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Righteousness2:Righteousness has come again ![]() |
Obafavour:Ok then, explain yourself. How exactly does Matthew 28:19 suggest that the Trinity exists. Be specific. You haven't given an explanation thus far, you have only just made general statements. How does it prove that they are three in one? Why can't that passage just be him mentioning them? Explain. |
Obafavour:Baseless? Well, I asked you for more scriptures and you delivered, so I won't complain. John 10:30 I and the Father are one. This one is either intentional deception on your part or simple laziness. The entire story that that passage comes from even disproves the Trinity, but pulling out convenient verses without reading the entire book will not allow you a complete understanding. The entire incident is from verse 22 to verse 42, which I will dump here: 22 Then came the Festival of Dedication at Jerusalem. It was winter, 23 and Jesus was in the temple courts walking in Solomon’s Colonnade. 24 The Jews who were there gathered around him, saying, “How long will you keep us in suspense? If you are the Messiah, tell us plainly.” 25 Jesus answered, “I did tell you, but you do not believe. The works I do in my Father’s name testify about me, 26 but you do not believe because you are not my sheep. 27 My sheep listen to my voice; I know them, and they follow me. 28 I give them eternal life, and they shall never perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand. 29 My Father, who has given them to me, is greater than all[c]; no one can snatch them out of my Father’s hand. 30 I and the Father are one.” 31 Again his Jewish opponents picked up stones to stone him, 32 but Jesus said to them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father. For which of these do you stone me?” 33 “We are not stoning you for any good work,” they replied, “but for blasphemy, because you, a mere man, claim to be God.” 34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I have said you are “gods”’? 35 If he called them ‘gods,’ to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be set aside— 36 what about the one whom the Father set apart as his very own and sent into the world? Why then do you accuse me of blasphemy because I said, ‘I am God’s Son’? 37 Do not believe me unless I do the works of my Father. 38 But if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me, and I in the Father.” 39 Again they tried to seize him, but he escaped their grasp. 40 Then Jesus went back across the Jordan to the place where John had been baptizing in the early days. There he stayed, 41 and many people came to him. They said, “Though John never performed a sign, all that John said about this man was true.” 42 And in that place many believed in Jesus. Notice that, in the entire scripture, Jesus consistently emphasizes that his works come from the Father and by the Father's authority. He indirectly declares that he is the Messiah, and the son of God. He also indirectly states that he is lesser than the Father - at least in authority. After all, it is in the Father's name that he works miracles, it is the Father that gives his disciples to him, and it is his Father that preserves their place with the Father, guiding them against those who would turn them away. He states that "I and the Father are One" immediately after this, but from what he said before, this cannot mean that they are literally the same. It would contradict what he said before. The answer here is that Jesus and the Father are one in the sense that they are in agreement, not that they are literally the same. It is further confirmed by what he says later in verse 36. He states that God set HIM apart as "his very own" and sent HIM into the world. These are obviously not referring to the same people. Finally, he states that "the Father is in me, and I in the Father", which makes even less sense if you are saying that Jesus is the same thing as God. What it instead means is that Jesus and God share core essences or attributes. Jesus is referred to constantly as "the Word of God", that is, the spoken decree of God. Acts 1:4-8 I don't understand what you mean here. Where does he claim that he is the same as the Father. |
Sixfiguresmart: ![]() the way people will do just to avoid admitting error... ![]() bye bye oo!! ![]() |
Sixfiguresmart:I am not a Muslim. A quick cursory glance at my profile will reveal as much. Moreover, I have already specified that I do not care where you get your information, so my answer to your rhetorical question would obviously be "no". Finally, your last paragraph reads like a conspiracy theory. To my knowledge, both sides have, regrettably, had a long and rich history of engaging in shitslinging fights over petty details and ritual practices. For one more antiquated example on the side of Christianity: "Lex Mahumet pseudoprophete, a Latin translation of the Qur'an by Rpbert of Ketton in 1110 AD. Even the title alone should be enough to tell you about how fairly and favorably the religion was portrayed. Anyways, my initial statement was that "...in my experience, Christians are especially annoying when they are trying to "debunk" Islam". I latter added to that statement by stating that Christians have a lot of anti-Muslim content on YouTube as an example. Sixfiguresmart:This is a very strange response. I said that I have no way of confirming any ornate details you tell me about yourself, because we are on the internet. You respond by providing me with even more details about yourself. Not to discredit you, but my point is that this is all irrelevant to me because, again, I have no way of actually confirming it. If this was a less "academic" discussion I would be able to ignore this point and believe you anyway just to be nice, but, since this is an academic discussion, I cannot do that. Sixfiguresmart:I'm not a Muslim. Sixfiguresmart:Actually, it is not that uncommon for a speaker of a language to know relatively little academically about the grammar of said language. As an example, the average American cannot tell you what a relative clause is in a sentence, even though English makes frequent use of them. It's certainly not something that I would expect anybody walking on the road to know about, because it's linguistic jargon. Well, what resources DO you know about? I stated that the etymology is uncertain because the claims that I've seen on its etymology are either outlandish or uncertain; that is, there is no satisfactory proof. Explain specifically what your problem is with this statement. Sixfiguresmart:Unfortunately, almost everything is wrong here. Not all Modern European Languages are from Latin. The Uralic languages like Finnish, Sami, and Hungarian are not actually from Latin at all. English is not from Latin, either: It is actually a Germanic language, alongside German, Icelandic, Norwegian, Swedish, etc. Greek is not from Latin - indeed, it was written even before Latin was, so that wouldn't make any sense (you even brought up Greek so I'm surprised you even made such a statement). Albanian is not from Latin either. These are all European languages, all modern, all currently spoken. The Romans never majorly spoke Greek. Greek was the language of education so rich, educated people spoke and wrote in Greek - the same way that people of all tongues wrote predominantly in Latin in the medieval period. If the Romans majorly spoke Greek as you propose, there would be a lot more Greek daughter languages than there are Roman languages, but that is not the case. Modern Hebrew is not a derivative of Aramaic. Hebrew as we know it was basically a dead language by the time Jesus was alive, so he spoke Aramaic, but they still spoke Biblical Hebrew liturgically - in their recitations and prayers. Modern Hebrew was made when many Hebrew groups in diaspora eventually settled into Israel and all agreed to use Hebrew as the lingua franca. Aramaic is RELATED to Hebrew, but Hebrew does not come from it, in the same way that Spanish and French are related but Spanish does not come from French. This does not require any knowledge in linguistics to know, just historical knowledge. Arabic did not "come up" in the third or fifth century, it just wasn't recorded until then. The next thing I will hear you say now is that Yoruba did not exist until the white men came to Africa. |
Lamom:I don't know, but it might just be a kind of information bias on your part. Maybe you only remember the cases of infertile couples giving birth to twins because it is so remarkable, so you overestimate the actual amount of cases of that happening. Maybe you're mistaking several retellings of the same story as distinct, individual cases. Only way to be sure is to start recording it on paper. |
OLAADEGBU:My point was not that Trinity is not literally written in the Bible, therefore it doesn't exist. My point is that the Trinity has no Biblical justification or basis, and thus it is a completely fabricated man-made idea. Obafavour:Matthew 28:19 Therefore go and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit Indeed, that passage does reference the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. However, it does not say that they are equivalent entities. It does not make any claims about who they are at all. It just mentions their names in a particular order. Did it say "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, who are actually one entity"? No. You say "e.g", so I will assume you have more examples. I can promise you here that none of them actually claim that they are equivalent entities. |
Kobojunkie:Personally, I don't understand why Trinitarians are so confused. It's like people don't read their bibles. Jesus calls himself God, but he also quotes the scripture that says "you are gods" when the Pharisees ask him a question about him calling himself the son of God. When saying the Lord's prayer, he also says "Our Father". If God is father to both himself and the disciples, then both Jesus and the disciples are sons of God. So it should not be surprising when Jesus calls himself the Son of God. I try not to blame most people when they talk anyway. People just go to church to hear what they want to hear, say amen, and carry on with their lives. They want quick and easy answers, so instead of just reading and meditating, they would rather pay money for promised instant rewards. |
Sixfiguresmart:E pain you .I never even said it was YOU that did X and Y, I said that in my experience Christians do such things to Muslims with more fervour and passion than vice-versa. Just look up one or two Muslim videos on YouTube and the next thing you will start seeing is Christians "debunking" Islam en masse, but watching Christian videos you will rarely if ever see Muslim content. You never said where you did or did not get your information, so how should I know? I didn't check whether you copy and pasted. Anyway, your attempts to possibly scare me off with your fake chestpuffing and "credentials" is completely fruitless, since we both know that I cannot verify whatever you are saying. This is the internet, so you or I could be lying about whatever claims we brag about. Thus, I do not care what credentials you may or may not have, since the information that you posted could be acquired by anyone on the internet who is diligent enough to read a few articles. I don't take Islamic certified sources as automatic proof because they are obviously going to be biased towards an interpretation that would serve their religion, so the chances of truthful, unclouded research being done by Islamic sources on a word with as much religious important as Salah is very tiny. I would rather listen to Afroasiatic, Semitic, or Arabic linguists' opinions on the matter, preferably with papers for me to read and actually examine the claims. This is where most of my information on Arabic comes from, after all. If I ever considered Islamic certified sources, it would be rarely, when they somehow coincide with any other research I might be doing. Hence my claims on the actual meaning of the root being unknown. This is not my explanation in the sense that it isn't an explanation at all. I simply stated that the etymology is uncertain. Most Islamic claims about the etymology are unfounded and far-fetched, and I have yet to see any convincing phonological justification for the core root meanings people have proposed. Is this too difficult for you to understand? Your pet theory about Arabic being derived from Aramaic is laughable. I hope you are not just spitting nonsense here? Aramaic and Arabic are related, so they will obviously be similar in some ways, but that is not enough to prove that one comes from the other. A word being borrowed from one language to the other doesn't mean the entire language is from the other language. Igbo borrowed the word osikapa from Hausa shikanfa in pre colonial times, but those two are not linguistically related at all at all. English borrows words from other languages all the time too. If that etymology is correct (and the image only says it is PROBABLY correct), then since we know there were Jews living in Pre-Islamic Arabia, he could have gotten it from one of them. Same way the word "Injil" probably comes from the word evangelion in Greek, which just means "Gospel". Your picture doesn't prove what you are suggesting. |
Some people will say that he died while ministering which is a good death to have. I would agree if he wasn't deeper life. |
Sixfiguresmart:Don't worry about my eggshell biko ![]() Anyway, in my experience, Christians are especially annoying when they are trying to "debunk" Islam. Imagine a Christian that will not devote time to master Biblical Hebrew but will be rummaging through the Qur'an, taking mini Qur'anic Arabic lessons on the internet just so they can debunk somebody on Nairaland. Na wa o. As one respondent has already previously stated, words are not often equivalent between language, for many reasons. I'm sure any bilingual individuals can come up with several examples of words that mean multiple things in one language, but are more specific in the other. It's not an odd thing at all. In English, the word "prayer" comes from Latin precāria, the substantive feminine of the adjective precārius, which means something obtained by entreaty or by favor. The noun form, "pray" comes from a related word: precor, which means "to pray, beg, beseech". The archaic sense of "beg" is still preserved in older English phrases like "I pray thee" which just means something like "please". In Arabic, ṣalat (صَلَاة) comes from the root ص ل و (s-l-w), whose meaning is ultimately unknown as of now. Some have linked it instead to the root و ص ل, which has the sense of "linking" or "joining", but I am doubtful. Anyway, since Salah refers specifically to the ritual prayers and not the average prayer (which is Du'a), it makes sense that it probably doesn't come from an easy source. It's inaccurate to simply translate as "prayer" for reasons specified by other comments. Something similar happens in Biblical Hebrew, actually. The Modern Hebrew verb פילל (pilel) comes from the root פ-ל-ל (p-l-l). The root is used in 1 Samuel 2:25, where it says: אִם־ יֶחֱטָ֨א אִ֤ישׁ לְאִישׁ֙ וּפִֽלְל֣וֹ אֱלֹהִ֔ים וְאִ֤ם לַֽיהוָה֙ יֶֽחֱטָא־ אִ֔ישׁ מִ֖י יִתְפַּלֶּל־ ל֑וֹ וְלֹ֤א יִשְׁמְעוּ֙ לְק֣וֹל אֲבִיהֶ֔ם כִּֽי־ חָפֵ֥ץ יְהוָ֖ה לַהֲמִיתָֽם. Here, we're looking specifically at וּפִֽלְל֣וֹ (u-pillow), the fourth word from the right. Most times it means "to pray" but in this passage it means "to judge", and it is referring to God doing the action. This has also carried over into Modern Hebrew in the verb I mentioned above, which can mean "to hope, pray for, believe possible" but also "to judge, mediate". With your approach to translation, that passage would mean "If one man sin against another, God shall pray to him; but if a man sin against the LORD, who shall entreat for him?"... |
Sixfiguresmart: ![]() you people sef eh... |
kmaster007:ipob ipob ipob, na only ipob dey for you people mind. ipob made your employer fire you too abi? |
The Trinity is probably the biggest, but there are others: 1. The cancellation of the old Law. 2. The belief that only faith is necessary to go to heaven. Countless fake christian babalawo (a.k.a. MOGs) shenanigans would realistically also be on this list. |
TenQ:At risk of sounding pedantic, I'd like to offer a slight correction. Allah is not the equivalent of Eloha, and Eloha and Elohim are not the same, either. Allah is actually a shortening of Al-ʾilāh, where ʾilāh is related to and is the basic equivalent of él/elóah in Hebrew. The "al" preceding it is the definite article, so it means "the". Thus, "Allah" means "THE God". It's contextually specific enough for most people, so I don't understand what the point of this post was, to be honest. Elohim is the plural form of Elóah. As far as I know, there isn't any agreement on why exactly the plural form is used here. |
chuksanambra:how much agbado did they promise you for this post? ![]() see mumu on display, abeg scatter jare ![]() |
chuksanambra: ![]() see how mad man just dey talk nonsense |
Kobojunkie:Modern day Christianity is a very confusing ideology. I don't know personally why people believe in Biblical Infallibility for example, though Jesus does make statements such as "heaven and Earth shall pass away but my word shall not pass away". This will depend, of course, on the interpretation of "my word". Trinity believers must necessarily conclude that this refers to the entire Bible, but the Trinity is ironically non-Scriptural anyway. |
ASAPFERG1:god have mercy on you abeg. efulefu |
Obafavour:I agree with all you are saying, but the point I am making is that the epistles of Paul, Peter, James, etc. should not be considered as part of the Word of God because they are just letters that those men wrote. And since they are just the opinions of men like you and I, it should not be surprising that there are things that contradict Jesus. Just because they carry the same content of Jesus' preaching doesn't make them the word of God. If you read the Qur'an, you will also see similar things there, but will you now say Muhammad was a man of God? If I read the bible and then made my own scripture with similar contents to Jesus' preaching, should you now consider it word of God? Jesus arrived on the earth and gave the perfect, immaculate message. He then died and was risen again, after which he gave the disciples a final charge and ascended to heaven. |
Obafavour:Not to intrude, but I don't think it's hypocrisy at all. Are you not aware that the books within the Bible were not written all together? Someone chose which books deserved inclusion, and which books did not. That's why there are problems like the book of Jude indirectly referencing the Book of Enoch which is not included in the typical Bible even though it was well known at the time of compilation, or like Paul and Peter (or even Paul and Paul) making contradictory statements left and right. It's only the same Bible because the Christian community eventually decided that they should be in the same book, but that doesn't mean that you have to accept or reject all of them. The majority can be wrong sometimes, and in fact the Bible is full of stories of the righteous minority. This is even more evident with the Epistles of Paul and the other disciples. Unlike the Gospel, which is a description of Jesus' life and ministry as recorded by eyewitnesses, the Epistles are just letters that these important leaders of the Church would write to different churches and individuals. They aren't gospel, nor scripture, nor divinely inspired in the same way that the other writings are, because they are just letters. The contradictions between letters just proves that they are just opinion pieces by the writers. |
Did you ask God? Nna men. |
Kobojunkie:Thank you, I have recently been very confused recently as to the numerous contradictions between the letters of the epistles, and I had already realized that they were just personal opinions of the authors, but I still couldn't organize my thoughts on the issue. This has helped me fully clear my confusion on the issue. I don't have anything to add to the discussion. |
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