₦airaland Forum

truthmans2012:
I wonder what you guys say about Bible versions. It is only the English Bible that have versions and that is because there is new and old English and there is British and American English. You cannot find versions in Bible with local languages like Yoruba, Igbo or Hausa. Even the English versions are saying the same thing in different expressions. The intention is not to change the original messages.

Even the quran has serious differences in translations that change the original meaning. I know you will say the Arabic remains the same but what is the intention trying to confuse non-Arab readers?

Exactly me point about "translation" because there's bound to be difference in meaning and with a context going through different translations at different period of time by different set of people, then you can be sure what might have happened to it since language makes us understand no two words are actually really the same but that one "might" just be able to stand in place of another another. Think about it.

Read: www.nairaland.com/2933766/bible-versions-better-than-quranic

truthman2012:
Lol !!! The usual lame excuse.

Can you tell me what existed in the time of Muhammad, because the Jews and Christian Scriptures that existed then were confirmed authentic ?

There were Christians in the time of Muhammad and there was no difference in what they believed then and what we believe now as the quran makes us to understand. As our Christian belief now is the same as it was in the days of Muhammad, it would make no sense that the Bible now is not the same as in the time of Muhammad. Now see what the quran says about the Christians in Muhammad's time:

And when there cometh unto them a Scripture from Allah, confirming that in their possession (Quran 2:89).
First, this verse makes it clear that the Scripture in Jews' and Christians' possession at Muhammad's time is the TRUTH as the quran came to confirm and not to correct it. To confirm means to say it is true or authentic. [b]But why did Allah still say it is changed or corrupted?[/b]Second, if the quran came to confirm the earlier Scripture, why the differences? Allahh was manipulative here.

How come they come unto the (i.e Muhammad) for judgment when they have the Torah, wherein Allah hath delivered judgment (for them)? Yet even after that they turn away. Such (folk) are not believers (Quran 5:43).
Even at Muhammad's time till today the Torah was valid for judgment. Or when was it changed and by who?

Let the People of the Gospel judge by that which Allah hath revealed therein. Whoso judgeth not by that
which Allah hath revealed: such are evil-doers (Quran 5:47).
The Gospel was also valid for judgment at Muhammad's time and till date. Or when was it changed and by who?

Say: "O People of the Book! (i.e the Jews and the Christians) Ye have no ground to stand upon unless ye standfast by the Law, the Gospel and all the revelations that has come to you from your Lord (Quran 5:71).
How could Allah say Jew and Christian should stand fast by the Law and Gospel if they have been corrupted?

Please note that if there are other verses of the quran that do not tally with the above, it is because the quran is full of contradictions.

Amberon11:
Why are you twisting the words of your supposed "God"?? that verse up there has nothing but to do with the bible and whether it was corrupted or not. It simply says the followers of
Christ will be made more superior.

sinaj:
Wow he will love to see diz on me

onyekabe1:
Religion is man made hence they fail to predict the future

seunny4lif:
Funny you but sorry I stayed in Tripoli for 2years plus
Go and check all my previous posts