Mbaemeka's Posts
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shdemidemi: Only your words seem to make any meaning as far as you are concerned.Jesus was raised on the third day not because of the flesh he had for the umpteenth time! He was raised for 3 major reasons: 1) To prove that he was the son of God. 2) To justify us 3) To ascend into heaven. All christians will have the incorruptible body like Jesus during the rapture. Geez. |
vooks: here is what Mbaemeko said on page 24 I believeSinful flesh is mortal, Corruptible, earthly flesh. There is only one type of this flesh. In contrast to the Immortal, Incorruptible, spiritual body. 1 Corinthians 15:39 39 All flesh is not the same flesh, but there is one kind of flesh[c] of men 44 It is sown a natural body, it is raised a spiritual body. There is a natural body, and there is a spiritual body. 53 For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality. 54 So when this corruptible has put on incorruption, and this mortal has put on immortality, Paul was saying this in referring to Jesus' resurrection. Jesus had to be sown as mortal and raised as immortal. The mortal flesh is the natural human body which is what is also referred to as the SINFUL flesh because it can sin, get injured, die etc. Jesus flesh could sin if he let it but Jesus refused to sin- he did not sin. That's what made his body unblemished. If the scriptures meant that he had an immortal body (Sinless body) then he would not have been able to die or get injured. |
shdemidemi: lol... If this your response does not drive home the point, I wonder what will.Do you know this doesn't make any sense? Please read my post's slowly and clearly and you would get it. Jesus' body didn't see decay because God resurrected him before he could. What does that have to do with the body that was buried? Paul said we are sown in corruption but raised in incorruption just like Jesus!! Corruption is another name for mortal or earthly vessel while Incorruption is the same as immortal, Spiritual, glorified body. Jesus died in a mortal vessel but was changed to the glorified when he resurrected. |
shdemidemi: I thought I explained this earlier, did you miss it?I am being derailed seriously. I don't know what this post has to do with salvation or what not. If a man commits a sin who does he offend God or Paul? So why is Paul forgiving him so that Satan doesn't take advantage? Paul delivered the man to Satan first to discipline his flesh. Who gave Paul the authority to deliver another Christian to satan? |
trustman: You always feel you must be right and everyone else wrong.I can't believe what I am reading. This is coming from you with all the goofs so far? I like Olaadegbu’s post intending to sort out issues for you. But even Olaadegbu’s clear explanation was still contested by you.Romans 8:3 CEB God has done what was impossible for the Law, since it was weak because of selfishness. God condemned sin in the body by sending his own Son to deal with sin in the same body as humans, who are controlled by sin. Romans 8:3 GNT What the Law could not do, because human nature was weak, God did. He condemned sin in human nature by sending his own Son, who came with a nature like our sinful nature, to do away with sin. Paul dealt extensively with the issue of SIN in the book of Romans. In Romans 7:17 & 18 for instance we have:I wish you understood scriptures the way you think you do. Man is a spirit who has a soul and lives in a body. The sin that WAS in Paul was in his SPIRIT for that is the real Paul. The flesh is already condemned because of the corruption and IS NEVER described as the man in scripture. Never! Have you ever noted Paul’s reference to the flesh with regards to sin indwelling it? What does this tell you?I asked questions based on that verse of scripture. Use the questions to prove your interpretations right. Hint: Man is a SPIRIT. So to you ‘in him’ refer to only his spirit and blood. Where you got that from I cannot begin to imagine. How did you begin to single out ‘spirit’ and ‘blood’?1 Corinthians 9:27New King James Version (NKJV) 27 But I discipline my body and bring it into subjection Paul said I discipline my body. The I is the spirit that brings the body into subjection. The man is not the body. Leviticus 17:14New King James Version (NKJV) 14 for it is the life of all flesh. Its blood sustains its life. Therefore I said to the children of Israel, ‘You shall not eat the blood of any flesh, for the life of all flesh is its blood. The life of the Body is the BLOOD. Do you see why the body doesn't count as such? The Spirit and the blood must be sin-free for the man to be a perfect sacrifice while the Body must perform no sin. Jesus met all 3 conditions because he bypassed the blood and Spirit too by his father, and his body didn't sin even though it was like ours. [s]So to you it is nonsense to say that Jesus’ miracles were part of what was to showcase him as the Messiah.What does this thrash mean? Those who have healing schools are called into the Healing ministry because they have a gift of healing. Do you know what that is? Please go and study and stop teaching yourself and your ilk junk ideas without an iota of scripture backing you. You don't preach salvation the right way if you don't know that Christ's death heals us of diseases and sicknesses alike- works of the devil according to scriptures. |
shdemidemi: Will the same thing happen to your body when you die?I hope to have time to respond to others. "If" I die you meant because not all of us will die - Some will be here when Jesus comes. Those of us still alive will be changed immediately to the glorified body as we ascend. The dead ones will have their decayed remains (from wherever it is) changed to the immortal body and they would ascend first. The mortal will change to immortal and not that we would leave anything behind. |
shdemidemi: Can you forgive my sins?What does this mean? Please explain it. Jesus said it to his disciples after he resurrected. John 20:23New King James Version (NKJV) 23 If you forgive the sins of any, they are forgiven them; if you retain the sins of any, they are retained.” As per Paul, 2 Corinthians 2:21 10 Now whom you forgive anything, I also forgive. For if indeed I have forgiven anything, I have forgiven that one[a] for your sakes in the presence of Christ, 11 lest Satan should take advantage of us; for we are not ignorant of his devices. Before you come back and say the man offended Paul- he didn't. He slept with his step-mum and Paul handed him over to the devil to discipline his flesh. Later Paul reneged and had mercy on the man so he said I have forgiven him in the presence of Christ (with Christ's consent) so that Satan would not have authority to deal with the man again like he was doing before. Paul was exercising the authority Jesus gave in John 20:23. He didn't tell the man ask God to forgive you so that Satan will free you- he said I HAVE FORGIVEN HIM. |
shdemidemi: You refuse to answer questions, only to turn around and ask questions that will keep us here without reaching any meaningful conclusion.Now this is what I despise for I have responded to this with clear scriptures. Let me repost it again here maybe you would see it this time. He (Jesus) functioned in this world in a corruptible flesh and it changed to Incorruptible when he resurrected. It is the same Immortal flesh that we all would have at his appearing (The Rapture). We all means Christians that are alive and those that are dead whose spirits are already in Heaven. Their physical decayed remains would change to the immortal one with their spirits within and they would ascend to meet Jesus in the air while those of us still around would change in the twinkling of an eye and meet with them shortly after.This is what happened to Jesus- he was buried with a mortal flesh but he was raised with the glorified body. If I haven't answered any questions please re-ask them even as you answer mine. |
vooks: Jesus never went to heaven before ascension that's another Pentecostal urban legendYour problem is no different from some of your brethren even though yours seems more pronounced. I have you on record on this thread saying Jesus blood and body weren't divine and now I have seen you follow the crowd of people who don't study. Let me disgrace you again by the word of God. John 20:17King James Version (KJV) 17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God. Hebrews 9:24King James Version (KJV) 24 For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us: As per his body and blood being for redemption who argued against that? Each of them had their own specific functions. Matthew 26:28King James Version (KJV) 28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins. 1 Corinthians 11:24King James Version (KJV) 24 And when he had given thanks, he brake it, and said, Take, eat: this is my body, which is broken for you: this do in remembrance of me. Hebrews 9:22King James Version (KJV) 22 And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission. What was his body broken for? What was his blood shed for? I will wait. |
vooks: Jesus was not scourged because he had sinful flesh but because he TOOK/BORE our sins. What bore our sins, His body or blood?Man, it is blood you need for washing sins. Scripture says without the SHEDDING of blood there is no forgiveness of sins. And the blood of the lamb was for sin-offering. Jesus offered his blood in heaven after his death and resurrection. He ascended twice to heaven hope you know. The first was to offer his blood and the next was the final ascension when his disciples watched him go. Jesus' body was for diseases and sicknesses. That's why he was beaten and scourged oga. Study!!! I have got to go now. I have a lot to do. |
shdemidemi: John 20:23 isn't implying that mbaemeka was bestowed or given the exercise of absolution. The scripture makes it clear that it is God's prerogative to forgive sins. There was never a time when any of the apostles forgave anyone of their sins. The words here are to be understood in the declarative sense as regard to the effect of the the gospel. Only the message of the gospel guarantees the power for eternal forgivenessOga na lie. The scripture is clear and Paul also acted on this in Corinth when he forgave the immoral brother of his sins. Jesus was clear there: IF YOU FORGIVE ANY MAN'S SINS HE IS FORGIVEN. Even RCC know this. You see the Reverend father telling people "Your sins are forgiven you" |
vooks: So he can start where humanity startsJesus was to have flesh like normal men. He was to weep, panic, pray, learn, eat, sleep etc. Peter said he was hurled with invectives and slapped but he didn't revile his revilers. He learned patience through suffering. He learned obedience through suffering as well. If Jesus could not revile back why did Peter need to tell us that and expect us to be like him? Does he not know that Jesus could not revile back? Do you see the contradiction? Jesus chose not to sin so he could be judged for our sins. That's why the exchange made sense: someone who could sin but didn't sin was made to pay for those who could sin and sinned. |
vooks: Which verse says His blood was not born of Mary?Why did God need to bring him through Mary? Why not just create him like Adam? |
vooks: Show me one that says it wasDon't be daft. If the animal had any physical blemish like an injury was it accepted? How would the animal sin so as to be disqualified? Did Jesus body not get badly beaten and scourged? Lol@ Hebrews 9:14. Are you so daft that you cannot see what Christ offered without blemish to God was his precious blood that he took to the Most holy place in Heaven? As per 1 Peter 1:19 I can now confirm that you do not have a clue about what is being discussed. I hereby beseech you to stay out of this. For if you cannot clearly read there that Peter (by the Holy Spirit) said Christ redeemed us by his precious blood the same way a lamb consecrated as the sin-offering had no physical blemish or spot (meaning SIN in relation to Jesus' blood) for what does the lamb having no physical blemish represent? |
vooks: Pure nonsense to claim that some human components of the man Jesus were divine and others were notSomeone with a better grasp of English should put this daft post above straight. I didn't say Jesus blood wasn’t like Adam's indeed I agreed with you. But when it comes to his body the bible says he was born by Mary and not that God created him like he did Adam. If you can't catch this, get to stepping. |
shdemidemi: If Jesus is God (I believe we both agree He is) and we know God is good, could a corruptible flesh house God?There is not a single place in scripture that says Jesus didn't have a corruptible body. I gave you scriptures saying he died and was buried. I gave you scriptures saying God didn't let his body see Corruption. I gave you scriptures saying that we must be sown in corruptible to reap incorruption and that Jesus resurrected with a different body from the one he was buried in. Again I ask you? Where in scripture does it say that Immortality can die? What is immortality if not that it cannot die? Did you notice that Paul asked "if there is no resurrection of the DEAD then Christ is not risen"? 1 Cor 15:13. And he also called Christ the firstfruit of those who have fallen asleep in vv.20? Did you notice he said by man came death (Adam) and by man came the resurrection of the dead (Jesus) in vv21? Jesus didn't function as half man and half God. He was 100% God and 100% man but he kept his deity aside and functioned only as a man. Why? Because if Jesus functioned as God then it was hopeless for Satan to tempt him and he would not have been a good specimen like Adam because it means God was cheating by giving us a Robot to behold. Jesus had to be every much like the normal men he was representing so that Satan would be misled and fail. If satan felt Jesus was God he would have said God was unrighteous in making Adam have freewill while Jesus didn't have one. Jesus didn't sin not that he COULD NOT sin. Jesus flesh was a veil (Hebrews 10:20) so it deceived Satan. The mystery of godliness is that GOD was manifested in the FLESH like a human being. |
Bidam: No, rather what i see as the bone of contention was romans 8:3 he quoted, which was Jesus came in the likeness of sinful flesh. Trustman claimed Jesus came as a deity, shdemidemi tried to put a twist to it that Jesus came like a man while vooks said Jesus was human. It will be a great injustice to scripture if you ONLY talk about the divinity of Jesus neglecting a whole plethora of scriptures that talks about his HUMANITY.Gbam!!! |
shdemidemi: The sort of forgiveness we are talking here isn't taking offense from what a fellow man had done to you. It is what God does in the old testament, it is the act of remittance or cancelling sins committed against God. It is the deliverance of the sinner from the punishment of sinful conduct.Read John 20:23 and explain it to me. Forgiveness of sin is different from remission of sin. Jesus was responsible for Remission but he gave us the right to forgive sins. |
shdemidemi: Now, Jesus is God. He is the physical image of the invisible God.. For you to say he had weaknesses like you and I is not only wrong but blasphemous. There was nothing in him that answered to sin.. He was and he is the definition of righteousness.I wish you started from the beginning. All these things you are saying have been thrashed out. For example, vv6 of Philippians 2 that you made reference to said Jesus knew it was no robbery to be equal with God BUT he made himself of no reputation (no privileges, rights, dignity). The BUT at the beginning of vv.7 says it all. He made himself to FUNCTION like a man. Can God die? will God pray? Can God grow in wisdom? |
Romans 8:3 CEB God has done what was impossible for the Law, since it was weak because of selfishness. God condemned sin in the body by sending his own Son to deal with sin in the same body as humans, who are controlled by sin. Romans 8:3 GNT What the Law could not do, because human nature was weak, God did. He condemned sin in human nature by sending his own Son, who came with a nature like our sinful nature, to do away with sin. OLAADEGBU: Permit me to correct this error highlighted above: Let's read what Romans 8:3 says:the inborn sin of a natural man is it in his flesh or in his Spirit and blood? As for the Romans 8:3 let me flood you with other translations maybe you would get it. They are above the post ^^^. |
trustman: So you’ve turned into a trickster? Well done.Let me prove to you that your interpretation of 1 John 3:5 to mean Jesus body had no sin or was different is not just blatantly wrong but also a lie. We can proceed to see that he said "whoever abides in him DOES NOT sin" vv.6 "whoever sins has neither seen him vv.6b (which means Peter didn't see the body of Jesus because Peter denied him). Whoever has been born of God DOES NOT sin vv.9 and he CANNOT sin because he has been born of God vv.9b (which means Peter wasn't born of God and Adam wasn't born of God either for they both sinned). Your interpretation is wrong! When that verse said in him was no sin it was saying Jesus spirit had no sin (hence IN HIM), Jesus blood had no sin (IN HIM). That's why he went further to say he DID NOT sin too. And not that his flesh was any different. As for the rest of the nonsense you posted. I would only respond to it if it comes from another moniker for I don't know how else to explain to you that Jesus is God but he didn't FUNCTION as God before his death. |
Bidam: Heb 4:15 says He was subject to temptations just like any other man that is fleshy i.e He has weaknesses like any common man but He had a choice not to yield to them and that was why He had no sin. Philipians 2:8 even buttressed this by saying He was being found in appearance as a MAN NOT A GOD which is to say He is subject to passions of men. Rom 8:3 that mba emeka quoted was clear enough, i wonder what the argument is about.He was sent in the LIKENESS OF SINFUL FLESH.The 'catch' is that he did not commit sin and that was why He was the perfect sacrifice to condemn sin in sinful man.Very correct and word-based. Exactly what I have been saying. God bless you. |
vooks: Adam had no unique blood from the next man.Your reasoning is right but you are directing it at the wrong person and I am surprised 2 people liked your post given that this has been my point concerning Jesus blood all along which is that like Adam, Jesus received the blood he had from God and as such it was sinless blood but we know Jesus body was gotten from Mary. It wasn't created like Adam's. If you think otherwise please show me the scriptures. I will retract my statements. |
vooks: I don't imagine what scripture saysJoin shdemidemi in providing one scripture that says Jesus flesh was unblemished. |
shdemidemi: I was asking questions to make him see the body of Jesus is way different from our sinful body. He had a body void of sin, He was without blemish, He could forgive sins and he could pay the ransom for sin.Can you show me any scripture that says Jesus body was without blemish? Besides, Paul never met a physical Jesus post resurrection for Jesus is seated on the throne of God. Paul met the Holy Spirit who appeared like Jesus but this is talk for another day. |
shdemidemi: The bible records that the same body that was buried rose, no carcass was left. He needed no glorified body. Are you saying you and I will have this same fallen and sinful body when we meet Christ?Jesus didn't function as God before his resurrection. Heffunctioned as a man. I wish you would start from the beginning of the discussion. I have tabled more than 20 scriptures to that effect. Jesus had the normal flesh that all men had before he died. If he didn't he won't have died for the Immortal flesh cannot die. |
I don't even know where to begin from. I thank God for Bidam ooooo. Chaii. |
shdemidemi: thanks..He (Jesus) functioned in this world in a corruptible flesh and it changed to Incorruptible when he resurrected. It is the same Immortal flesh that we all would have at his appearing (The Rapture). We all means Christians that are alive and those that are dead whose spirits are already in Heaven. Their physical decayed remains would change to the immortal one with their spirits within and they would ascend to meet Jesus in the air while those of us still around would change in the twinkling of an eye and meet with them shortly after. Acts 2:27 Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption. 31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption. I know some might want to claim that this verses mean that Jesus' didn't have corruptible flesh. That would be a lie on one front:He was beaten with injuries and he was killed. Only Corruptible/Mortal flesh can suffer this- and Jesus suffered this. NB: He said In hell. Meaning the body of Jesus was already buried in the tomb while his spirit was in hell yet God didn't let Jesus' body to decay- he changed it immediately. 1 Corinthians 15:42 So also is the resurrection of the dead. It is sown in corruption; it is raised in incorruption: Of course the flesh- mortal one suffers decay and would suffer decay when the Spirit leaves it. Have I ever said otherwise? |
If there is any question you asked me that I evaded please bring them to my knowledge so I can respond. I won't go back and forth with you to discuss very very clear scriptures that need no extra interpretation. Imagine someone telling me that Romans 8:3 means that it was similar to SINFUL FLESH. Lol. What does it mean that it was similar to SINFUL FLESH except that it was sinful flesh? Man, I tricked you and you took the bait. It said he was made in LIKENESS of SINFUL FLESH and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh. This means that his flesh was the same sinful flesh man had and he was made so because of sin so that he could condemn sin in the flesh i.e he could defeat sin by refusing to succumb to it- this is why his body qualified. Even Vooks didn't argue with the scriptures- he simply stretched it to even include Jesus' blood and he is not "WOF" (Whatever the word means). Hahahaha @ goof. Joagbaje follows me so he would find it laborious to read my exchange with you because it would appear lengthy to someone who hasn't been following the discussion. What is actually a big goof is the scriptural references you are making. They are indeed laughable. I clearly stated Jesus didn't sin but his flesh was subject to sin yet you are quoting 1 Peter to me and asking me about biology. Hahahahaha. This is a fiasco of a damage-control. The scriptures didn't say he had likeness of the flesh. It said likeness of SINFUL FLESH. Please try again. Your explanation is dead on arrival (borrowing your words). As per THE WORD that was made FLESH let me repeat myself again maybe by chance you would catch it this time. The scriptures didn't say JESUS was made FLESH. It said the WORD (GOD) was made FLESH. The WORD (GOD) was made a HUMAN BEING and the HUMAN BEING was called Jesus. Do you get it now? You reference to him calling himself a son makes no sense again. Until Jesus called himself a son of God did you see any MOG or Prophet of old call themselves such? They never did so because to call yourself a son of God was to say you were on par with God. But what does it even have to do with the discussion? I said JESUS DIDN'T FUNCTION AS GOD not that he was not GOD. So please stop trying to save face and answer the questions I have asked you. Your explanation is thrash on being born again. I explained the Greek rendering. The least you could do was claim the words meant something else or you should have tried to explain the 1 Peter 1:23 that I made reference to. Did Jesus fall down from heaven? Was he not born by Mary? Did you see the Holy Spirit do anything but speak words to her by an angel? What is this cockamamie of a reply from you? Stop with your ridiculous claims that are bereft of scriptural backing. There are 2 types of flesh: a mortal one and an immortal one. The mortal is called Corruption or corruptible while the latter is called Incorruption or Incorruptible. So which did Jesus come in? Let us start from there. I expect you to evade this question and then tell me again that he was the lamb of God as if anyone is arguing that. What Jesus used to cleanse sin was his blood and that was what had no sin. Please give me 1 scripture- just 1 saying Jesus' flesh was any different from the corruptible flesh that all men have. I will wait. Besides, what SIN would a lamb have, to be disqualified as a means of atonement in the OT? Did Jesus body not get badly beaten and scourged? Is that not a defect? The defect that lambs were not to have were PHYSICAL for no lamb could have SIN defects (how would the lamb sin? Lol). And this was a SHADOW of the zero ACTS of PHYSICAL sin that Jesus would manifest in the FLESH so as to present his badly battered body worthy of a lamb to be used as the sin-offering. No offense, but that spin on taking his life and raising it according to John 10 is dumb even for someone like you. Jesus already said he had overcome the world in John 17 and he said a man could receive eternal life by believing in him in John 6 & 10. He was talking faith for none of these had happened or could occur until he died. Faith is the confidence that what you expect is real. (Keyword- what you EXPECT). So try again. What did Jesus mean by greater miracles? Raising Lazarus from the dead and raising himself which was greater? Read Bidam's post on Salvation involving healing from sicknesses and learn something today as you are bumbling scriptures and digging yourself deeper. |
shdemidemi: @MbaemekaJesus is God. His flesh didn't see corruption it changed before the corruption could set in. What does my flesh have to do with anything? What if I am here when Jesus appears? The flesh is already corruptible. I have said all that in the discourse. |
The bible way to plead the blood is via the communion as Jesus said each time we take it we proclaim the Lord's death until he returns. I don't subscribe to the doctrine of shouting the blood and using it to cover everywhere. All such acts even if appealing to the senses amount to spiritual confusion. Jesus went with his blood to the most holy place ONCE and for all. We cannot be re-pouring it like we are spraying insecticides. I know some Pastors I respect that teach all this"'we cover the road, cars etc with the blood" but I don't think it is scriptural. My take. Cheers. |
vooks: mbaemeka,Keep your ridiculousness to yourself. I didn't say miracle-working was a ticket to heaven. Behold even Derren Brown works some sort of "miracles" but is it in Jesus' name? No. So if he ends up going to hell how does that line up with what Jesus said? Baby/Carnal Christians sin. It doesn't change who they are. A christian is a christian and a sinner is a sinner. |
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- Some will be here when Jesus comes. Those of us still alive will be changed immediately to the glorified body as we ascend. The dead ones will have their decayed remains (from wherever it is) changed to the immortal body and they would ascend first. The mortal will change to immortal and not that we would leave anything behind.
