God help those who help themselves.

Where's that verse in the bible
People use it alot but i don't think is in the bible.

englishmart:
Some bible verses, like
Mark 12:17 "give to Caesar what belongs to Cesar"
Ephesians 5:22 "Wives submit thyself to your husband "
"Matthew 7:1 "judge not that you be not judged"
Some other verses are also misinterpreted.
In your knowledge, what other verses do you think is ignorantly misinterpreted?

None of the above was misinterpreted, it's just a matter of updates in English language while most churchgoers stick to the 15th century English KJV.


But as for misinterpretation the opening words of John's gospel account was erroneously mistranslated.

"In the beginning WAS the word and the word WAS with God and the word WAS God"

@ verse 18 of the same chapter we read:

"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him"

So is the word GOD or someone beside GOD?

Cypress042:
God help those who help themselves.


Where's that verse in the bible

People use it alot but i don't think is in the bible.

Firstly, if you can help yourself, you don't need God's help. Heaven helps those who are incapable of helping themselves. That's the essence of grace.
By strength shall no man prevail, and it's not of he that willeth or he that runneth, but of the Lord that showeth mercy.
Help is for the helpless just as medicine is for the sick.
Meanwhile that verse doesn't exist in the bible. The only closeness is "Faith without work is dead"

Every thing in the Bible is always attacked by misinterpretation

englishmart:
Firstly, if you can help yourself, you don't need God's help. Heaven helps those who are incapable of helping themselves. That's the essence of grace. Meanwhile that verse doesn't exist in the bible. The only closeness is "Faith without work is dead"

Thanks man

Cypress042:
God help those who help themselves.


Where's that verse in the bible

People use it alot but i don't think is in the bible.

it is in the book of chronicules 34:122

Check it

paxonel:
it is in the book of chronicules 34:122
Check it

Okay thanks

englishmart:
Firstly, if you can help yourself, you don't need God's help. Heaven helps those who are incapable of helping themselves. That's the essence of grace. Meanwhile that verse doesn't exist in the bible. The only closeness is "Faith without work is dead"

Essence of grace? Grace simply refers to Eternal life, so what has that to do with what the other said?

"Faith without works is dead" does not impact the eternal life one has received from God by believing even in Jesus Christ.

"ONE FLESH"
"Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." Genesis 2:24, referenced in Matthew 19:5,6, Mark 10:8, 1 Corinthians 6:16, Ephesians 5:31

A man is "one flesh" with EACH woman with whom he copulates, whether in marriage (wife) or in fornication (harlot). When a married man, who is therefore already "one flesh" with his wife, copulates with another woman, that does not then negate his being "one flesh" with the wife. This is evident by the fact that 1 Corinthians 6:16 reveals that a man can be "one flesh" even with an harlot. As even a married man, therefore, can become "one flesh" with an harlot, that proves that a married man can indeed be "one flesh" with more than one woman, without negating his being "one flesh" with his wife. As that is so even with a married man with an harlot, it is thus just as equally true regarding a man being "one flesh" with more than one wife. For further proof, the very next verse provides the context of the plural-to-one aspect, i.e., 1 Corinthians 6:17: "But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit." As EACH Christian is joined as "one spirit" with the Lord, that then demonstrates the context of the plural-to-one aspect. Namely, as EACH Christian is joined as "one spirit" with the Lord, so too may EACH woman be joined as "one flesh" with one man. Lastly, when the Lord Jesus, in Matthew 19:5,6 and Mark 10:8, was re-quoting that original "one flesh" verse of Genesis 2:24, He was only dealing with the issue of divorce, saying, "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder." (Matthew 19:6c-d.) That was opposing divorce of God-joined marriages, of what God Himself had joined together as "one flesh".

For context, it is exegetically important to note that the "one flesh" verse itself of Genesis 2:24, which the Lord Jesus was re-quoting, was written by Moses. And Moses married (was "one flesh" with) two wives: Zipporah (Exodus 2:16-21 and 18:1-6) and the Ethiopian woman (Numbers 12:1). The term, "one flesh", could not otherwise allegedly mean that a man could not be "one flesh" with more than one woman because three things did indeed happen. 1) Moses did marry two wives. 2) Moses did author such other verses as Exodus 21:10 and Deuteronomy 21:15. 3) Jesus Christ did not speak against Moses' being "one flesh" with two wives. Hence, the Scriptures reveal that Jesus and Moses knew what "one flesh" meant when Moses authored Genesis 2:24: a man may be "one flesh" with more than one woman.

Note that B* stands for the female Mammary organs!

1. The Prayer
Proverbs 5:18-19
18 May your fountain be blessed,
and may you rejoice in the wife of your youth.
19 A loving doe, a graceful deer—
may her b* satisfy you always,
may you ever be intoxicated with her love.

(Say Amen)

2. My Beloved
Song of Songs 1:13-14
13 My beloved is to me a sachet of myrrh
resting between my b*.
14 My beloved is to me a cluster of henna blossoms
from the vineyards of En Gedi.

3. Your B*
Song of Songs 4:5-6
5 Your b* are like two fawns,
like twin fawns of a gazelle
that browse among the lilies.
6 Until the day breaks
and the shadows flee,
I will go to the mountain of myrrh
and to the hill of incense.

4. More description
Song of Songs 7:7-8
7 Your stature is like that of the palm,
and your b* like clusters of fruit.
8 I said, “I will climb the palm tree;
I will take hold of its fruit.”
May your b* be like clusters of grapes on the vine,
the fragrance of your breath like apples,

5. Kiss of life
Song of Songs 8:1
8 If only you were to me like a brother,
who was nursed at my mother’s b*!
Then, if I found you outside,
I would kiss you,
and no one would despise me.

6. Little sister with no B*
Song of Songs 8:8-10
8 We have a little sister,
and her b* are not yet grown.
What shall we do for our sister
on the day she is spoken for?
9 If she is a wall,
we will build towers of silver on her.
If she is a door,
we will enclose her with panels of cedar.

7. B* like towers
Song of Songs 8:10
10 I am a wall,
and my b* are like towers.
Thus I have become in his eyes
like one bringing contentment.

AntiChristian:
Note that B* stands for the female Mammary organs!

1. The Prayer
Proverbs 5:18-19
18 May your fountain be blessed,
and may you rejoice in the wife of your youth.
19 A loving doe, a graceful deer—
may her b* satisfy you always,
may you ever be intoxicated with her love.

(Say Amen)

2. My Beloved
Song of Songs 1:13-14
13 My beloved is to me a sachet of myrrh
resting between my b*.
14 My beloved is to me a cluster of henna blossoms
from the vineyards of En Gedi.

3. Your B*
Song of Songs 4:5-6
5 Your b* are like two fawns,
like twin fawns of a gazelle
that browse among the lilies.
6 Until the day breaks
and the shadows flee,
I will go to the mountain of myrrh
and to the hill of incense.

4. More description
Song of Songs 7:7-8
7 Your stature is like that of the palm,
and your b* like clusters of fruit.
8 I said, “I will climb the palm tree;
I will take hold of its fruit.”
May your b* be like clusters of grapes on the vine,
the fragrance of your breath like apples,

5. Kiss of life
Song of Songs 8:1
8 If only you were to me like a brother,
who was nursed at my mother’s b*!
Then, if I found you outside,
I would kiss you,
and no one would despise me.

6. Little sister with no B*
Song of Songs 8:8-10
8 We have a little sister,
and her b* are not yet grown.
What shall we do for our sister
on the day she is spoken for?
9 If she is a wall,
we will build towers of silver on her.
If she is a door,
we will enclose her with panels of cedar.

7. B* like towers
Song of Songs 8:10
10 I am a wall,
and my b* are like towers.
Thus I have become in his eyes
like one bringing contentment.

When talking about what was written in one of the religious books someone said:

AntiChristian:

It's understandable to us and not to you.

Hilarious!

MaxInDHouse:


None of the above was misinterpreted, it's just a matter of updates in English language while most churchgoers stick to the 15th century English KJV.


But as for misinterpretation the opening words of John's gospel account was erroneously mistranslated.

"In the beginning WAS the word and the word WAS with God and the word WAS God"

@ verse 18 of the same chapter we read:

"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him"

So is the word GOD or someone beside GOD?

Dear MaxinDHouse
You are half way correct...u would av bn more correct if u had used bossom of God instead of beside God...it distorted the meaning.
And the meaning of Philippians 2:6 is also distorted by meaning.
[6]Though he was God,
    he did not think of equality with God
    as something to cling to.

Now,here is the meaning of John 1:1,18 and Philippians 2:6
Before the incarnation of the man Jesus...he was know as the Word of God...the question is,if he is the Word of God ..where does he reside? That was wat John 1:20 answered...He lived in the bossom of God. Another question is can u separate a man from his word? That is wat John 1:1 answered by saying "he was God". Another question is why was passed tense used "WAS God"?...that is what John 1:14 and Philippians 2:6-7 gave an answer to...for the first time...the word became flesh John 1:14 and took on a lowly form by being born of and by human being Philippians 2:7...He was for the first time separated from the Father in whom he reside and let go of being in God or equal to God .
The last question is "was Jesus equal with God i.e the Father"?...Here is wat the equality means...let me first quote out the verse then explain
Philippians 2:6
[6]Though he was God,
    he did not think of equality with God
    as something to cling to.

"Though he was God,"
Like I explained above the past tense...was God but now human

"He did not think of equality with God as something to cling to"

Like I explained above ..since he reside IN THE BOSSOM of God as the word, he enjoyed all the privilege attributed to God...but for the sake of man...he had to let go of this privilege of bn attributed as God due to his residence in God...but for us he had to let God...

God who is the Father is the one and only true God and Jesus is his precious gift he had to let go to save us humans and that was retrated in John 3:16
[16]“For this is how God loved the world: He gave his one and only Son, so that everyone who believes in him will not perish but have eternal life.

This is awesome and worthy
You are loved

MaxInDHouse:
"In the beginning WAS the word and the word WAS with God and the word WAS God"

@ verse 18 of the same chapter we read:

"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him"

So is the word GOD or someone beside GOD?

The word is God!

John pictures that with the story of Adam and Eve in the garden.

Let me give you small Bible study on that.

Firstly, The first COUPLE lived alone in the Garden. The two are to be viewed as ONE
>>>Gen 2:24 - In the garden, two persons, the man and the woman, "became one flesh"
>>>Gen 5:1-2
"God created man" (singular)
"He made him" (singular)
"Named them man" (singular)
Yet it says:
"He created THEM male and female" (plural)
"He blessed THEM" (plural)
"and Named THEM" (plural)
"They were created" (plural)
NOTE: The name EVE wasn't given to the woman not until after the fall, so both Male and the female were collectively called MAN.

Secondly, Gen 1:26-27
"Let us make man" (singular)
"God created man" (singular)
"He created him" (singular)
In contrast the same text also says:
"....let them rule" (plural)
"Male and female he created THEM" (plural)

Lastly, Jesus refers to the first couple and after stating "they were one flesh" adds "they are no longer two"

In line of this, would it be wise to say: In the garden was the woman, the woman was with the man and the woman was A MAN?

Intellectual mind knows this is a wrong rendition because it will put the woman as A MALE which will be confused as the FIRST MALE.

So the best way to understand that even though both the male and the female were both collectively called "MAN" "them" e.t.c is to render it as: In the garden was the woman, the woman was with the man and the woman was MAN

Here intellectual mind knows that the woman was addressed as MAN per her NATURE.

So John 1:1 shows two separate persons with one NATURE (God).

Do you understand?

Bible study 101

Emusan:


The word is God!

John pictures that with the story of Adam and Eve in the garden.

Let me give you small Bible study on that.

Firstly, The first COUPLE lived alone in the Garden. The two are to be viewed as ONE
>>>Gen 2:24 - In the garden, two persons, the man and the woman, "became one flesh"
>>>Gen 5:1-2
"God created man" (singular)
"He made him" (singular)
"Named them man" (singular)
Yet it says:
"He created THEM male and female" (plural)
"He blessed THEM" (plural)
"and Named THEM" (plural)
"They were created" (plural)
NOTE: The name EVE wasn't given to the woman not until after the fall, so both Male and the female were collectively called MAN.

Secondly, Gen 1:26-27
"Let us make man" (singular)
"God created man" (singular)
"He created him" (singular)
In contrast the same text also says:
"....let them rule" (plural)
"Male and female he created THEM" (plural)

Lastly, Jesus refers to the first couple and after stating "they were one flesh" adds "they are no longer two"

In line of this, would it be wise to say: In the garden was the woman, the woman was with the man and the woman was A MAN?

Intellectual mind knows this is a wrong rendition because it will put the woman as A MALE which will be confused as the FIRST MALE.

So the best way to understand that even though both the male and the female were both collectively called "MAN" "them" e.t.c is to render it as: In the garden was the woman, the woman was with the man and the woman was MAN

Here intellectual mind knows that the woman was addressed as MAN per her NATURE.

So John 1:1 shows two separate persons with one NATURE (God).

Do you understand?

Bible study 101

Dear Emusan
I must confess u are not far from the truth...ur analogy was impressive and ACCURATE...I am impressed...keep it up

But
You don't need to add Bible study 101...pls,it make it look like debate or a winner/loser thingy...please think about it...thank u.

Cypress042:
God help those who help themselves.


Where's that verse in the bible

People use it alot but i don't think is in the bible.

______________________________________

"God helps those who helps themselves" means; you can't fold your hands and expect a positive result. You need to invest your time and efforts, when God sees your sacrifice(Time & effort); He'll bless you and makes what you invested in to blossom & yield more.

Unlimited4G:

______________________________________

"God helps those who helps themselves" means; you can't fold your hands and expect a positive result. You need to invest your time and efforts, when God sees your sacrifice(Time & effort); He'll bless you and makes what you invested in to blossom & yield more.

I understand what you mean, but that wasn't really my question. Never mind someone has already told me what i wanted to know thanks.

1. Money answereth to all things.

2. A man who does not provide for his household is worse than an infidel.

MaxInDHouse:


None of the above was misinterpreted, it's just a matter of updates in English language while most churchgoers stick to the 15th century English KJV.


But as for misinterpretation the opening words of John's gospel account was erroneously mistranslated.

"In the beginning WAS the word and the word WAS with God and the word WAS God"

@ verse 18 of the same chapter we read:

"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him"

So is the word GOD or someone beside GOD?

The use of the word "man" is somewhat varying in the bible. Satan was called a man. Mankind was also referred to extensively as man. Which of these is verse 18 talking about?

Unlimited4G:
"God helps those who helps themselves" means; you can't fold your hands and expect a positive result. You need to invest your time and efforts, when God sees your sacrifice(Time & effort); He'll bless you and makes what you invested in to blossom & yield more.

That mindset is in fact not that commanded by God since instead what God commands is continuous submission and obedience of His teachings(and commandments).

immaculatesense:

Dear MaxinDHouse
You are half way correct...u would av bn more correct if u had used bossom of God instead of beside God...it distorted the meaning.
And the meaning of Philippians 2:6 is also distorted by meaning.
[6]Though he was God,
    he did not think of equality with God
    as something to cling to.

Now,here is the meaning of John 1:1,18 and Philippians 2:6
Before the incarnation of the man Jesus...he was know as the Word of God...the question is,if he is the Word of God ..where does he reside? That was wat John 1:20 answered...He lived in the bossom of God. Another question is can u separate a man from his word? That is wat John 1:1 answered by saying "he was God". Another question is why was passed tense used "WAS God"?...that is what John 1:14 and Philippians 2:6-7 gave an answer to...for the first time...the word became flesh John 1:14 and took on a lowly form by being born of and by human being Philippians 2:7...He was for the first time separated from the Father in whom he reside and let go of being in God or equal to God .
The last question is "was Jesus equal with God i.e the Father"?...Here is wat the equality means...let me first quote out the verse then explain
Philippians 2:6
[6]Though he was God,
    he did not think of equality with God
    as something to cling to.

"Though he was God,"
Like I explained above the past tense...was God but now human

"He did not think of equality with God as something to cling to"

Like I explained above ..since he reside IN THE BOSSOM of God as the word, he enjoyed all the privilege attributed to God...but for the sake of man...he had to let go of this privilege of bn attributed as God due to his residence in God...but for us he had to let God...

God who is the Father is the one and only true God and Jesus is his precious gift he had to let go to save us humans and that was retrated in John 3:16
[16]“For this is how God loved the world: He gave his one and only Son, so that everyone who believes in him will not perish but have eternal life.

This is awesome and worthy
You are loved

I don't appreciate pointless stories!

If you know the answer just answer the question directly:

is the word GOD or someone beside GOD?

Period!

Emusan:


The word is God!

John pictures that with the story of Adam and Eve in the garden.

Let me give you small Bible study on that.

Firstly, The first COUPLE lived alone in the Garden. The two are to be viewed as ONE
>>>Gen 2:24 - In the garden, two persons, the man and the woman, "became one flesh"
>>>Gen 5:1-2
"God created man" (singular)
"He made him" (singular)
"Named them man" (singular)
Yet it says:
"He created THEM male and female" (plural)
"He blessed THEM" (plural)
"and Named THEM" (plural)
"They were created" (plural)
NOTE: The name EVE wasn't given to the woman not until after the fall, so both Male and the female were collectively called MAN.

Secondly, Gen 1:26-27
"Let us make man" (singular)
"God created man" (singular)
"He created him" (singular)
In contrast the same text also says:
"....let them rule" (plural)
"Male and female he created THEM" (plural)

Lastly, Jesus refers to the first couple and after stating "they were one flesh" adds "they are no longer two"

In line of this, would it be wise to say: In the garden was the woman, the woman was with the man and the woman was A MAN?

Intellectual mind knows this is a wrong rendition because it will put the woman as A MALE which will be confused as the FIRST MALE.

So the best way to understand that even though both the male and the female were both collectively called "MAN" "them" e.t.c is to render it as: In the garden was the woman, the woman was with the man and the woman was MAN

Here intellectual mind knows that the woman was addressed as MAN per her NATURE.

So John 1:1 shows two separate persons with one NATURE (God).

Do you understand?

Bible study 101

No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten son who is at the Father’s side is the one who has explained Him. John 1:18

So how come "no man has seen God" and "only begotten son who is at the side of God"

Is the word GOD or someone beside GOD?

RepoMan007:

The use of the word "man" is somewhat varying in the bible. Satan was called a man. Mankind was also referred to extensively as man. Which of these is verse 18 talking about?

Adam's descendants!

MaxInDHouse:
No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten son who is at the Father’s side is the one who has explained Him. John 1:18

This is the correct scripture.

So how come "no man has seen God" and "only begotten son who is at the side of God (Father)"

The side of Father! Stop injecting your own delusion

Lastly, the Word WAS GOD!

MaxInDHouse:
I don't appreciate pointless stories!

Imagine, Bible expository is a Pointless stories to you

If you know the answer just answer the question directly:

Period!

The answer has been given!

paxonel:
it is in the book of chronicules 34:122

Check it

There's nothing like Chronicles 34:122 in the Bible. We have first and second chronicle. Only second Chronicle have up to chapter 34 and it doesn't have up to 122 verse. Quote scriptures correctly please.

Cypress042:
I understand what you mean, but that wasn't really my question. Never mind someone has already told me what i wanted to know thanks.

And that person gave you a non-existent scripture lol. You didn't bother to verify.

Emusan:

This is the correct scripture.
The side of Father! Stop injecting your own delusion
Lastly, the Word WAS GOD!

In the beginning WAS the word and the word WAS with God and the word WAS God

From the above it's clear something is wrong due to John's use of WAS throughout which means the word worked with God but as he is penning down those words the word isn't God rather the word WAS God at some point in time.
Moses WAS God at a point in time too {Exodus 7:1} therefore if Moses worked with God in delivering Israel out of Egypt and WAS God while in Egypt it doesn't mean that Moses IS God rather he served as God at a point in time.
So the correct interpretation of that verse would be:

In the beginning WAS the word and the word WAS God and the word WAS a god/ divine/ godlike

The use of capital for both God and the one with God makes no practical sense because all other verses afterwards shows that the word is God's messenger.

Thank you!

Whenever trinitarians face the fact that their trinity God has no place in the scriptures they fights dirty with abusive speeches but that doesn't stop real Bible students from pointing out the errors in trinitarians interpretation of God's word.

Adam and Eve became one but from the start only Adam was created it's due to a need that Eve was suggested! Genesis 2:18-22

According to verse 22 of that same chapter the woman was brought to the man after the successfully surgery, introduced to him before they became a pair. Both of them were separate beings that's why God dealt with them separately after the rebellion. They both shared the blame but the overall blame was for Adam because he knows better! 1Timothy 2:14

The same scenario ensued centuries later when Satan began persecuting Job, under the tensed condition his wife told him to "cause God and die" {Job 2:9} meaning Job should let go of his integrity but Job will never do such a thing. After the whole thing ended God never ask Job to take another wife rather it's the same woman that continued as Job's wife, gave birth to another set of children and they both lived happily afterwards.
So had it been Adam objected to the idea of eating from the forbidden fruit the same thing would have happened because from God's standpoint Eve was the one deceived but Adam's action was deliberate.

God and Jesus are separate persons that's why Jesus always rely on whatever his father (God) says {John 8:28} the father according to Jesus is God the Almighty who is both father and God to all, so Jesus himself worship his father (God) and that's the person Jesus wants us to worship too as our father and God! John 20:17

Sheggy13:

There's nothing like Chronicles 34:122 in the Bible. We have first and second chronicle. Only second Chronicle have up to chapter 34 and it doesn't have up to 122 verse. Quote scriptures correctly please.

ok, it is in the book of chroniculous.

Check chroniculous

MaxInDHouse:


I don't appreciate pointless stories!

If you know the answer just answer the question directly:



Period!

I already answered u...u used beside is not correct...where u quoted said bossom and not beside...so the answer is the word was in the bossom of God...simple

Sheggy13:

And that person gave you a non-existent scripture lol. You didn't bother to verify.

I screen shotted the scripture, i will check it out later.

One thing about me i don't doubt people, untill i verify