Malvisguy212's Posts
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shahydbinaliyu:this verse doesent make sense, why will the Jews killed the Messiah? Surah 4:157: And their saying: Surely we have KILLED THE MESSIAH, Isa son of Marium, the messenger of Allah; and they did not kill him nor did they crucify him, but it appeared to them so (like Isa) and most surely those who differ therein are only in a doubt about it; they have no knowledge respecting it, but only follow a conjecture, and they killed him not for sure. (Shakir) If you read this account in its entirety from Surah 4:153 to Surah 4:162, you will understand who they are that are saying, “Surely we have killed the Messiah, Isa son of Marium, the messenger of Allah.” According to the Qur’an, it is the Jews saying this. Think! Would the hostile Jews call Jesus the “Messiah” when they have rejected him as the Messiah? It must be remembered that the Jewish religious leaders even objected when Pilate wrote a title saying, “King of the Jews.” (John 19:19-22). It is, therefore, illogical for the Jews to boastfully say that “we have killed the Messiah” when they did not accept Jesus as the Messiah in the first place. |
shahydbinaliyu:alright. |
shahydbinaliyu:The following Qur’anic verse records Jesus as saying: Surah 19:33: Peace on me the day I was born, and the day I die, and the day I shall be raised alive! (Pickthall) Muslims claimed this verse was not talking about the death of Jesus, they shift the chronological sequence of event, they disorder it by saying Jesus will come and die, but the problems lies few verse after, we see john the baptist record the same word of Jesus ,We can read an almost identical passage about John the Baptist in Surah 19:15. Note the similarity in the wordings: " Surah 19:15: And peace on him on the day he was born, and on the day he dies, and on the day he is raised to life. (Shakir)" However, in the case of John the Baptist, Muslims scholars have no trouble recognizing the fact that this verse is speaking about his immediate death. And they also have no problem in understanding that it is only after his death that he will be raised to life in Paradise on the Day of Resurrection. If Jesus did not die then going by this verse that talk about the death of john the baptisst, john too did not die, you cannot twist the verse that say Jesus died in the quran and live the one that say john died, there chronological sequence of event are identical. https://www.nairaland.com/2008614/evidences-death-jesus-quran-prove |
shahydbinaliyu:so you are one of the people spreading lies about Christianity,you cannot even produce a single verse and you are asking me to visit a foolish blog, I invite you to this threads; Allah lied https://www.nairaland.com/1970166/lying-deity Terrorism in Islam https://www.nairaland.com/2092548/root-caused-islamic-terrorism Allah failed prophecy https://www.nairaland.com/2074132/allahs-failed-prophecy-quran Allah replace revelation with another https://www.nairaland.com/2121425/allahs-invalidate-own-revelation There are many thread,click my profile and find out. |
shahydbinaliyu:you cannot copy a single verse and paste it here but you can copy lies from the blog and past it here. |
shahydbinaliyu:can you quote the verses? |
Misogynist2014:God don't want the evil to spread. If God had told Noah to just migrate away from the flood area, the people would not have been warned of the impending judgment. Ultimately, they were without excuse in their rebellion against God, since the impending judgment was proclaimed to them for 100 years before it happened. Likewise, God will send two preachers for 1260 days prior to the ultimate judgment of God. Those who get on God's ark (Jesus Christ) will be saved from the judgment and pass from death to eternal life. there are some good biblical reasons why He chose not to do so. Why did God make the Israelites march around Jericho for seven days prior to the wall falling down? Why did God make the Israelite look upon the bronze serpent to be healed of snake bite in the wilderness? Why did Jesus make the blind man go to the Pool of Siloam to heal his blindness? Were any of these things actually required for God to do His work? No! God could have just wiped out all the evil people in the world, as He did later to the all the Egyptians' first-born. Maybe God had good reasons for Noah to build the ark? God has a purpose for each person of faith to join Him in preaching His message. God's plan will be accomplished regardless of our participation in it. However, God gives obedient humans the privilege of participating in God's plans. Likewise, God had a plan for Noah, part of which was for him and his sons to demonstrate their commitment and perseverance to the Lord. One will notice in the judgments that God renders, He almost always gives a warning to those who are being judged. For example, God sent angels to Sodom before it was to be destroyed, sent Jonah to Nineveh to warn them of the judgment to come, and will send two prophets to warn the people of the earth of the final judgment. The building of the ark was a great testimony of the coming judgment, since it was preached for 100 years during the building of the ark. The New Testament states this idea directly, since it says that Noah was a "preacher of righteousness": For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, but cast them into hell and committed them to pits of darkness, reserved for judgment; and did not spare the ancient world, but preserved Noah, a preacher of righteousness, with seven others, when He brought a flood upon the world of the ungodly; ( 2 Peter 2:4-5) |
wiegraf:the op are written that contradicts the teaching of Christianity, you copy and paste the articles, I am very sure you know the answer to the question you ask. |
Misogynist2014:in the text, the whole earth is referring to local geography area,where there are population of people.take for example this verses; Now the earth was corrupt in the sight of God, and the earth was filled with violence. ( Genesis 6:11) And God looked on the earth, and behold, it was corrupt; for all flesh had corrupted their way upon the earth. ( Genesis 6:12) When bible say the earth is corrupted we know that God is reffering to the people and it only the geography area where humans are populated. There is an Hebrew word used for the entire earth. The word is tebel (Strong's H8398), which is found 37 times in the Old Testament. Curiously, this word is never used to describe the flood. |
wiegraf:I am a christian ,what you got up there in the op was done by the enemies of the church. |
doubleDx:when they present their false allegation against God and they are given a wonderful answer (like the answer you present to them) there only reply was to say the bible is unreliable.the funny things is that, they are the one's quoting from the same bible in the first place, the op is an example. |
shahydbinaliyu:so Allah waited for 600 years before sending muhammed to say "they crucified him not? " what about thoes thinking Jesus was killed if they died before the coming of muhammed , who gonna take the blame? Allah or satan? |
Dp |
Empiree:you are a lier and a father for it, there is NO where in the scripture the people refers there saint's as "sister"or "daughter" they were only called "SON'S" and DAUGHTER" "Carrying the child, (Jesus), she (Mary) came to her people, who said to her: "Mary, this is indeed a strange thing! Sister of Aaron, your father was never a LovePeddler-monger, nor was your mother a harlot."" [The Koran, Dawood's translation, pages 215, 216]. This verse states that after Mary gave birth to Christ, her townsfolk reproached her. They thought she was not married, and assumed that she committed sexual sin because she gave birth. In their reproach, they called her, "Sister of Aaron". This mistake was discerned by the Arabic Christians of Najran. There is a record of them exposing Muhammad's mistake about Mary. In Sahih Muslim, the Hadith related by Mughirah ibn Shu'bah, #5326, says: "When I came to Najran, they (the Christians of Najran) asked me: You read "Sister of Harun", (i.e. Mary), in the Qur'an, whereas Moses was born well before Jesus. When I came back to Allah's Messenger I asked him about that, and he said: "The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostle and pious persons who had gone before them."" [Sahih Muslim, translated by Abdul Siddiqi]. Here is the issue: was Muhammad confused about Mary's identify, or was Mary really identified with and metaphorically called "sister of Aaron"? Was Muhammad telling the truth, or did he cover a mistake with a lie? If Muhammad did lie then in what does that make him? And, if the Quran does contain an error then should it be considered the literal word of God or just the synthesis of Muhammad's imagination and various religious stories? I will address this later. #1 The first important clue to note here, and one that is easily overlooked, is found in the text itself. The Arabic Christians of Najran objected to Mary being called "sister of Aaron". This speaks volumes, don't miss this fundamental point….. Muhammad said that this manner of using the idiom, "sister of Aaron", was done by the pious people of the "old age", i.e. people who lived during Mary's time. Those people called their fellow citizens after pious persons who had lived earlier. But the Christians of Najran did not recognize the use of this idiom. Although they lived some 600 years after Christ's time, they were familiar with their own religious stories, and certainly those of the Jews. But this idiom struck their ears as peculiar. If the idiom were familiar to them, they would not have objected. But the expression "sister of Aaron", when applied to Mary in relation to Aaron, was not familiar. Further, they did not recognize the technique or model in which this idiom was used. Had they known the custom that Muhammad said existed, of people calling other people "brother" or "sister" of ancient pious people, like possibly, "sister of Moses", "brother of David", "sister of Abraham", "brother of Isaac", they would have understood what the Quran was saying and raised no objection. But both the idiom, and the model in which it is used, were foreign to them. Note the next critical event. Again, it is fundamental to the point. The Arabic Muslim who came to Najran, and spoke with the Christians, did not know that the term was metaphorical. When confronted with the mistake he was dumbfounded! He had to go and see Muhammad to find out why there was a mistake in the Quran. Had he known that it was a metaphorical idiom, he would not have had to go and see Muhammad; he could have told the Najran Christians the meaning of the metaphor. Instead, the Muslim was confused because he also understood the passage to mean that Mary was Aaron's literal sister. In sum, the Christians understood the Arabic of the Quran to mean a literal brother and sister relationship between Aaron and Mary. Further, they did not recognize the idiom "sister of Aaron" when Muhammad used it with respect to Mary. In fact, the term, "sister of Aaron" was abnormal to them when applied to anyone other than Aaron's real sister - Miriam. Further the Arabic Muslim, Mughira Shu'bah, also did not know this idiom was metaphorical. He also understood it to be literal. When told of the error, he was confused. and went to see Muhammad to get an answer. |
MrPresident:there are many things you don't know, you are very very wrong my friend. The genesis flood was not global but a local one, and water did not cover all the earth.When you read an English translation of the biblical account of the flood, you will undoubtedly notice many words and verses that seem to suggest that the waters covered all of planet earth. However, one should note that today we look at everything from a global perspective, whereas the Bible nearly always refers to local geography. You will not be able to know this with the English translations of the bible, so let look at the original Hebrew word. The Hebrew words which are translated as "whole earth" or "all the earth" are kol (Strong's number H3605), which means "all," and erets (Strong's number H776), which means "earth,""land," "country," or "ground." Infacte, we don't need to go to far because the Hebrew word KOL and ERETS is used earlier in genesis chapter; The name of the first is Pishon; it flows around the whole [kol] land [erets] of Havilah, where there is gold. (Genesis 2:11) And the name of the second river is Gihon; it flows around the whole [kol] land [erets] of Cush. (Genesis 2:13) Base on this verse uses of the same word "whole land"(kol erets) we understand that it was not a global flood but local.Obviously, the description of kol erets is modified by the name of the land, indicating a local area from the context. In fact, the term kol erets is nearly always used in the Old Testament to describe a local area of land, instead of our entire planet. There are many more example, For example, in Genesis 11 (the Tower of Babel) the text says; "the whole [kol] earth [erets] used the same language." We know that this reference is not really to the earth at all (and certainly not to the "whole earth" ,but to the people of the earth, who all lived in one geographic location. It wasn't until later that God scattered the people over the face of the earth.There are many other examples of where kol erets actually refers to people rather than the geography of the "whole earth": Shall not the Judge of all [kol] the earth [erets] deal justly?" (Genesis 18:25) If we are to believe that the flood was a global one then going by this verse we will be saying God judge the earth which is wrong (God judges the people of the earth, not the earth itself) @proton your thread dosent make sense at all,bible say their wickedness exceed great,God even gave them His grace to repent by sending Noah to preach to them but the refused,Noah told them how God is about to destroyed the land,but the chose there WILL not to obeyed God word, God will not forced his will on you. Living in a peaceful world is not among the will of God, the world was created for spiritual being to chose to love or hate God, once evil is eliminated then the freewill of God is partial. |
kay1one2:thank you my good friend. God bless you. |
wordcat:in exedus God judge the amalikites after 300 years God fulfilled the judgment, 300 years is enough for the amalikites to repent, the amalikites are very rich nation YET they and other nation invades the isrealite farm and and take away there food, you turn blind eyes on this!? Seriously? You are not an atheist you are a satanic but it's unknown to you. |
blueyedgeek:Being chosen as the people through whom God would send the Messiah was no walk in the park for the Jews. You are right in the sense that the Jews are supposed to be the shining light for the rest nation, but the keep on breaking the commandment of God, infacte they are supposed to walk in the desert for 40 days but because of there disobedient they ended up walking for forty years ,in the book of hosea.Because they failed to be faithful to God, the Jews were scattered among the nations, where they "profaned the name of the Lord." However, after their 70 year exile in Babylon, the God gathered the Jews back to Israel in preparation for the coming Messiah. |
Abuamam:by muhammed admission,he was possessed by demon and the op quote from the quran and hadith.in the quran there are many verse we read Allah swear by the things he claimed was created by him. |
THE QUR’AN STATES THAT GOD CANNOT HAVE A SON WITHOUT A CONSORT (WIFE). Surah 6:101: “To Him is due the primal origin of the heavens and the earth: How can He have a son when He hath no consort?” (Yusuf Ali) Yet, the Qur’an itself records that Mary had a son without a consort. Surah 19:20-21: She said: How can I have a son when no mortal hath touched me, neither have I been unchaste! He said: So (it will be). Thy Lord saith: It is easy for Me. And (it will be) that We may make of him a revelation for mankind and a mercy from Us, and it is a thing ordained. (Pickthall) QUESTION IS: If Mary could produce a son without a husband, why would it be impossible for the Almighty Creator to produce a son without a wife? Why do you believe that the Almighty God is incapable of doing something that he himself empowered Mary to do? If Mary can beget a son without the sexual involvement of a husband, why cannot the Almighty God produce a son without the sexual association of a wife If Almighty God was able to create the vast universe and every living being in it out of nothing, why is he unable to produce a son for himself without a wife? When you say that God cannot have a son without a consort, is this not limiting God’s almightiness? And the Qur’an acknowledges: Surah 39:4: “If Allah had willed to choose a son, He could have chosen what He would of that which He hath created.” Well, does not this Qur’anic verse prove that God can and could have a son? That he could have a son anytime he wants? And that He could simply create a son for himself?Is this not exactly what the Holy Bible teaches? ( Colossians 1:15) |
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Empiree:why is Allah calling himself WE in in the quran? I only see muslims gives different answer some have no idea? Genesis 1:27 let US (father son and the holy spirit) make man in our IMAGE (oneness) if God is three this verse should have say "IMAGES" |
Empiree:a gown up man cannot answer the question of a kid? Quran told you to invoked peace on prophets without given you reason? You cannot state the reason why of the virgin birth. Let me ask the question know muslims have been able to answer once again; Both the Qur’an and the Bible tell us very clearly that Jesus had no human father. We must therefore ask ourselves this vital question, “Since Jesus is addressed as a ‘son’ by the angel Gabriel both in the Qur’an (Surah 19:19) and in the Bible (Luke 1:35), whose son is he?” Is it Mary’s? In Surah 19:19, the angel Gabriel said to Mary: “I am only a messenger of thy Lord, to announce to thee the GIFT of a holy son .” Here, Gabriel refers to a son who was to be given as a “GiFT” by God to Mary. Since the Qur’an makes it very clear that the son is a gift from God, it shows that Mary was only the recipient of that gift. She is not the source of that gift but God. The gift belongs to God. The gift was a son. Therefore, the son belongs to God which means the son was His or His son. In other words, God’s son. This testifies to the Gospel truth that Jesus is the Son of God. |
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