Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Create Evil - Does The Bible Say So? by malvisguy212(op): 4:34pm On Dec 12, 2014 |
You guys were running rampant , to and fro. Shouting God created evil, seeking who to devour and confusing innocent christians, hope you all have know the truth , God did not create evil but allow evil to exist for human to have option to love or hate God. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 4:27pm On Dec 12, 2014 |
frank317: Tell him to cover his head in shame, he created a fucccccked up world, yet he claims to be all knowing, all powerful and all loving. I will strip him off all the title because he deserves none. Don't worry, panel of gods will judge him for this mess he calls perfect earth. your are sooo confused, who should we tell ? God? Isn't God the one you say does not exist? Hate God or not, God will judge you. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 4:23pm On Dec 12, 2014 |
frank317: You have no shame... I wonder what your Christian brothers would be thinking. You opened up a thread just to feed us with jargons? Seriously, stop embarasing yourself with ur silly responses.
If boko haram kills your little infant brother or child... Would you say boko haram did your child a favour? Since you know death is a favour to whoever is heaven bound why would you make the first move to escape in case of danger. Or are you not sure you are going to heaven? Death is always painful, even elephants cry when they lost their loved ones. Never have I seen anybody rejoice that his little infant is just died because he is sure that the child is going to heaven. So if your child dies after your wife carries him in the belly for nine months you will set up a party because the child is going to heaven? Wasn't it your God who used death to punish man because of disobedience? If death is a punishment how is it a favour to an innocent child? jabez was bore out of sorrow, if jabez should'v died from birth, you guys will called God murderer, but when jabez live and experience suffering . It is the will of God.if david son live, what will you think will happen to him? He will experience suffering which david was the caused. It is for the child good that he died. You always give example of boko haram, am sure if God wipe of boko haram for the evil they did,in twenty years times your atheist friends will ignore the evil they commit and discuss how God killed them,non of you guys were able to provide enough prove that God killed innocent people. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 12:11pm On Dec 12, 2014 |
nobilis: Lol. Guy, biko I'm tired of your childish arguments. You can't answer a simple question. Have a nice day biko I'm outta here. thank you for your time. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Create Evil - Does The Bible Say So? by malvisguy212(op): 12:09pm On Dec 12, 2014 |
lastmessenger: Great post. The only thing is that I tell myself is no book has given a vivid explanation as to why evil exist therefore i choose to ignore those thought and move on with my life believing in God who knows all. evil must exist for man to have an option to love or hate God. God will not gives us partial freewill. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Create Evil - Does The Bible Say So? by malvisguy212(op): 11:57am On Dec 12, 2014 |
Unluvable: of what reason does that matter? oh sorry I forgot- I have to be one to get some sort of approval and attain eternal bliss ok, it a choice' you believe or you reject. Thank you for your time. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Create Evil - Does The Bible Say So? by malvisguy212(op): 11:04am On Dec 12, 2014 |
Unluvable: Is it in any dimension possible that as humans we can stop the whole bickering on our belief and just view the universe. Using this very consciousness that is bestowed on us.
in my years of being human all I've seen is that whoever or whatever was responsible for this observable universe destroys all that's created. destruction is an important part of creation and critical in recycling.
it goes on and on with no interference. this is what life is all about. you and I find ourselves in the middle of it all, somewhere in history. your questions, your convictions is not going to change anything! it doesn't change that a baby somewhere is born with a defeat or that beautiful mountain is boiling up magma that will erupt leaving a comatose trail or that breathtaking ocean you are in awe of is making up a cyclone.
and this will go on and on till we complete our degenerative cycle putting an end to our consciousness. we'll all go back to how we were before we became aware.
and finally one day, when the earth finally decide to end the cycle. no one will be left to debate on how we got here and why we are here are you a christian? |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 10:34am On Dec 12, 2014 |
nobilis: Guy, honestly, why do you like beating about the bush. Let me ask you a very simple and straightforward question: The child that God killed, was he innocent or not?
There are only two possible answers to this question: 1. Yes, the child was innocent. 2. No, the child was not innocent.
So give me an answer. how do you defined innocent?is it not when they accused you of somthing you did not do? That were they called you innocent, the child was accused of what? God did not accused the child of sin, the child did not do any good, the only thing I understand is that he was innocent of the sin of david and God took his life because God has declear that the house of david will be in chaos if the child was to remain alive, he will face the punishment. Dint you read how david sons were killing themself? The child would have been among but he was taking to heaven via death. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 9:45am On Dec 12, 2014 |
nobilis: Why should I read your other post na? Is it that the child that God killed wasn't innocent? Or is it that the child doesn't qualify as a person? Which one?
Because the title of your thread asks if God killed innocent people. And you and I have arrived at the conclusion that God killed innocent children.
Why else should I read your other post? jabez was bore with pain, but God let him leave,it is the will of God. The death of the child was a favour, there will comes a time when in your life you will regreat being born( not an abuse). |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 9:41am On Dec 12, 2014 |
nobilis: You do not believe that the universe could have come into existence spontaneously by itself. But you staunchly believe that your God came into existence spontaneously by himself, right? does this mean atheism is a belief? |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Create Evil - Does The Bible Say So? by malvisguy212(op): 9:37am On Dec 12, 2014 |
malvisguy212: One of the most common reasons skeptics reject the existence of God is due to the presence of evil in this universe. They reason that a perfect God would not create a universe in which evil exists. Skeptics claim that since God created everything that God must have also created evil. They even cite Bible verses, such as:
'' I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things. ( Isaiah 45:7, KJV)''
'' Shall a trumpet be blown in the city, and the people not be afraid? shall there be evil in a city, and the LORD hath not done it? ( Amos 3:6, KJV)''
'' Out of the mouth of the most High proceedeth not evil and good? ( Lamentations 3:38)''
However, evil is not really a created thing. You can't see, touch, feel, smell or hear evil. It is not one of the fundamental forces of physics, nor does it consist of matter, energy, or the spatial dimensions of the universe. Still, skeptics like to claim that God created evil and cite the Bible to "prove" their point. The Bible is quite clear that God is not the author of evil and insists that He is incapable of. doing so.
Skeptics love the KJV so much, one would think that they were still back in medieval England. Use of this translation is problematic these days, since it uses an archaic version of modern English, which doesn't necessarily mean the same things today as when it was translated over 400 years ago. In addition, the KJV was produced using a limited number of medieval manuscripts that did not represent the earliest Alexandrian set of manuscripts.
WHAT DO THE MODERN TRANSLATION SAY?
1.Isaiah 45:7. The One forming light and creating darkness, Causing well-being and creating calamity; I am the LORD who does all these. ( Isaiah 45:7, NASB) I form the light and create darkness, I bring prosperity and create disaster; I, the LORD, do all these things. ( Isaiah 45:7, NIV) Isaiah 45:7 contrasts opposites. Darkness is the opposite of light. However, evil is not the opposite of peace. The Hebrew word translated "peace" is shampoo, which has many meanings, mostly related to the well being of individuals. Râ‛âh, the Hebrew word translated "evil" in the KJV often refers to adversity or calamity. There are two forms of the word. Strong's H7451a most often refers to moral evil, whereas Strong's H7451b (the form used here) most often refers to calamity or distress. Obviously, "calamity" is a better antonym of "peace" than "evil." 2.Amos3:6. If a trumpet is blown in a city will not the people tremble? If a calamity occurs in a city has not the LORD done it? ( Amos 3:6, NASB) When a trumpet sounds in a city, do not the people tremble? When disaster comes to a city, has not the LORD caused it? ( Amos 3:6, NIV) Likewise, Amos 3:6 uses the same word, râ‛âh, referring to calamity or disaster. the context (a disaster happening to a city) does not refer to moral evil. 3. Lamentations 3:38 Is it not from the mouth of the Most High that both calamities and good things come? ( Lamentations 3:38, NIV) Is it not from the mouth of the Most High That both good and ill go forth? ( Lamentations 3:38, NASB) The King James Version of Lamentations 3:38 seems to suggest that God speaks both good and evil. However, if one reads the verse in context, the preceding verses indicate that God does not do or approve of evil. The verse following indicates that people should not complain in view of their sins. What the verse really is saying that God decrees times of good things and times of judgment. Lamentations was written by Jeremiah during a time of judgment, when Judah had gone off into exile. Jeremiah was chosen by God to be the prophet to tell Judah to reform or be judged. The people did not believe Jeremiah, and, therefore, fell under God's judgment. In Lamentations 3:38, the word translated "good" is ṭôb (Strong's H2896). The word usually refers to good things as opposed to bad things. Again, râ‛âh does not refer to moral evil, but calamities, in this verse. Likewise, the Bible commentaries indicate that the verse refers to God's judgment based upon people's sin Conclusion; God is not the author of evil. However, God does reward and punish on the basis of good and bad behavior. Therefore, God does bring judgment and calamity (either directly or through human authorities) on those who rebel. God will ultimately judge all people, since rebels will not be allowed in the new, perfect creation. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 9:36am On Dec 12, 2014 |
nobilis: [color=Red]Lol. Good. So you have finally agreed that God can kill and did actually kill innocent people. Thank you very much. I have made my point.[/color] read my other posr. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 9:13am On Dec 12, 2014 |
nobles: Mr Wiseman, What you're trying to say is that God killed the child, not because of any sin that the child committed? Rather he killed the child because of David's sin. Meaning that God killed an INNOCENT child because of the sin someone else committed. I'll ask you other questions based on this.
So now we've proven that God killed an innocent child. Can you now correct the title of your thread or you still need more proofs? you must be joking right? Asking me to change the title of thread, I haven't pay attention to you but this draw my attention. The child dead was a favour to him(th child) have you read the story of jabez? Let me show you. the story and ask why his mother bore him with pain? What is the sin of jabez? Bible never highlight but it was clear his brothers were sinners even his mom. . In 1 Chronicles 4:9-10, we find a short prayer uttered by an obscure man: "Jabez was more honorable than his brothers. His mother named him 'Jabez' saying, 'Because I bore him with pain.' Now, Jabez called on the God of Israel saying, 'Oh, Lord, bless me indeed and expand my territory. Keep Your hand on me, and keep evil from me, that I may not cause pain!' And God granted him what he requested." His mother cause him and people reject him, if God have take his life from birth, he wuld'nt have pass all this pain. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 8:46am On Dec 12, 2014 |
nobilis: David was punished for committing adultery by the killing of his INNOCENT child by God.
Please what about the child in question here? Are you trying to say that the child's life has no meaning on earth? Are you trying to say that the whole reason that the child was born was to be as a punishment to David? Are you trying to say that the child's life is useless in itself and was only useful insofar as he was used to punish David?
And by extension, you're saying that abortion is alright which goes against what your fellow christians preach. You guys shout from the mountains about the evils of abortion. But from what you're saying, God killed a child because he was conceived in sin. Therefore, we are all free to abort babies conceived in sin. Isn't that right?
Finally, since your God is omnipotent and omniscient, it means he knew that a child will result from David's adultery. Why didn't he prevent the child from being conceived in the first place? After all, not all intercourse leads to pregnancy? And this would have been a perfect way to prevent anyone having to die. Okay, if perchance, the conception had already taken place before God woke up, he could have caused the pregnancy to miscarry. But he didn't do it. He allowed the baby to be born in perfect health and then he killed him. it was for the good of the child that he died,infact God did him a favour,david bore the child with sinfulness the death of the child was a favour because the child was innocent and staying alive mean satan will take advantage of his(the child) sinful nature from birth. The child go to heaven because when david cried to God he say''he(the child) may not come to me but I will go to him) david was in heaven now with the child. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 9:36pm On Dec 11, 2014 |
frank317: Of course your god killed for a reason, no doubt. Are you saying that once we have reason to kill, it is right to kill? He killed people because they committed sin. Does that make killing right? He killed Davids innocent infant because he wanted to ensure Jesus was born in Davids lineage. So much for a nice plan. Boko haram kill because they think you are an infidel and a sinner who baspheme against their God by saying he has a son, you go screaming they are wicked. If you accept sinners death why can't you be killed by other religion once they see you as a sinner. Imagine, you have the boldness to justify the death of infants because they are going to hevean... Well, don't let you wish be granted unto you. in the old testament , anyone that break the law fall on God judgment,as long as you break the law you are not innocent. David face the punishment of his sin,if you read the story of david you will observe his sons were killing each other, the death of the infant was a favour to the child, he went to heaven. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 2:32pm On Dec 11, 2014 |
nobilis: I've bolded and numbered two parts of your post. Number 1: All those you were saying about infant salvation and David being united his son makes no meaning and doesn't answer my question in any way. My question is WHY did God kill David's first son with Bathsheba for a crime that David committed? WHY ? That's the question. Stop all this your rigmarolling and answer the simple question. Why did God kill David's first son with Bathsheba for a crime that David committed?. Please answer the question in a concise and straightforward manner. Stop beating about the bush.
Secondly you didn't talk about the other questions I raised.
Number 2: I have told you numerous times that you don't read your bible and you felt I was lying. The pharaoh that ordered that all of Israel's newborn male children to be killed was the same pharaoh whose daughter found Moses among the reeds of the river where she went to bath. So this pharaoh was Moses' grandfather by adoption. It was also this same pharaoh that sought to kill Moses when Moses killed an Egyptian; which led to Moses fleeing from Egypt to Midian where he got married to Zipporah, Jethro's daughter. [color=Red]This Pharaoh died while Moses was in Midian. So he wasn't the same Pharaoh that Moses met when he went back to Egypt.[/color] - Exodus chapters 1 and 2. Take particular note of Exodus 2: 23a
Biko, nna, read your bible. I beg you. You're just empty Christian. Empty vessels that make the loudest noise. Mtcheeew. Please just go your way. Your shallowness has now been made evident. why have you guys ignoring this thread? https://www.nairaland.com/2035915/did-god-create-evil-does |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 2:26pm On Dec 11, 2014 |
frank317: Daftness in the highest order. Someone opens up a thread on a topic he knows absolutely nothing about.
I keep on saying it, most Christians don't read their bible. They just go to church, listen to their pastor, make assumptions that makes them feel okay, pay their tithe and offering, clap hand and dance and go back home to continue to sin. Yet they are quick to call atheists fools for something they themselves know nothing about.
A simple question and the all knowing op is running round and round.
He knows no shame... And is ready to just justify the killing of babies by his God. What's all this rubbish about kids going to hevean. Why don't you kill your new infant so that he could go to heaven. Are u such a sadist because of religion? What is really the difference between your thinking and bokoharam's if you think people who disobey your god deserve death? ok. Am sure you have read and understand the whole bible, can you show me were God killed without a cause? |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 2:23pm On Dec 11, 2014 |
nobilis: I've bolded and numbered two parts of your post. Number 1: All those you were saying about infant salvation and David being united his son makes no meaning and doesn't answer my question in any way. My question is WHY did God kill David's first son with Bathsheba for a crime that David committed? WHY ? That's the question. Stop all this your rigmarolling and answer the simple question. Why did God kill David's first son with Bathsheba for a crime that David committed?. Please answer the question in a concise and straightforward manner. Stop beating about the bush.
Secondly you didn't talk about the other questions I raised.
Number 2: I have told you numerous times that you don't read your bible and you felt I was lying. The pharaoh that ordered that all of Israel's newborn male children to be killed was the same pharaoh whose daughter found Moses among the reeds of the river where she went to bath. So this pharaoh was Moses' grandfather by adoption. It was also this same pharaoh that sought to kill Moses when Moses killed an Egyptian; which led to Moses fleeing from Egypt to Midian where he got married to Zipporah, Jethro's daughter. [color=Red]This Pharaoh died while Moses was in Midian. So he wasn't the same Pharaoh that Moses met when he went back to Egypt.[/color] - Exodus chapters 1 and 2. Take particular note of Exodus 2: 23a
Biko, nna, read your bible. I beg you. You're just empty Christian. Empty vessels that make the loudest noise. Mtcheeew. Please just go your way. Your shallowness has now been made evident. how many times will I answer your question? David commit adultery by sleeping with another man wife were by fall in God judgment,the punishment is death,but because he was the seed of promise and God will not change his convent he promise to abraham issac and jacob, instead the child died and david home was a chaos,his sons were killing each other. Am busy now,I will attend to your other post. |
Christianity Etc › Re: 14 Bible Verses That Indicate Jesus Is Not God by malvisguy212: 8:41am On Dec 11, 2014 |
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Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 8:19am On Dec 11, 2014 |
nobilis: Indeed. It is so obvious that you're not well-versed in the bible. The pharoah that ordered the children of the Israelites to be killed wasn't the same pharoah of the Exodus. So by all implications, you're saying that God punishes a son for his ancestor's sins, right? Which is in direct contravention to what the bible said about him meting out punishment to whoever deserves it.
And you're even bold enough to tell me that the bible didn't say it was children that were killed by God that night. So in your wisdom, you believe that all the first-born of all living things in Egypt were adults? Indeed.
And even after taking pride and solace in the fact that the bible didn't say children were killed by God that night, you had the temerity to boldly write what the bible didn't say. When God killed David's first son with Bath-sheba, where did the bible say that the child went to heaven? Just give me the quotation and I'll read it for myself. Stop telling me things you feel the bible implied. Because if I start telling you things I feel the bible implied in so many places, you'll be horrified.
And finally, u didn't answer my question: 1. WHY did God kill David's first son with Bathsheba for a crime David committed?
2. WHY did God order Saul to kill children and babies for a crime committed by their ancestors?
3. WHY did God allow the devil to destroy all of Job's children?
The question is WHY Stop diverting. You want to prove to me that God doesn't kill innocent people. So tell me why God killed children for a crime they didn't commit. "While the child was yet alive, I fasted and wept; for I said, Who can tell whether GOD will be gracious to me, that the child may live? But now he is dead, why should I fast? Can I bring him back again? I shall go to him, but he shall not return to me" (2 Samuel 12:22-23). The clear sense of this passage is that David believed that he would be reunited with his child in the next life. He knew the baby, having died, could not come back to this life, but he believed that he would go to him. While we can't be dogmatic that such a passage teaches infant salvation, yet it does seem to point in that direction. You said the pharoah that killed the irealite male son was diff from the one God killed his first son.? Can you prove itV |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 8:02am On Dec 11, 2014 |
nobilis: Indeed. It is so obvious that you're not well-versed in the bible. The pharoah that ordered the children of the Israelites to be killed wasn't the same pharoah of the Exodus. So by all implications, you're saying that God punishes a son for his ancestor's sins, right? Which is in direct contravention to what the bible said about him meting out punishment to whoever deserves it.
And you're even bold enough to tell me that the bible didn't say it was children that were killed by God that night. So in your wisdom, you believe that all the first-born of all living things in Egypt were adults? Indeed.
And even after taking pride and solace in the fact that the bible didn't say children were killed by God that night, you had the temerity to boldly write what the bible didn't say. When God killed David's first son with Bath-sheba, where did the bible say that the child went to heaven? Just give me the quotation and I'll read it for myself. Stop telling me things you feel the bible implied. Because if I start telling you things I feel the bible implied in so many places, you'll be horrified.
And finally, u didn't answer my question: 1. WHY did God kill David's first son with Bathsheba for a crime David committed?
2. WHY did God order Saul to kill children and babies for a crime committed by their ancestors?
3. WHY did God allow the devil to destroy all of Job's children?
The question is WHY Stop diverting. You want to prove to me that God doesn't kill innocent people. So tell me why God killed children for a crime they didn't commit. "While the child was yet alive, I fasted and wept; for I said, Who can tell whether GOD will be gracious to me, that the child may live? But now he is dead, why should I fast? Can I bring him back again? I shall go to him, but he shall not return to me" (2 Samuel 12:22-23). The clear sense of this passage is that David believed that he would be reunited with his child in the next life. He knew the baby, having died, could not come back to this life, but he believed that he would go to him. While we can't be dogmatic that such a passage teaches infant salvation, yet it does seem to point in that direction. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 11:31pm On Dec 10, 2014 |
nobilis: Lol. You're just as typical as they come. It's either you guys say that you just believe, or you guys will say God knows best. Or you guys will revert to the argument that the biblical translations are erroneous.
Yet you have not answered my questions. And that is my problem with you. I will ask you a question and instead of answering the question, you'll start talking about something else and you end up not answering the question. Forget all this your long posts and just concisely answer the questions I asked. Simple.
I agree dat according to your original hebrew, the bible said thou shalt not murder without cause or reason. Ok. Fine. No argument on that.
So answer me: 1. Why did God kill all the first-born of all living things in Egypt? What crimes did they commit? His ire was with the Pharoah who he refused to permit to let the Israelites go. So why didn't he just possibly kill Pharoah and all his councillors? Why did he have to kill the first-born of all living things in Egypt?
2. Why did God kill David's first son with Bathsheba because of a sin David committed?
3. Why did God command Saul to kill children and babies in Amalek for a crime they didn't commit? Just answer me these three questions. That's all. the old testament law is an eye for an eye,at the beginning, pharoah was the one that first oder for all male child born by the isrealite to be killed,moreover God warn him for the coming danger but he refused. God oder first born son to be killed the text did not say children. David was loved by God, God loved require justice but because the Messiah are to come from his root he was speared ,moreover the child went to heaven. This verse indicate all child were born to God; Moreover, you took your sons and daughters whom you had borne to Me and sacrificed them to idols to be devoured. Were your harlotries so small a matter? You slaughtered My children and offered them up to idols by causing them to pass through the fire." ( Ezekiel 16:20-21) Jesus indicated that people who enter heaven are like children, implying that children go to heaven. And He called a child to Himself and set him before them, and said, "Truly I say to you, unless you are converted and become like children, you will not enter the kingdom of heaven." ( Matthew 18:2-3) Then some children were brought to Him so that He might lay His hands on them and pray; and the disciples rebuked them. But Jesus said, "Let the children alone, and do not hinder them from coming to Me; for the kingdom of heaven belongs to such as these." ( Matthew 19:13-14) |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 3:46pm On Dec 10, 2014 |
nobilis: Wow. God doesn't tolerate sin. Huh? It is in his nature. Huh?
1. What kind of God gives his people the commandment not to kill and then turns around and tells them to pick up arms and go and kill children and babies?
2. Why didn't God kill Abraham when he lied that Sarah was his sister instead of his wife?
3. Why didn't God kill David who committed adultery and murder in one single breath?
4. Why didn't God kill David and his men when they entered the Tent of worship and ate the unleavened bread meant for priests and levites.
5. Why didn't God kill Solomon when Solomon obviously started worshipping his wives' idols?
6. Why did God allow Elisha to order a lion to kill the children that were taunting him?
And the list goes on and on. I did some study and research on this,The KJV was translated in the early 17th century using an archaic form of modern English. In the last 400 years, the English language has changed significantly. Unfortunately, the vast majority of those who read the KJV (both believers and unbelievers) are unqualified to know what the text means in many instances because of word meaning changes. In attempting to demonstrate the contradiction of God's commands to Israel and the sixth commandment, atheist cite the KJV translation, "Thou shalt not kill." However, like English, Hebrew, the language in which most of the Old Testament was written, uses different words for intentional vs. unintentional killing. The verse translated "Thou shalt not kill" in the KJV translation, is translated "You shall not murder" in modern translations - because these translations represents the real meaning of the Hebrew text. The Bible in Basic English translates the phrase, "Do not put anyone to death without cause." The Hebrew word used here is ratsach, which nearly always refers to intentional killing without cause (unless indicated otherwise by context). Hebrew law recognized accidental killing as not punishable. In fact, specific cities were designated as "cities of refuge," so that an unintentional killer could flee to escape retribution. The Hebrew word for "kill" in this instance is not ratsach, but nakah, which can refer to either premeditated or unintentional killing, depending upon context. Other Hebrew words also can refer to killing. The punishment for murder was the death sentence. However, to be convicted, there needed to be at least two eyewitnesses. The Bible also prescribes that people have a right to defend themselves against attack and use deadly force if necessary. To answer the question whether God breaks His own commandments, we need to determine if God committed murder (i.e., killed people without cause). The Bible is quite clear that God has killed people directly (the most prominent example being the flood) and indirectly (ordered peoples to be killed). If God ordered or participated in the killing of innocent people, then He would be guilty of. murder. God killed people directly via the flood,however the killing was justified because he gave them more than enough time to repent,he warn them but the bible make it clear that they refuse,there evil was exceeding great,until you provide verse from the bible that picture God killed people without a cause, don't quote me. Thank you for your time. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 1:46pm On Dec 10, 2014 |
nobilis: Kedu ihe onye nke a na-akogheridi? I ask you something. You start talking something else. Guy, itz enough. Don't quote me again. thank you for your time. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 8:43am On Dec 10, 2014 |
nobilis: Wow. God doesn't tolerate sin. Huh? It is in his nature. Huh?
1. What kind of God gives his people the commandment not to kill and then turns around and tells them to pick up arms and go and kill children and babies?
2. Why didn't God kill Abraham when he lied that Sarah was his sister instead of his wife?
3. Why didn't God kill David who committed adultery and murder in one single breath?
4. Why didn't God kill David and his men when they entered the Tent of worship and ate the unleavened bread meant for priests and levites.
5. Why didn't God kill Solomon when Solomon obviously started worshipping his wives' idols?
6. Why did God allow Elisha to order a lion to kill the children that were taunting him?
And the list goes on and on. God love is require justice, just like a father will punish his son for disobedient that how God will punish sinner. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Did God Realy Killed Innocent People As Claim By Atheist? by malvisguy212(op): 5:36pm On Dec 09, 2014 |
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Christianity Etc › Did God Create Evil - Does The Bible Say So? by malvisguy212(op): 9:53am On Dec 09, 2014 |
One of the most common reasons skeptics reject the existence of God is due to the presence of evil in this universe. They reason that a perfect God would not create a universe in which evil exists. Skeptics claim that since God created everything that God must have also created evil. They even cite Bible verses, such as:
'' I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things. ( Isaiah 45:7, KJV)''
'' Shall a trumpet be blown in the city, and the people not be afraid? shall there be evil in a city, and the LORD hath not done it? ( Amos 3:6, KJV)''
'' Out of the mouth of the most High proceedeth not evil and good? ( Lamentations 3:38)''
However, evil is not really a created thing. You can't see, touch, feel, smell or hear evil. It is not one of the fundamental forces of physics, nor does it consist of matter, energy, or the spatial dimensions of the universe. Still, skeptics like to claim that God created evil and cite the Bible to "prove" their point. The Bible is quite clear that God is not the author of evil and insists that He is incapable of. doing so.
Skeptics love the KJV so much, one would think that they were still back in medieval England. Use of this translation is problematic these days, since it uses an archaic version of modern English, which doesn't necessarily mean the same things today as when it was translated over 400 years ago. In addition, the KJV was produced using a limited number of medieval manuscripts that did not represent the earliest Alexandrian set of manuscripts.
WHAT DO THE MODERN TRANSLATION SAY?
1.Isaiah 45:7. The One forming light and creating darkness, Causing well-being and creating calamity; I am the LORD who does all these. ( Isaiah 45:7, NASB) I form the light and create darkness, I bring prosperity and create disaster; I, the LORD, do all these things. ( Isaiah 45:7, NIV) Isaiah 45:7 contrasts opposites. Darkness is the opposite of light. However, evil is not the opposite of peace. The Hebrew word translated "peace" is shampoo, which has many meanings, mostly related to the well being of individuals. Râ‛âh, the Hebrew word translated "evil" in the KJV often refers to adversity or calamity. There are two forms of the word. Strong's H7451a most often refers to moral evil, whereas Strong's H7451b (the form used here) most often refers to calamity or distress. Obviously, "calamity" is a better antonym of "peace" than "evil." 2.Amos3:6. If a trumpet is blown in a city will not the people tremble? If a calamity occurs in a city has not the LORD done it? ( Amos 3:6, NASB) When a trumpet sounds in a city, do not the people tremble? When disaster comes to a city, has not the LORD caused it? ( Amos 3:6, NIV) Likewise, Amos 3:6 uses the same word, râ‛âh, referring to calamity or disaster. the context (a disaster happening to a city) does not refer to moral evil. 3. Lamentations 3:38 Is it not from the mouth of the Most High that both calamities and good things come? ( Lamentations 3:38, NIV) Is it not from the mouth of the Most High That both good and ill go forth? ( Lamentations 3:38, NASB) The King James Version of Lamentations 3:38 seems to suggest that God speaks both good and evil. However, if one reads the verse in context, the preceding verses indicate that God does not do or approve of evil. The verse following indicates that people should not complain in view of their sins. What the verse really is saying that God decrees times of good things and times of judgment. Lamentations was written by Jeremiah during a time of judgment, when Judah had gone off into exile. Jeremiah was chosen by God to be the prophet to tell Judah to reform or be judged. The people did not believe Jeremiah, and, therefore, fell under God's judgment. In Lamentations 3:38, the word translated "good" is ṭôb (Strong's H2896). The word usually refers to good things as opposed to bad things. Again, râ‛âh does not refer to moral evil, but calamities, in this verse. Likewise, the Bible commentaries indicate that the verse refers to God's judgment based upon people's sin Conclusion; God is not the author of evil. However, God does reward and punish on the basis of good and bad behavior. Therefore, God does bring judgment and calamity (either directly or through human authorities) on those who rebel. God will ultimately judge all people, since rebels will not be allowed in the new, perfect creation. |
Christianity Etc › Re: Using The Fear Of Hell by malvisguy212: 9:16am On Dec 09, 2014 |
[quote author=frosbel post=28707347][/quote]see,my good friend, God did not created hell for human, hell is for satan and his demon,as long as God is concern,anyone that obey satan is a demon and he will go to hell,if there is nothing like hell ,then what will be the punishment of satan? Bible make it clear about the end of the road for satan and demon to be hell,if hell is not a place of pain and torment then we will say with certainty that satan and demon will not be tormented because hell is there last destination.
Just like Hiswordxray has say,it was fear that is making you to say all this,you have a favourite sin that you can't do away with,you want to satisfy your fear,as a good christian hell isn't suppose to be a problem to us,may God forgive us. |
Christianity Etc › Re: To All Nairaland Christians by malvisguy212: 6:59am On Dec 09, 2014 |
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Christianity Etc › Re: To All Nairaland Christians by malvisguy212: 6:50am On Dec 09, 2014 |
BABAAGBALABA: wait,wat assurance do u even have dat Jesus is a christain or he even recognise christianity,because apostle Paul said,better wake up and think jesus duty was not to preach religion but to reconcile us back to God after the fall of man,it was the the people when they see the work and deed of the apostle was like that of jesus that was when the called them christian. |