tyuhd:

Honestly you question isn't still clear to me! But in scripture whereever there is a "for" it could mean different things,it could mean "inlight of what has been spoken thus far"like Rom 12,Eph 4 and many other different interpretation.And if you insist "for" must imply "because" in that passage,then I must honestly admit the passage wouldn't make sense,because it is a very sharp break from his discussion on marriage so "Not many will receive my restriction on marriage because some for different reasons(s) have been/have made themselves enunch"This is really really funny.So you can see the inconsistency in your arguement.Please check any other translation.

That is because of how you chose to read the passage. Jesus' statement on eunuchs was obviously a response to the disciples exclamation

10 His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry.

11 But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given.

12 For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.

Jesus is telling them that not marrying/celibacy is not for everyone. Making it read to mean He was referring to marriage is very big stretch of the imagination.

tyuhd:
Now Pls notice the context Christ made the statement. You would clearly observe Christ wasn't refering to celebacy by that phrase and it's totally disconnected from it.

Mattew 19:9 I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery.

Here Christ is forbiding divorce and remariage for any other grounds whether it's wife battery, drunkiness, lying and on and on EXCEPT adultery

Mattew 19:10 The disciples said to him, "If this is the situation between a husband and wife, it is better not to marry."

The disciples react appropriately to Christ statement saying emphatically marriage must be a very rigid and difficult union since He doesn't allow for divorce. And So Here is His reply

Mattew 19:11 Jesus replied, "Not everyone can accept this word,but only those whom it has been given".

So Which word was Christ referring to Here,I mean V11? The Call to celebacy? No! No! No! No! No!

Obviously He hadn't even begun to discuss celebacy here so It must be His rigid restriction on divorce and remarriage as it's evident from V10 and the disciples response to His restriction on it,and so He says," ...only those to whom it has been given" Given what? Given the ability to grapple with the fact that can't divorce a spouse for any other reason except for sexual sin....Simple!

You didn't set any record straight, you got the context wrong; infact you twisted the statement of Jesus. When Jesus made that statement, He was talking in reply to the words of His diciples that "it is not good to marry". That is the saying that Jesus said not every man can receive.

He wasn't referring to His own statement about divorce. Please look at it again.

Matthew 19v9 -And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

v10 His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry.

v11 But he said unto them, All men cannot receive THIS SAYING, save they to whom it is given.

v12 For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.

Which saying can all men not receive? It is the saying by his disciples that It is not good to marry.

That is the saying that Jesus said "All men cannot receive EXCEPT those unto who it is given." Not His own statement about divorce.

tyuhd:
And I hope You realise; You've unavoidably concluded,"Marriage is a calling"

So this are questions failed to ask:
1. Have the unsaved couples who got married yesterday,Have they being called to it?
2. If a Man decides to get married solely to gratify His sexual lust,has He being called to it?

On 2. I really think it would be needless as long as we come to grapple with the joke of,"Celebacy is a calling"

How did you come about the logic that once celibacy is a calling; marriage must therefore be a calling too? You're only called into celibacy, you're not called into not being celibate (marriage)

Marriage is not a calling. Procreation and parenthood is the default design of every human being. That is why from puberty, every woman begins to produce ovaries naturally; and every man begins to produce sperm.

That proves that procreation and parenthood is wired naturally by God into the make-up of every person. And since God only wants procreation and parenthood in the confines of marriage, it means then that marriage is a default design by God for every person.

Everyone by default design is wired for procreation and parenthood (or marriage); then those who are given the calling of celibacy, receive the grace and ability not to marry or even desire it. Marriage is not a calling; procreation and parenthood is the default design for every human. Celibacy is the calling.

Believers and unbelievers who get married are not "called" into marriage. Procreation and parenthood is not a calling; it is default design; just like eating and drinking is. Are we called into eating and drinking? No! It is wired naturally into our make-up by God. Just like procreation and parenthood is wired naturally. It is so natural, that it takes being called into celibacy not to desire it.

That was what Jesus was telling His disciples when the disciples said It is not good to marry.

Jesus replied that not everyone can receive that saying that it is better not to marry, except those unto whom the calling is given.

Saying that if celibacy is a calling, marriage must therefore be a calling is a wrong logic. Stop using logic to form doctrine.

Shalom!

ayoku777:


You didn't set any record straight, you got the context wrong; infact you twisted the statement of Jesus. When Jesus made that statement, He was talking in reply to the words of His diciples that "it is not good to marry". That is the saying that Jesus said not every man can receive.

He wasn't referring to His own statement about divorce. Please look at it again.

Matthew 19v9 -And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

v10 His disciples say unto him, If the case of the man be so with his wife, it is not good to marry.

v11 But he said unto them, All men cannot receive THIS SAYING, save they to whom it is given.

v12 For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake. He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.

Which saying can all men not receive? It is the saying by his disciples that It is not good to marry.

That is the saying that Jesus said "All men cannot receive EXCEPT those unto who it is given." Not His own statement about divorce.



How did you come about the logic that once celibacy is a calling; marriage must therefore be a calling too? You're only called into celibacy, you're not called into not being celibate (marriage)

Marriage is not a calling. Procreation and parenthood is the default design of every human being. That is why from puberty, every woman begins to produce ovaries naturally; and every man begins to produce sperm.

That proves that procreation and parenthood is wired naturally by God into the make-up of every person. And since God only wants procreation and parenthood in the confines of marriage, it means then that marriage is a default design by God for every person.

Everyone by default design is wired for procreation and parenthood (or marriage); then those who are given the calling of celibacy, receive the grace and ability not to marry or even desire it. Marriage is not a calling; procreation and parenthood is the default design for every human. Celibacy is the calling.

Believers and unbelievers who get married are not "called" into marriage. Procreation and parenthood is not a calling; it is default design; just like eating and drinking is. Are we called into eating and drinking? No! It is wired naturally into our make-up by God. Just like procreation and parenthood is wired naturally. It is so natural, that it takes being called into celibacy not to desire it.

That was what Jesus was telling His disciples when the disciples said It is not good to marry.

Jesus replied that not everyone can receive that saying that it is better not to marry, except those unto whom the calling is given.

Saying that if celibacy is a calling, marriage must therefore be a calling is a wrong logic. Stop using logic to form doctrine.

Shalom!

Now if I understand your stance.You seem to interpret,V11,as Christ saying,"Not all will acccept that it is not good to marry except those given the gift of celebacy".Wrong!You will still discover that interpreting the entire verse from V8 downwards still leads to an inescapable error.
so let us explain in details again,so you see why context really matters!

Matthew 19:8-9 Jesus replied, “Moses permitted divorce only as a concession to your hard hearts, but it was not what God had originally intended. And I tell you this, whoever divorces his wife and marries someone else commits adultery—unless his wife has been unfaithful.”


And so He lays down God's original intention Here.saying emphatically and unequivocally,"no divorce for any other reason(s) except for Sexual sin".Period!


Matthew 19:10 Jesus’ disciples then said to him, “If this is the case, it is better not to marry!”

Here the disciples complain,like any descendant of Adam would naturally do.
Q.Why did the disciple say what they said? No divorce for flimsy reasons.right! so if we accurately paraphrase their reasons even from preceeding verse it goes thus:the disciples said,"it is better not to marry since there is no "easy' divorce"

Matthew 19:11 But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given
Receieve which saying?According to you--that it is not good to marry.right!.At this juncture,we must honestly ask ourselves and I hope it has occured to you---WHY DID CHIRST HIMSELF SAY WHAT HE SAID THAT----IT IS NOT GOOD TO MARRY?Because the dClearly,it must be for the same reason(s) as the apostles----no flimsy divorce.since obviously there is no break in communication,neither are there objection to the disciples opinion and again since in your opinion he replies in the affirmative.
SO IN A NUTSHELL CHRIST SAID IT IS NOT GOOD TO MARRY BECAUSE THE LORD WOULD NO LONGER PERMIT FLIMSY DIVORCE.I hope you Pardon me,but this is kinda of sacrilegious.As only sinful men could say that. and again if we follow your interpretation juxtaposing v11 and v12 would only mean SOME EMBRACE CELEBACY BECAUSE THERE IS NO EASY DIVORCE.See "For" in the first part of V12
V12 For there are some eunuchs, which were so born from their mother's womb: and there are some eunuchs, which were made eunuchs of men: and there be eunuchs, which have made themselves eunuchs for the kingdom of heaven's sake.He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.

The latter part of v12,"He that is able to receive it,Let him receive it" Exposes the error in your interpretation and doesn't sound like a 'call' but rather it supports the notion of a 'choice'.See a perfect prototype Revelation 2:7 He that hath an ear,let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches...See also V11,V17.So clearly,it was dependant on the Hearer:to hear or not hear and so it depends on the christain to embraces celebacy or not

tyuhd:
Matthew 19:11 But he said unto them, All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given
Receive which saying? According to you--that it is not good to marry.right!.At this juncture,we must honestly ask ourselves and I hope it has occured to you---WHY DID CHIRST HIMSELF SAY WHAT HE SAID THAT----IT IS NOT GOOD TO MARRY? Because the dClearly,it must be for the same reason(s) as the apostles----no flimsy divorce.since obviously there is no break in communication,neither are there objection to the disciples opinion and again since in your opinion he replies in the affirmative.
SO IN A NUTSHELL CHRIST SAID IT IS NOT GOOD TO MARRY BECAUSE THE LORD WOULD NO LONGER PERMIT FLIMSY DIVORCE.I hope you Pardon me,but this is kinda of sacrilegious.As only sinful men could say that. and again if we follow your interpretation juxtaposing v11 and v12 would only mean SOME EMBRACE CELEBACY BECAUSE THERE IS NO EASY DIVORCE.

Christ never said it is not good to marry, and He didn't even imply so. The disciples of Christ drew that conclusion on their own from His teaching on marriage; and Jesus replied their statements to caution and correct their generalized conclusion that it is not good to marry.

Jesus didn't agree or disagree with His disciples, He only cautioned their generalization by telling them that not all men can receive the saying that it is not good to marry; except those unto whom it is given. Given by who? By God.

tyuhd:
The latter part of v12,"He that is able to receive it,Let him receive it" Exposes the error in your interpretation and doesn't sound like a 'call' but rather it supports the notion of a 'choice'.See a perfect prototype Revelation 2:7 He that hath an ear,let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches...See also V11,V17.So clearly,it was dependant on the Hearer:to hear or not hear and so it depends on the christain to embraces celebacy or not

The statement of Jesus in verse 12 has already been answered by Him in verse 11;

Matthew 19v12 -...He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.

And who are those who are able to receive the desire and grace for kingdom celibacy? Jesus already answered that question in verse 11;

Matthew 19v11 -...All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given.

He that is able to receive it is He to whom it is given. Jesus already answered the question to His last statement, so there's no need speculating.

Its not choice, its calling (those to whom it is given). He that is able to receive kingdom celibacy is he to whom the calling is given by God.

Shalom

ayoku777:


Christ never said it is not good to marry, and He didn't even imply so.

Sir, disciples of Christ drew that conclusion on their own from His teaching on marriage; and Jesus replied their statements to caution and correct their generalized conclusion that it is not good to marry.

Jesus didn't agree or disagree with His disciples, He only cautioned their generalization by telling them that not all men can receive the saying that it is not good to marry; except those unto whom it is given. Given by who? By God.



The statement of Jesus in verse 12 has already been answered by Him in verse 11;

Matthew 19v12 -...He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.

And who are those who are able to receive the desire and grace for kingdom celibacy? Jesus already answered that question in verse 11;

Matthew 19v11 -...All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given.

He that is able to receive it is He to whom it is given. Jesus already answered the question to His last statement, so there's no need speculating.

Its not choice, its calling (those to whom it is given). He that is able to receive kingdom celibacy is he to whom the calling is given by God.

Shalom[quote/]
Sir, Based on your interpretation.You said Christ statement,"All men cannot receive this saying,save they to whom it is given".was spoken inlight of what the disciples spoke i.e "It is not good to marry" and not based on divorce and remarriage.Ok Th
But can you honestly tell me what He means by,"All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given".Let's say I told you,"A implies B and B implies C" and you replied,"Correct Bro! but so few would believe this assumption" From this hypothetical scenario can we infer,you also said the same thing.Of course! you did.So Sir,Why are you trying to escaping the obvious.From this saying "All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given".Based on your interpretation,our Lord never rebuked nor correct His disciples infact he commended them.

ayoku777:


Christ never said it is not good to marry, and He didn't even imply so.

Sir, disciples of Christ drew that conclusion on their own from His teaching on marriage; and Jesus replied their statements to caution and correct their generalized conclusion that it is not good to marry.

Jesus didn't agree or disagree with His disciples, He only cautioned their generalization by telling them that not all men can receive the saying that it is not good to marry; except those unto whom it is given. Given by who? By God.



The statement of Jesus in verse 12 has already been answered by Him in verse 11;

Matthew 19v12 -...He that is able to receive it, let him receive it.

And who are those who are able to receive the desire and grace for kingdom celibacy? Jesus already answered that question in verse 11;

Matthew 19v11 -...All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given.

He that is able to receive it is He to whom it is given. Jesus already answered the question to His last statement, so there's no need speculating.

Its not choice, its calling (those to whom it is given). He that is able to receive kingdom celibacy is he to whom the calling is given by God.

Shalom[quote/]
Sir, Based on your interpretation.You said Christ statement,"All men cannot receive this saying,save they to whom it is given".was spoken inlight of what the disciples spoke i.e "It is not good to marry" and not based on divorce and remarriage.Ok But can you honestly tell me what He means by,"All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given".Let's say I told you,"A implies B and B implies C" and you replied,"Correct Bro! but so few would believe this assumption" From this hypothetical scenario can we infer,you also said the same thing.Of course! you did.So Sir,Why are you trying to escaping the obvious.From this saying "All men cannot receive this saying, save they to whom it is given".Based on your interpretation,our Lord never rebuked nor correct His disciples infact he commended them.

The discussion has been excellent thus far but thyud I give it to u.

This is how cults start......


God made male and female and he ordained marriage, to preach otherwise is a sin.

"by means of the hypocrisy of liars seared in their own conscience as with a branding iron, men who forbid marriage ..." - 1 Timothy 4:3a

1 Timothy 5:14
So I counsel younger widows to marry, to have children, to manage their homes and to give the enemy no opportunity for slander.

Hebrews 13:4
Marriage should be honored by all, and the marriage bed kept pure, for God will judge the adulterer and all the sexually immoral


Young ones do not be deceived by these self appointed mouth pieces for 'God '.

Marry and enjoy your wife or husband to the fullest, nothing wrong with that.

However if you have it in you to remain single , your choice is respected, only don't preach it as the norm.

each to his own callin,