Theben:
Yea

I'm wonder what bearing it has on this. But i'm right on it.

Here, you have it

none
/nən/
Pronoun
Not any: "none of you want to work".
Adverb
By no amount; not at all: "it is made none the easier by the differences in approach".
Noun
A service forming part of the Divine Office of the Western Christian Church, traditionally said at the ninth hour of the day (3 p.m.).
Synonyms
pronoun. no one - nobody - neither - nothing
adverb. nothing - not at all

Afam4eva:
I'm wonder what bearing it has on this. But i'm right on it.

Here, you have it

none
/nən/
Pronoun
Not any: "none of you want to work".
Adverb
By no amount; not at all: "it is made none the easier by the differences in approach".
Noun
A service forming part of the Divine Office of the Western Christian Church, traditionally said at the ninth hour of the day (3 p.m.).
Synonyms
pronoun. no one - nobody - neither - nothing
adverb. nothing - not at all

This is what I copied from my oxford dictionary, 8th edition.

*when you use 'none of' with an uncountable noun, the verb is in the singular: e.g None of the work was done.
*When you use 'none of' with a plural noun or pronoun, or a singular noun referring to a group of people or things; you can either use a singular or a plural verb. But the singular form is used in a formal style in BrE. e.g None of the trains is/are going to london.

I can't possibly type everything here cos I'm browsing with my phone. And don't wanna make use of online dictionary cos I won't get to see every detail I need in this argument.

Theben:
This is what I copied from my oxford dictionary, 8th edition.

I think this link solves it http://www.ecenglish.com/learnenglish/using-have-and-has

Afam4eva:
I think this link solves it http://www.ecenglish.com/learnenglish/using-have-and-has

You are getting it wrong. The emphasis is on the 'none' not the noun/pronoun that precedes the verb.

Afam4eva:
I think this link solves it http://www.ecenglish.com/learnenglish/using-have-and-has

Your link actually dealt with basic uses of 'have' and 'has' with examples like: he has a haircut. Is that what we are discussing here? Jeez! This question should also apply to you

Prove that ''none of them'' cannot go with ''has''. Don't even try to post any other thing here, just prove that ''none of them'', ''none of my friends'', ''none of whatever'' cannot go with ''has''.

Theben:
You are getting it wrong. The emphasis is on the 'none' not the noun that precedes the verb.

I really don't see how the word "None" changes anything. The rule of Has/Have does not change irrespective of any word that's in the sentence.

Theben:
You are getting it wrong. The emphasis is on the 'none' not the noun that precedes the verb.

I don't know why that is so difficult for them to understand, expect the next person to also give us lectures on ''he has'' ''she has'' and ''they have'' as if that is what the discussion is about. Damn!

Seriously?

I am going to report you guys for derailing, Afam, you too

HumbledbYGrace: Seriously?

I am going to report you guys for derailing, Afam, you too

is English the official language of South Africa?

Afam4eva:
I really don't see how the word "None" changes anything. The rule of Has/Have does not change irrespective of any word that's in the sentence.

So by your logic, "None of the boys are here" should be correct? As the same rule is applicable in the use of is/are.

Theben:
So by your logic, "None of the boys are here" should be correct? As the same rule is applicable in the use of is/are.

Yes, "None of the boys are here" is correct. Anything wrong with it? Aren't we referring to Has/Have?

Afam4eva:
I really don't see how the word "None" changes anything. The rule of Has/Have does not change irrespective of any word that's in the sentence.

So ''none of my friends has a car'' is wrong because friends must always go with have right?

Scun: So ''none of my friends has a car'' is wrong because friends must always go with have right?

Yes, it is very wrong. I hear a lot of people say it but that doesn't make it right.

And just as I thought!

none

Usage Note: It is widely asserted that none is equivalent to no one, and hence requires a singular verb and singular pronoun: None of the prisoners was given his soup. It is true that none is etymologically derived from the Old English word n, "one," but the word has been used as both a singular and a plural noun from Old English onward. The plural usage appears in the King James Bible as well as the works of John Dryden and Edmund Burke and is widespread in the works of respectable writers today. Of course, the singular usage is perfectly acceptable. The choice between a singular or plural verb depends on the desired effect. Both options are acceptable in this sentence: None of the conspirators has (or have) been brought to trial. When none is modified by almost, however, it is difficult to avoid treating the word as a plural: Almost none of the officials were (not was) interviewed by the committee. None can only be plural in its use in sentences such as: None but his most loyal supporters believe (not believes) his story. See Usage Notes at every, neither, nothing.

Examples:
1. none of my letters has arrived
2. there was none to tell the tale
3. none of it looks edible
4. None of the members is going.
5. That is none of your business.
6. I'll have none of that.

Usage: None is a singular pronoun and should be used with a singular form of a verb: none of the students has (not have) a car

Source: http://www.thefreedictionary.com/None




Hmmmmm....So both of you is right! Can we go to sleep now?




*****READ AT YOUR OWN RISK ******

So the winner is TheBen!
Reasons: As we can see that 'None' means - No one/ not any (which is very very much singular)....It should be treated like every other singular Noun words.
It was also stated in the quote that; None has always been used traditionally with a singular Verb....no matter what! (except in cases which is not related to the topic at hand) - It was later on; that using it interchangeably with a plural verb was introduced (due to 'old english' wahala used in writing The Bible). So this means TheBen can be considered as 'More Right'

TheBen..... You've been vindicated.
Mister Twister a.k.a 'UK Prof' a.k.a Sagamite.....You are also right....Oya hug yourselves


#ByeBye

Afam4eva:
is English the official language of South Africa?

its one of the 10 official languages.

Afam4eva:
Yes, it is very wrong. I hear a lot of people say it but that doesn't make it right.

Read speedyboi's post, you might learn one or 2 thing from it.

Speedyboi, God go bless you
*sigh

HumbledbYGrace: its one of the 10 official languages.

''it is'' or ''it's''. We are in correct grammar mode now.

I'm really trying to understand what bearing "None" has on the sentence when the bone of contention should be on "posts" and "have/has".

OOOOO....I see Afam don take up the case before I got back

Scun: ''it is'' or ''it's''. We are in correct grammar mode now.

argh, I am going to bed, adios.

It is!

Scun: I don't know why that is so difficult for them to understand, expect the next person to also give us lectures on ''he has'' ''she has'' and ''they have'' as if that is what the discussion is about. Damn!

The funny thing is that I've seen that Sagamite call Shymexx who did all his schooling in the same England product of a failed education system. Lmao

Afam4eva: I'm really trying to understand what bearing "None" has on the sentence when the bone of contention should be on "posts" and "have/has".

This issue was addressed in that Speedyboi's post, take your time and read it.

Scun: This issue was addressed in that Speedyboi's post, take your time and read it.

I think i get it now. From now onwards, i'll stick with Igbo and pidgin English. God punish English

Afam4eva: I'm really trying to understand what bearing "None" has on the sentence when the bone of contention should be on "posts" and "have/has".

Examples:

1. none of my letters has arrived( not even( one) of my letters has arrived. Letter is a noun, singular will go with has, END of story.

2. there was none to tell the tale (not even a (single) soul was there to tell the tale.

3. none of it looks edible

4. None of the members is going.

5. That is none of your business.
6. I'll have none of that.

Usage: None is a singular pronoun and should be used with a singular form of a verb: none of the students has (not have) a car

Afam4eva: I'm really trying to understand what bearing "None" has on the sentence when the bone of contention should be on "posts" and "have/has".

You don't expect anyone to get the exact sentence he made anywhere.

If I can recall, the wahala was on 'None of my posts has anything to do with sex', right?

Okay..then this example suits the case study 'none of my letters has arrived'
All you need do is replace the following
posts = letters
'anything to do with sex' (Adverbial clause) - Arrived (Adverb)

and we are fine.

Afam4eva:
I think i get it now. From now onwards, i'll stick with Igbo and pidgin English. God punish English

Afam4eva:
I think i get it now. From now onwards, i'll stick with Igbo and pidgin English. God punish English

Bottomline from all the google searches I've done, both ''none of them has'' and ''none of them have'' are correct, feel free to use anyone. Sagamite was wrong in trying to correct The Ben.

Afam4eva:
I think i get it now, from now onwards, i'll stick with to Igbo and pidgin English. God punish English

Correct guy.

Case closed! I say no more.