MaxInDHouse:


None of the above was misinterpreted, it's just a matter of updates in English language while most churchgoers stick to the 15th century English KJV.


But as for misinterpretation the opening words of John's gospel account was erroneously mistranslated.

"In the beginning WAS the word and the word WAS with God and the word WAS God"

@ verse 18 of the same chapter we read:

"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him"

So is the word GOD or someone beside GOD?

. U correct that scripture have been erroneously mis translated John 1:1. Check the real Aramaic translation it's "in the begining was the word and the word was with God and the word was "a god"

Dogma is another brainwashed evil religion believe, that is attached to Christianity and Islam for ways to severed Hell and slavery.

God the father God the son God the holy spirit. 1 john 5:7

MaxInDHouse:


None of the above was misinterpreted, it's just a matter of updates in English language while most churchgoers stick to the 15th century English KJV.


But as for misinterpretation the opening words of John's gospel account was erroneously mistranslated.

"In the beginning WAS the word and the word WAS with God and the word WAS God"

@ verse 18 of the same chapter we read:

"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him"

So is the word GOD or someone beside GOD?

Cypress042:
God help those who help themselves.


Where's that verse in the bible

People use it alot but i don't think is in the bible.

It is not in the bible. Wrong quote! God can never help anyone that can help him or herself. God only helps those who believe they need His help and trust He can help them.

"In the beginning WAS the word and the word WAS with God and the word WAS God"

@ verse 18 of the same chapter we read:

"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him"

So is the word GOD or someone beside GOD? [/quote]

The word God is a title referring to three entities; Father, word and holy spirit. .
The 3 are one.
Picture a universal set theorem, each of the three cycles have their own identify yet the 3 circle are one set.

Men live on earth God in heaven,
No man has seen God, however, men have experienced God in various aspects

Drink But Don't Get Drunk.




Drunkards nai dey quote this one to justify shayo.

MaxInDHouse:


None of the above was misinterpreted, it's just a matter of updates in English language while most churchgoers stick to the 15th century English KJV.


But as for misinterpretation the opening words of John's gospel account was erroneously mistranslated.

"In the beginning WAS the word and the word WAS with God and the word WAS God"

@ verse 18 of the same chapter we read:

"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him"

So is the word GOD or someone beside GOD?

Did you understand title of the thread at all?
Na people like you dey always cause this problem of misinterpretation: just here you have already misinterpreted the title of the thread.

englishmart:
Some bible verses, like
Mark 12:17 "give to Caesar what belongs to Cesar"
Ephesians 5:22 "Wives submit thyself to your husband "
"Matthew 7:1 "judge not that you be not judged"
Some other verses are also misinterpreted.
In your knowledge, what other verses do you think is ignorantly misinterpreted?

religion and confusion are 5 and 6. Anybody can pick up a verse and give it multiple interpretations in the name of inspiration

holaruc:
God the father God the son God the holy spirit. 1 john 5:7

Sorry that verse was added by trinitarians it's not part of the inspired scriptures.
Apart from the KJV used by trinitarians read other versions of the Bible then come back and tell me what you find there!

MaxInDHouse:


The secret is that most trinitarians themselves don't know what they're worshiping {John 4:22} trinity is the initiative of Satan the devil and Satan make sure he exterminated all the Apostles before introducing trinity {Revelations 17:5-6} since it doesn't make any sense the concept must be enforced otherwise trinitarians can't preach and convince a single soul. That's why Jesus called trinity a harlot because the concept needs the support of politicians and military services to push it to places since those involved are arrogant and they don't know how to convince people. Revelations 17:1-2

So they're using weapons to intimidate people everywhere they go in the name of CRUSADES.
That's what the British brought to Africa not CHRISTIANITY because Christians have to PREACH (PLEAD) with their neighbours before you can convince them about God's Kingdom! Matt 10:11-13

You will notice how fierce trinitarians becomes each time they come across anyone that speak against their meaningless concept. Well it's not their fault that's exactly how the religion was forced on our people back then, trinitarians came with colonialism forcing their religion on people not preaching zealously from house to house!

honestly things don change yet not so hard if only we search the scriptures and research the history as we seek the guidance of God guun.

Omo no be like back then na by force oo the extent of the church after the apostles was fierce ,crusade no be this ones way we dey do here say na ori oke prayers ,twas real battles back then

Kentuforchrist:

Jesus is God Himself bro

Until u understand u may never know the truth

Convince yourself first why he was crying (begging) for help! Matthew 27:46 compare to Hebrew 5:7

Please who heard Jesus' prayers according to Hebrew 5:7?

holaruc:
God the father God the son God the holy spirit. 1 john 5:7

God the Father,and God the Son and God the Holy spirit.

The 'and' for emphasizes as it's written in the bible and other scriptures that cite these 3 beings

3 entities ,separate beings with one purpose

Cheers

josephogaga:



Verse 18 wasn't talking about physical being.,

The verse 1 was talking about the word that proceed out of God ( which is Jesus) then he hasn't gotten a body.

Guy no human (Adam's descendants) has seen God at any point in time {John 1:18} but as for angels they do have face to face meeting with the Almighty God {Job 1:6} so they are seeing Him life!

Unlimited4G:

________________________________________
1. God's word has many explanations.

2. What I said is part of the commandment God gave.
3. If you study Proverbs 6:10,youll understand my explanation better.

There is only one Truth, all else is a lie!

2. What commandment is that? Where in scripture is this detail to be found? Proverbs 6 vs 10 contains no commands, so what commandment are you suggesting God gave you to this end?

Cypress042:
God help those who help themselves.


Where's that verse in the bible

People use it alot but i don't think is in the bible.

That's not a biblical verse. It came from the book Poor Richard Almanac by Benjamin Franklin.

ponishah:

Did you understand title of the thread at all?
Na people like you dey always cause this problem of misinterpretation: just here you have already misinterpreted the title of the thread.

Let the OP talk for himself!

RealEzee:
honestly things don change yet not so hard if only we search the scriptures and research the history as we seek the guidance of God guun.

Omo no be like back then na by force oo the extent of the church after the apostles was fierce ,crusade no be this ones way we dey do here say na ori oke prayers ,twas real battles back then

Satan only used politics and military forces to promote trinity since he knew very well that no normal human will swallow that gibberish!

Touch not my anointed....

A lot of people use this as a weapon to slave unbelievers.

Arkmanbuddy:



You're truly ignorant!

Jesus Christ is God because he's the word of God, the actualizer of the commands of God. He formed all things, including man, at the command of God the father. So, he's also God. This may sound confusing to you because you may think that's polytheistic!

---

Check this: if your boss gives you the authority to sack a junior staff and you choose anyone of them to be sacked, you'll be doing it with the authority vested in you, acting on behalf of your boss. That's what John 1v1 is saying.

ur boss and you are two separate beings isnt it ?u report to him shebi? To those ur boss give ur charge over u too b boss yet no b u dey run things without ur boss permission, that's Christ and God ,one goal one company ,two entities .

God so loved the world that he sent his Only begotten son, that son came on an errand, that son was with him when they created man in their image ,that word is Christ and he too na boss reporting to his Oga/God the father ,na why he too prayed to the Father ,an actual being of whom we worship the Father in his name .


That's what the ancients taught before the change of doctrine by debate among the early priests of the Catholic church after the apostles era .

King of kings no mean say other kings no dey ,But na one King dey head others .

It's not that deep sha
Cheers

englishmart:
Some bible verses, like
Mark 12:17 "give to Caesar what belongs to Cesar"
Ephesians 5:22 "Wives submit thyself to your husband "
"Matthew 7:1 "judge not that you be not judged"
Some other verses are also misinterpreted.
In your knowledge, what other verses do you think is ignorantly misinterpreted?

KJV, Matt 28:19-20
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.

Unfortunately many misinterpreted the scripture, baptizing people in the titles of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost by repeating the words in Matt 28:19, and neglected the name but in the beginning it was not so. No body in the New Testament was baptized in those titles, but rather in the name as he said.
For clarifications, read ACT 2:1 - 4, 37-38 which was the first obedience to that command in Matt 28:19. Isa 9:6; Acts 10:45-48, Acts 19:1-5.

osuulola:


Why did Jesus accept people's worship?

Jesus is God ,with God the father and the holy spirit and no one is above the other but all have different
responsibilities .Jesus left his divinity in heaven and came as a man but he was still God.Jesus said only God the father answers prayers but you have to ask through Jesus in his name,they all have different responsibilities

UyaiIncomparabl:
Explain this Bible verse for me.

The verse performs God's judgement against the Amalekites given by Moses in Deut 5:15-17.
The Amalekites became a barrier to the journey of the children out of Egypt and even oppressed them in their God ordained journey.
What this verse teaches us is that anyone who stands in the way of God and His purpose will be crushed to the last generation.
Also, to note that God's judgement always comes eventually no matter how long it takes.

AntiChristian:
"ONE FLESH"
"Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." Genesis 2:24, referenced in Matthew 19:5,6, Mark 10:8, 1 Corinthians 6:16, Ephesians 5:31

A man is "one flesh" with EACH woman with whom he copulates, whether in marriage (wife) or in fornication (harlot). When a married man, who is therefore already "one flesh" with his wife, copulates with another woman, that does not then negate his being "one flesh" with the wife. This is evident by the fact that 1 Corinthians 6:16 reveals that a man can be "one flesh" even with an harlot. As even a married man, therefore, can become "one flesh" with an harlot, that proves that a married man can indeed be "one flesh" with more than one woman, without negating his being "one flesh" with his wife. As that is so even with a married man with an harlot, it is thus just as equally true regarding a man being "one flesh" with more than one wife. For further proof, the very next verse provides the context of the plural-to-one aspect, i.e., 1 Corinthians 6:17: "But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit." As EACH Christian is joined as "one spirit" with the Lord, that then demonstrates the context of the plural-to-one aspect. Namely, as EACH Christian is joined as "one spirit" with the Lord, so too may EACH woman be joined as "one flesh" with one man. Lastly, when the Lord Jesus, in Matthew 19:5,6 and Mark 10:8, was re-quoting that original "one flesh" verse of Genesis 2:24, He was only dealing with the issue of divorce, saying, "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder." (Matthew 19:6c-d.) That was opposing divorce of God-joined marriages, of what God Himself had joined together as "one flesh".

For context, it is exegetically important to note that the "one flesh" verse itself of Genesis 2:24, which the Lord Jesus was re-quoting, was written by Moses. And Moses married (was "one flesh" with) two wives: Zipporah (Exodus 2:16-21 and 18:1-6) and the Ethiopian woman (Numbers 12:1). The term, "one flesh", could not otherwise allegedly mean that a man could not be "one flesh" with more than one woman because three things did indeed happen. 1) Moses did marry two wives. 2) Moses did author such other verses as Exodus 21:10 and Deuteronomy 21:15. 3) Jesus Christ did not speak against Moses' being "one flesh" with two wives. Hence, the Scriptures reveal that Jesus and Moses knew what "one flesh" meant when Moses authored Genesis 2:24: a man may be "one flesh" with more than one woman.

First of all, being of one flesh implies unity between husband and wife and not sex. Only you can say if you can be united with a prostitute like you are with your wife.

That said, Moses never had two wives. It was the same Midianite woman that was being referred to as Cushite in that verse. It's just like referring to an ijebu as Yoruba. Claiming Moses was married to two wives is blasphemy.
Moses was a prophet.
Report to the nearest islamists for stoning pls.

Cypress042:
God help those who help themselves.


Where's that verse in the bible

People use it alot but i don't think is in the bible.

God to church u no gree

Is "Heaven help" not God.

Fortune13:


KJV, Matt 28:19-20
Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost: Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you: and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.

Unfortunately many misinterpreted the scripture, baptizing people in the titles of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost by repeating the words in Matt 28:19, and neglected the name but in the beginning it was not so. No body in the New Testament was baptized in those titles, but rather in the name as he said.
For clarifications, read ACT 2:1 - 4, 37-38 which was the first obedience to that command in Matt 28:19. Isa 9:6; Acts 10:45-48, Acts 19:1-5.

But how come most churches baptize people in the titles of the Father Son, and Holy Ghost?
The apostles and disciples of Jesus Christ baptized in the name of Jesus Christ or the name of the Lord Jesus until 325AD when the Catholic church changed this formula. (This the Catholic Church admitted in their encyclopedia).

References:
Britannica Encyclopedia, 11th Edition, Volume 3, page 365 – Baptism was changed from the name of Jesus to words Father, Son & Holy Ghost in 2nd Century.

Canney Encyclopedia of Religion, page 53 – The early church baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus until the second century.

Hastings Encyclopedia of Religion, Volume 2 – Christian baptism was administered using the words, "in the name of Jesus." page 377. Baptism was always in the name of Jesus until time of Justin Martyr, page 389.

Catholic Encyclopedia, Volume 2, page 263 – Here the authors acknowledged that the baptismal formula was changed by their church.

Schaff – Herzog Religious Encyclopedia, Volume 1, page 435 – The New Testament knows only the baptism in the name of Jesus.

Hastings Dictionary of Bible, page 88 – It must be acknowledged that the three fold name of Matthew 28:19 does not appear to have been used by the primitive church, but rather in the name of Jesus, Jesus Christ or Lord Jesus.
https://www.apostolicarchives.com/articles/article/8801925/180090.htm

AntiChristian:
"ONE FLESH"
"Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." Genesis 2:24, referenced in Matthew 19:5,6, Mark 10:8, 1 Corinthians 6:16, Ephesians 5:31

A man is "one flesh" with EACH woman with whom he copulates, whether in marriage (wife) or in fornication (harlot). When a married man, who is therefore already "one flesh" with his wife, copulates with another woman, that does not then negate his being "one flesh" with the wife. This is evident by the fact that 1 Corinthians 6:16 reveals that a man can be "one flesh" even with an harlot. As even a married man, therefore, can become "one flesh" with an harlot, that proves that a married man can indeed be "one flesh" with more than one woman, without negating his being "one flesh" with his wife. As that is so even with a married man with an harlot, it is thus just as equally true regarding a man being "one flesh" with more than one wife. For further proof, the very next verse provides the context of the plural-to-one aspect, i.e., 1 Corinthians 6:17: "But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit." As EACH Christian is joined as "one spirit" with the Lord, that then demonstrates the context of the plural-to-one aspect. Namely, as EACH Christian is joined as "one spirit" with the Lord, so too may EACH woman be joined as "one flesh" with one man. Lastly, when the Lord Jesus, in Matthew 19:5,6 and Mark 10:8, was re-quoting that original "one flesh" verse of Genesis 2:24, He was only dealing with the issue of divorce, saying, "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder." (Matthew 19:6c-d.) That was opposing divorce of God-joined marriages, of what God Himself had joined together as "one flesh".

For context, it is exegetically important to note that the "one flesh" verse itself of Genesis 2:24, which the Lord Jesus was re-quoting, was written by Moses. And Moses married (was "one flesh" with) two wives: Zipporah (Exodus 2:16-21 and 18:1-6) and the Ethiopian woman (Numbers 12:1). The term, "one flesh", could not otherwise allegedly mean that a man could not be "one flesh" with more than one woman because three things did indeed happen. 1) Moses did marry two wives. 2) Moses did author such other verses as Exodus 21:10 and Deuteronomy 21:15. 3) Jesus Christ did not speak against Moses' being "one flesh" with two wives. Hence, the Scriptures reveal that Jesus and Moses knew what "one flesh" meant when Moses authored Genesis 2:24: a man may be "one flesh" with more than one woman.

No wonder we can't produce good leaders in this country.
Just look at how you entangled yourself in confusion you created on your own because you lack understanding.
So "cleave unto his WIFE" as the verse you cited quoted is now deleted abi?
Learn to argue bro...

Cloud007:

Touch not my anointed....
A lot of people use this as a weapon to slave unbelievers.

God is not talking so that religious leaders should mimick it before those criticizing them rather God is talking to politicians and rulers who may get provoked due to the message of God's servants. Matthew 14:3-10; Act 12:1-2

Because when the sin gets on God's nerve He will kill the politician so that everyone can see that it's divine judgment! Act 12:21-23

May you have PEACE!

AntiChristian:
"ONE FLESH"
"Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." Genesis 2:24, referenced in Matthew 19:5,6, Mark 10:8, 1 Corinthians 6:16, Ephesians 5:31

A man is "one flesh" with EACH woman with whom he copulates, whether in marriage (wife) or in fornication (harlot). When a married man, who is therefore already "one flesh" with his wife, copulates with another woman, that does not then negate his being "one flesh" with the wife. This is evident by the fact that 1 Corinthians 6:16 reveals that a man can be "one flesh" even with an harlot. As even a married man, therefore, can become "one flesh" with an harlot, that proves that a married man can indeed be "one flesh" with more than one woman, without negating his being "one flesh" with his wife. As that is so even with a married man with an harlot, it is thus just as equally true regarding a man being "one flesh" with more than one wife. For further proof, the very next verse provides the context of the plural-to-one aspect, i.e., 1 Corinthians 6:17: "But he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit." As EACH Christian is joined as "one spirit" with the Lord, that then demonstrates the context of the plural-to-one aspect. Namely, as EACH Christian is joined as "one spirit" with the Lord, so too may EACH woman be joined as "one flesh" with one man. Lastly, when the Lord Jesus, in Matthew 19:5,6 and Mark 10:8, was re-quoting that original "one flesh" verse of Genesis 2:24, He was only dealing with the issue of divorce, saying, "What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder." (Matthew 19:6c-d.) That was opposing divorce of God-joined marriages, of what God Himself had joined together as "one flesh".

For context, it is exegetically important to note that the "one flesh" verse itself of Genesis 2:24, which the Lord Jesus was re-quoting, was written by Moses. And Moses married (was "one flesh" with) two wives: Zipporah (Exodus 2:16-21 and 18:1-6) and the Ethiopian woman (Numbers 12:1). The term, "one flesh", could not otherwise allegedly mean that a man could not be "one flesh" with more than one woman because three things did indeed happen. 1) Moses did marry two wives. 2) Moses did author such other verses as Exodus 21:10 and Deuteronomy 21:15. 3) Jesus Christ did not speak against Moses' being "one flesh" with two wives. Hence, the Scriptures reveal that Jesus and Moses knew what "one flesh" meant when Moses authored Genesis 2:24: a man may be "one flesh" with more than one woman.

moses was over 80 at that time,this is not written but I believe zipporah must have been dead at that time because her death is not recorded in the bible.He was a prophet of God and God would not allow him to marry 2 at the same time

MaxInDHouse:


None of the above was misinterpreted, it's just a matter of updates in English language while most churchgoers stick to the 15th century English KJV.


But as for misinterpretation the opening words of John's gospel account was erroneously mistranslated.

"In the beginning WAS the word and the word WAS with God and the word WAS God"

@ verse 18 of the same chapter we read:

"No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him"

So is the word GOD or someone beside GOD?

Do you understand the Trinity?

God loves a cheerful giver....
Most churches don't care if you are giving cheerfully.
They just keep taking.

Ga and multiply, Nigeria's favourite.

I believe the Trinity is a word used to describe Godhead. THE FATHER clearly acknowledged and acknowledges HIS SON and HOLY SPIRIT. However there is ONE GOD, THE FATHER, who in HIS Wisdom begat THE SON and has A SPIRIT, THE HOLY SPIRIT. I don't think it's right to say THE SON worships THE FATHER. Serve is a better word. Now, finally remember a few things:
1. Each member of The Godhead has specific functions, attributes and operations, both in creation and the work of salvation.
2. These 3 Divine Persons agree as One in thoughts, intentions and purposes. GOD bless us with more illumination of HIM.

MaxInDHouse:
Whenever trinitarians face the fact that their trinity God has no place in the scriptures they fights dirty with abusive speeches but that doesn't stop real Bible students from pointing out the errors in trinitarians interpretation of God's word.

Adam and Eve became one but from the start only Adam was created it's due to a need that Eve was suggested! Genesis 2:18-22

According to verse 22 of that same chapter the woman was brought to the man after the successfully surgery, introduced to him before they became a pair. Both of them were separate beings that's why God dealt with them separately after the rebellion. They both shared the blame but the overall blame was for Adam because he knows better! 1Timothy 2:14

The same scenario ensued centuries later when Satan began persecuting Job, under the tensed condition his wife told him to "cause God and die" {Job 2:9} meaning Job should let go of his integrity but Job will never do such a thing. After the whole thing ended God never ask Job to take another wife rather it's the same woman that continued as Job's wife, gave birth to another set of children and they both lived happily afterwards.
So had it been Adam objected to the idea of eating from the forbidden fruit the same thing would have happened because from God's standpoint Eve was the one deceived but Adam's action was deliberate.

God and Jesus are separate persons that's why Jesus always rely on whatever his father (God) says {John 8:28} the father according to Jesus is God the Almighty who is both father and God to all, so Jesus himself worship his father (God) and that's the person Jesus wants us to worship too as our father and God! John 20:17