His impersonator?
Now let me ask you a question; can you allow your friend to impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people? Definitely you will not allow him : if really you are a truthful and honest person.
If you as a truthful person would never allow your friend- talk less of your enemy- to impersonate you in order to deceive some innocent people, then why do you think the God Almighty, WHO IS MORE TRUTHFUL AND MORE HONEST THAN YOU, would allow such a thing to happen to Him especially when God declare as follows; how can I let myself to be defamed? I will not yield My glory to another (Isaiah 48:11). Please read those verses of Qur'an cited above again and again. Has God not let Himself to be defamed if He allowed a deliberate liar to impersonate Him in such a reasonable and perfect manner? Has God not yielded His glory to another if He allowed a deliberate liar to impersonate Him and also allow such impersonator to praise all the Biblical prophets in the way the author of Qur'an has done and then still allow the word of such impersonator to be safe-guarded from destruction since 1,439 years ago till today as exactly prophesied in Qur’an 15:9: “Surely, We have revealed the reminder ((i:e the Qur’an) and We will most surely be its guardian”.?In fact, God deliberately spare the life of His prophet till concluding verse of his mission was revealed to him where God Almighty declare as follows: This day, I have perfected your religion for you, and I have completed My favor upon you, and I have chosen for you Islam as your religion(Qur’an 5:3).
But if we assume that God Almighty, in His infinite wisdom, deliberately allowed the word of so-called impersonator to be protected from destruction in order to serve as a TEST for the true believers in one and only God, then God should have pre informed us and warned us about this great impersonator in the Bible just like Jesus talked about his own impersonators ;Take heed that no one deceives you. For many will come in my name, saying ‘I am the Christ’, and will deceive many (Matthew 24:4-5)”.See how Jesus declared in an unambiguous terms that many liars would impersonate him. However, you can never find a single biblical verse where God categorically inform us and foretell that a great liar is going to impersonate Him.
But instead of warning us and pre-informing us about the so-called liar that is going to impersonate Him, God only demonstrated to us, through His dealing with Hananiah (the false prophet who spoke in the name of God in the Bible), that He would never allow such a thing to happen for a long time; Then the prophet Jeremiah said to Hananiah the prophet, ‘Listen, Hananiah! The Lord has not sent you, yet you have persuaded this nation to trust in lies. Therefore this is what the Lord says: I am about to remove you from the face of the earth. This very year you are going to die, because you have preached rebellion against the Lord. In the seventh month of that same year, Hananiah the prophet died (Jeremiah 28:15-17).
You will notice that what happened to Hananiah (i:e untimely death) is exactly what God has already foretold about “a false prophet who impersonates and speaks in the name of God” as written in the book of Deuteronomy; But the prophet who presumes to speak a word in My name that I have not commanded him to speak, or who speaks in the name of other gods, THAT SAME PROPHET SHALL DIE (Deuteronomy 18:20).
Therefore, if God did not even allow Hananiah to live for just a year, then how could He have allowed the supposed author of Qur’an to impersonate Him and deliberately lie against Him for good 23 years? Please for the sake of God, have you ever consider this problem of God's impersonation before you left Islam for Christianity? Regarding this problem of God's impersonation, I swear by God Almighty, I still have a great testimony to give. But I decided not to share it publicly because of tough experience I went through due to my sturboness in not accepting the Quran as the word of God at first instance of my life even after many signs have been shown to me . But you can still get the smallest hint of this testimony from this verse:
We will show them Our Signs in the universe, and IN THEIR OWN SELVES, until it becomes manifest to them that this (the Quran) is the truth. Is it not sufficient in regard to your Lord that He is a Witness over all things? (Quran 41:53).
Please think very well, why would prophet Muhammad(pbuh) fabricate this kind of verse and put it inside his book if he did not have any divine calling? Don't you feel the confidence and authority in this very verse. Don't you see that the content of this verse is beyond the level of human way of expressing thought?