₦airaland Forum

Anas09:
See Scholar200. Happy New Years bro.

malvisguy212:
hey bro, long time.

urchcoded:
so I stumbled across a teaching series by a well known preacher predominantly on the in-exhaustibility of grace... I think his facts were quite convincing. so guys what do u think about the phrase: once saved, forever saved...

luvt:
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Ferisidowu:
Hi, sir although your question wasn't directed at me ... Just that 1) I don't think an2elect2 has been online for awhile so I thought to just help out

Firstly I need you to understand that predestination doesn't change HUMAN RESPONSIBILITY
Please it's very important you understand that
Although I'd love to let you know that you are in for a long discussion but may God help us Amen

Salvation is of the LORD" (Jonah 2:9); but the Lord does not save all. Why not? He does save some; then if He saves some, why not others? Is it because they are too sinful and depraved? No; for the Apostle wrote, "This is a faithful saying, and worthy of all acceptation, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners; of whom I am chief" (1 Tim. 1:15). Therefore, if God saved the "chief" of sinners, none are excluded because of their depravity. Why then does not God save all? Is it because some are too stonyhearted to be won? No; because it is written, that God will "take the stony heart out of their flesh, and will give them a heart of flesh" (Ezek. 11:19). Then is it because some are so stubborn, so intractable, so defiant that God is unable to woo them to Himself?
Friend, was there not a time when you walked in the counsel of the ungodly, stood in the way of sinners, sat in the seat of the scorners, and with them said, "We will not have this Man to reign over us" (Luke 19:14)? Was there not a time when you "would not come to Christ that you might have life" (John 5:40)? Yea, was there not a time when you mingled your voice with those who said unto God, "Depart from us; for we desire not the knowledge of Thy ways. What is the Almighty, that we should serve Him? and what profit should we have, if we pray unto Him?" (Job 21:14, 15)? With shamed face you have to acknowledge there was. But how is it that all is now changed? What was it that brought you from haughty self-sufficiency to a humble suppliant; from one that was at enmity with God to one that is at peace with Him; from lawlessness to subjection; from hate to love? And as one 'born of the Spirit' you will readily reply, "By the grace of God I am what I am" (1 Cor. 15:10). Then do you not see that it is due to no lack of power in God, nor to His refusal to coerce man, that other rebels are not saved too? If God was able to subdue your will and win your heart, and that without interfering with your moral responsibility, then is He not able to do the same for others? Assuredly He is. Then how inconsistent, how illogical, how foolish of some Christians, in seeking to give reasons for present course of the wicked ,argue that God is unable to save them, ? ?that they will not let Him. Do you say, "But the time came when I was willing, willing to receive Christ as my Saviour"? True, but it was the Lord who made you willing (Psa. 110:3; Phil. 2:13); why then does He not make all sinners willing? Why, but for the fact that He is Sovereign and does as He pleases! But to return to our opening questions


One thing I know is that NO HUMAN can assert that this is an elect or that is an elect by just seeing them, not even the apostles the issue is that there's HUMAN RESPONSIBILITY as I said earlier
Don't forget
It is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of His good pleasure" (Phil. 2: 13). Concerning the nature and the power of fallen man's will, the greatest confusion prevails today, and the most erroneous views are held, even by many of God's children. The popular idea now prevailing, and which is taught from the great majority of pulpits, is that man has a "free will," and that salvation comes to the sinner through his will co-operating with the Holy Spirit. To deny the "free will" of man, i.e., his power to choose that which is good, his native ability to accept Christ, is to bring one into disfavor at once, even before most of those who profess to be orthodox. And yet Scripture emphatically says, "It is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, yes even about salvation too ..

definitely not derailing sir.

Ferisidowu:
Hi, sir although your question wasn't directed at me ... Just that 1) I don't think an2elect2 has been online for awhile so I thought to just help out

Firstly I need you to understand that predestination doesn't change HUMAN RESPONSIBILITY
Please it's very important you understand that
Although I'd love to let you know that you are in for a long discussion but may God help us Amen

Salvation is of the LORD" (Jonah 2:9); but the Lord does not save all. Why not? He does save some; then if He saves some, why not others? Is it because they are too sinful and depraved? No; for the Apostle wrote, "This is a faithful saying, and worthy of all acceptation, that Christ Jesus came into the world to save sinners; of whom I am chief" (1 Tim. 1:15). Therefore, if God saved the "chief" of sinners, none are excluded because of their depravity. Why then does not God save all? Is it because some are too stonyhearted to be won? No; because it is written, that God will "take the stony heart out of their flesh, and will give them a heart of flesh" (Ezek. 11:19). Then is it because some are so stubborn, so intractable, so defiant that God is unable to woo them to Himself?
Friend, was there not a time when you walked in the counsel of the ungodly, stood in the way of sinners, sat in the seat of the scorners, and with them said, "We will not have this Man to reign over us" (Luke 19:14)? Was there not a time when you "would not come to Christ that you might have life" (John 5:40)? Yea, was there not a time when you mingled your voice with those who said unto God, "Depart from us; for we desire not the knowledge of Thy ways. What is the Almighty, that we should serve Him? and what profit should we have, if we pray unto Him?" (Job 21:14, 15)? With shamed face you have to acknowledge there was. But how is it that all is now changed? What was it that brought you from haughty self-sufficiency to a humble suppliant; from one that was at enmity with God to one that is at peace with Him; from lawlessness to subjection; from hate to love? And as one 'born of the Spirit' you will readily reply, "By the grace of God I am what I am" (1 Cor. 15:10). Then do you not see that it is due to no lack of power in God, nor to His refusal to coerce man, that other rebels are not saved too? If God was able to subdue your will and win your heart, and that without interfering with your moral responsibility, then is He not able to do the same for others? Assuredly He is. Then how inconsistent, how illogical, how foolish of some Christians, in seeking to give reasons for present course of the wicked ,argue that God is unable to save them, ? ?that they will not let Him. Do you say, "But the time came when I was willing, willing to receive Christ as my Saviour"? True, but it was the Lord who made you willing (Psa. 110:3; Phil. 2:13); why then does He not make all sinners willing? Why, but for the fact that He is Sovereign and does as He pleases! But to return to our opening questions


One thing I know is that NO HUMAN can assert that this is an elect or that is an elect by just seeing them, not even the apostles the issue is that there's HUMAN RESPONSIBILITY as I said earlier
Don't forget
It is God which worketh in you both to will and to do of His good pleasure" (Phil. 2: 13). Concerning the nature and the power of fallen man's will, the greatest confusion prevails today, and the most erroneous views are held, even by many of God's children. The popular idea now prevailing, and which is taught from the great majority of pulpits, is that man has a "free will," and that salvation comes to the sinner through his will co-operating with the Holy Spirit. To deny the "free will" of man, i.e., his power to choose that which is good, his native ability to accept Christ, is to bring one into disfavor at once, even before most of those who profess to be orthodox. And yet Scripture emphatically says, "It is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, yes even about salvation too ..

definitely not derailing sir.

Bakare19:
I suggest you repeat the process. It could be a system error. The procedures and approach is the norm to be followed, and in so far you get the Pin and SNO correctly.

jmanity:
Have sent you PM, no response yet...

Scholar8200:
Kindly indulge this curiosity:

Would you consider yourself one of those predestined to believe? If yes, how did you know?(scriptural basis pls) And how are you sure you wont turn out to be the opposite later?


As regards the highlighted, how do we explain the Great commission in the light of predestination?

Besides, would those predestined be saved preacher or no preacher? If the latter is true, what purpose was the life-threatening Great Commission? If the former, why would God need man to fulfill His call on the called ones since they were already chosen?

And what does the persistent use of, "whosoever will" suggest? Does He mean what He says when He uses that clause?

Kindly indicate if this derails your thread and I will take it down.

Jabioro:
Even Jesus christ forthers didn't maintain a woman as a wife.Ruth remarry to O..and she is nt d first woman...Solomon their grandfather.Paul Apostle was the one who created the confusion,you he is a feb..there is no scriptual back up..all na wash..how can a true xtian tell me that he/she has nothing to do with old testment,but when they have problem they run to the books of psalms,Ezekiel lsaih and co to fight..using the book of Jobs to consludate the bereaved..Op go aheads with wives is better one wife many secret lovers (bedmate)..ask Lion of Judah and you shall knw better..

deebrownneymar:
Is Allah the same God Christians worship?

Scholar8200:
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d. able to carry out clerical duties;
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Not an agency; that mail was used in order to protect the company's email server.

Scholar8200:
Question: Is it true that 1 John 5:7 is not in any Greek manuscript before the 1600s? If it is true, why is it in the King James Bible?

Authors David W. Daniels and Jack McElroy answer questions critics ask about the King James Bible.
Answer: 1 John 5:7 belongs in the King James Bible and was preserved by faithful Christians. But the passage was removed from many Greek manuscripts, because of the problems it seemed to cause.

It is true that there is a small number of Scriptures that are not the same between the King James Bible and the so-called "Majority" Greek text. There are a number of reasons for this:

The so-called "Majority" text was not really based on the majority of texts, but rather a relatively small number of manuscripts. The last person to try to find the differences between the majority of Greek manuscripts, Dr. Von Soden, did not collate more than 400 of the more than 5,000 Greek texts. In other words, what is commonly called the "Majority" Greek text is not a collation of the majority of manuscripts at all.
The "Majority" Greek text is also the main Greek text used by the Eastern Orthodox religion. They had a vested interest in changing (or deleting) some texts. More on this in a moment.
1 John itself is not in a large number of extant Greek manuscripts.
So why then is 1 John 5:7 in the King James Bible, but not in many of the existing Greek manuscripts? To understand the answer, we must look at the history of what happened shortly after the Bible was written.

The Greek and Roman Institutions

During the early growth of the Christian church, ministers (whether saved or not) wrote down doctrines that they said were Christian and Biblical. Starting after the death of the apostles (about 100 AD) many people taught the lie that Jesus was not God the Son and Son of God, or that Jesus became God at His baptism, or the false doctrine that the Holy Spirit was not God or was not eternal.

The growing religion that became known as Roman Catholic, after many debates eventually agreed on the doctrine of the Trinity. So they had no reason to remove 1 John 5:7 from their Bibles, since it supported what they taught.

But the Greek Eastern Orthodox religion was combating a heresy called "Sabellianism," and would have found it easier to combat the heresy by simply removing the troubling passage from their Bibles.

A Trail of Evidence

[b]But during this same time, we find mention of 1 John 5:7, from about 200 AD through the 1500s. Here is a useful timeline of references to this verse:

200 AD Tertullian wrote "which three are one" based on the verse in his Against Praxeas, chapter 25.
250 AD Cyprian of Carthage, wrote, "And again, of the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost it is written: "And the three are One" in his On The Lapsed, On the Novatians, (see note for Old Latin)
350 AD Priscillian referred to it [Corpus Scriptorum Ecclesiasticorum Latinorum, Academia Litterarum Vindobonensis, vol. xviii, p. 6.]
350 AD Idacius Clarus referred to it [Patrilogiae Cursus Completus, Series Latina by Migne, vol. 62, col. 359.]
350 AD Athanasius referred to it in his De Incarnatione
398 AD Aurelius Augustine used it to defend Trinitarianism in De Trinitate against the heresy of Sabellianism
415 AD Council of Carthage appealed to 1 John 5:7 when debating the Arian belief (Arians didn't believe in the deity of Jesus Christ)
450-530 AD Several orthodox African writers quoted the verse when defending the doctrine of the Trinity against the gainsaying of the Vandals. These writers are:
A) Vigilius Tapensis in "Three Witnesses in Heaven"
B) Victor Vitensis in his Historia persecutionis [Corpus Scriptorum Ecclesiasticorum Latinorum, Academia Litterarum Vindobonensis, vol. vii, p. 60.]
C) Fulgentius in "The Three Heavenly Witnesses" [Patrilogiae Cursus Completus, Series Latina by Migne, vol. 65, col. 500.]
500 AD Cassiodorus cited it [Patrilogiae Cursus Completus, Series Latina by Migne, vol. 70, col. 1373.]
550 AD Old Latin ms r has it
550 AD The "Speculum" has it [The Speculum is a treatise that contains some good Old Latin scriptures.]
750 AD Wianburgensis referred to it
800 AD Jerome's Vulgate has it [It was not in Jerome's original Vulgate, but was brought in about 800 AD from good Old Latin manuscripts.]
1000s AD miniscule 635 has it
1150 AD minuscule ms 88 in the margin
1300s AD miniscule 629 has it
157-1400 AD Waldensian (that is, Vaudois) Bibles have the verse
1500 AD ms 61 has the verse
Even Nestle's 26th edition Greek New Testament, based upon the corrupt Alexandrian text, admits that these and other important manuscripts have the verse: 221 v.l.; 2318 Vulgate [Claromontanus]; 629; 61; 88; 429 v.l.; 636 v.l.; 918; l; r.
The Vaudois
[/b]
Now the "Waldensian," or "Vaudois" Bibles stretch from about 157 to the 1400s AD. The fact is, according to John Calvin's successor Theodore Beza, that the Vaudois received the Scriptures from missionaries of Antioch of Syria in the 120s AD and finished translating it into their Latin language by 157 AD. This Bible was passed down from generation, until the Reformation of the 1500s, when the Protestants translated the Vaudois Bible into French, Italian, etc. This Bible carries heavy weight when finding out what God really said. John Wesley and Jonathan Edwards believed, as most of the Reformers, that the Vaudois were the descendants of the true Christians, and that they preserved the Christian faith for the Bible-believing Christians today.

Who Has the Most to Gain? Who Has the Most to Lose?

The evidence of history shows us that the Roman Catholic religion was relentless in its effort to destroy the Vaudois and their Bible. It took them until the 1650s to finish their hateful attacks. But the Vaudois were successful in preserving God's words to the days of the Reformation.

Now we have to ask ourselves a question: Who had the most to gain by adding to or taking away from the Bible? Did the Vaudois, who were being killed for having their Bibles, have anything to gain by adding to or taking from the words of God? Compromise is what the Roman religion wanted! Had the Vaudois just followed the popes, their lives would have been much easier. But they counted the cost. This was not politics; it was their life and soul. They above all people would not want to change a single letter of the words they received from Antioch of Syria. And they paid for this with their lives.

What about the "scholars" at Alexandria, Egypt? We already know about them. They could not even make their few 45 manuscripts agree. How could we believe they preserved God's words?

The Reformation itself owes a lot to these Christians in the French Alps. They not only preserved the Scriptures, but they show to what lengths God would go to keep his promise (Psalm 12:6-7).

And that's only part of the story about the preservation of God's words.


http://www.chick.com/ask/articles/1john57.asp

frosbel2:
Our Pastors have got it all wrong on the tithe and some have got it more wrong than others by attaching a blessing or curse to tithe payments. They have also got it wrong on the Trinity, Hell Fire and many other made up doctrines.

danvon:
He made man in his own image, Body soul spirit I don't believe this you actually compared human with animals

danvon:
Genesis 2:7 God formed man, and breathe into nostrils the breathe of life and man became a living soul, God formed man if soul doesn't exist why wasn't he immediately alive

lovingJehovah:
Let me ask you one question, we have read the story of creation and Jesus has come and gone. We have the Bible as our authority and we seek answers in it.
Can you kindly explain to me using your Bible, when soul was created and who created it?

Scholar8200:
And I say unto you my friends, Be not afraid of them that kill the body, and after that have no more that they can do. 5 But I will forewarn you whom ye shall fear: Fear him, which after he hath killed hath power to cast into hell; yea, I say unto you, Fear him.
Luke 12:4,5
What makes God's own more grievous that Jesus said to fear Him if all that can be done by God is killing the body?

lovingJehovah:
Ezekiel 18:4 Look! All the souls—to me they belong. As the soul of the father so also the soul of the son—to me they belong. The soul who sins is the one who will die.
Jehovah alone has the final decision to bring one back to life or forget about him. For example, Lazarus and Jairus daughter were raised up. They came back with refreshed bodies, especially Lazarus who was in his third phase of decomposition. They were resurrected to become living souls again. A living soul is a person who is living or a living creature as most Bible translations would use it. Consider 1 Peter 3:20 "... eight souls, were carried safely through the water." That was talking about Noah and his family after surviving the flood. They were referred to as souls just as Adam was referred to as a living soul at creation.

The Bible tells us that the dead are in the memory of God Revelation 3:5; Isaiah 26:14.

The book of Revelation is a vision of what is to happen. It does not mean that people are literally crying because the Bible says that the dead are conscious of nothing at all.

God has all righteous ones in his memory and he will avenge their deaths at a set date. The sense of depicting the soul as a spirit that leaves the body wearing a designer's outfit and able to inflict pain on humans is a hoax. Psalm 146:4 His spirit goes out, he(the sinning SOUL that died) returns to the ground;
On that very day his thoughts perish.

There is no separate mention of God creating the soul distinctively. He created man, blew in the breadth of life and he became a living soul. The adjective 'living' used before the word 'soul' gives a good explanation. Ezekiel 18:20 The soul dies and at death, Man knows nothing at all Ecclesiastes 9:5.

Ecclesiastes 3:5 for there is an outcome for humans and an outcome for animals; they all have the same outcome. As the one dies, so the other dies; and they all have but one spirit. So man has no superiority over animals, for everything is futile. 20 All are going to the same place. They all come from the dust, and they all are returning to the dust

Olumyco:
*A SIMPLE, RICH and FAST APPROACH TO LEARNING JAVASCRIPT PROGRAMMING LANGUAGE*

The idea is "learning based on the major topics that constitute JavaScript from different text books". U can download the books online.

The topics are divided into Four Phases

PHASE 1 (JavaScript Language itself)

     
#Introduction 
#Syntax & Semantics
#Primitive Values
#Operator
#Variable(Assigning)
#Array
#Object (Literals)
#Control Structure
#Function
#Variable (Scoping/Closures)
#Error/Exception handling
#Object (Constructors)
#JavaScript’s other objects (like maths, date, regular expression )

Books to read for Phase 1

*JavaScript for kids-A playful Intro (all)
*JavaScript: Novice to Ninja (all)
*Speaking JavaScript (all)

// Try and use the console in your browser or console of any JavaScript runtime at this point and take each topic one by one through extracting knowledge from each of the text book.
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

PHASE 2 (JavaScript Language with Document Object Model- DOM & Browser Object Model- BOM)
#Event
#Document Object Model (DOM)
#Frame object
#Location object
#History object
#Navigator object
#Window object
#Screen object

Books for  Phase 2 is as follows;
*Voodoo's Introduction to JavaScript (all)
*Beginning HTML,CSS & JavaScript (Chapter 11 to 13)
*Sam-teach-yourself HTML,CSS & JavaScript (Chapter 15 - 25)

>Get more codes on the above objects from the internet – like from Mozilla site.
// Use a text/code editor or an IDE at this phase and run code with your browser or any JavaScript runtime like nwjs.

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

PHASE 3 (JavaScript Technologies)
#JavaScript Library (Like the popular jQuery, Angular etc)
#Database Technology (web storage, indexDB, sqlite, mongoDB etc)
#Client-Server Side Technology (AJAX, AJAJ/JSON)
#Server-Side Technology (nodejs)

Books for this phase are;
*jQuery Novice to Ninja (all)
*Angular in 60minutes
*JavaScript and Node Fundamentals (all)
*Nodejs in Action
*Eloquent JavaScript (all)"
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

PHASE 4 (Applied JavaScript)
#Web
#Desktop
#Mobile
#Embedded System

Books for this phase are:
*Building Android apps with HTML_CSS_JavaScript

> There are many frameworks you can use to develop for mobile. We have Ionic, Framework 7, JQTouch, JQuery Mobile etc. Get any of this with their documentation

>There are available runtime for developing desktop apps like nwjs (formerly Node-Webki), electron (formerly atom shell) and so on. Get any of them. Also get their documentations

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Addons:

Books for Quick revision:
*JavaScript Tutorial (all)
*Essential JavaScript (all)

mujahid777:
I'll just call it by the name it's called;pauline xtianity

mujahid777:
You didn't also mention that pauls writings came long before the others.That's one of the reasons why Paul is frequently regarded as the real founder of xtianity

sonofthunder:
and of course... prayer is the key.

dalaman:
Why should any unbeliever accept the bible as the word of God? What objective and irrefutable evidence does the bible provide to show that it's claims are true? On what merits should it be accepted as true?