₦airaland Forum

dolphinheart:
all you needed to do is to show that my answer is wrong about John 1:1.
pls try and do so.
You brought two options, I chosed one of them, pls proof that my option is wrong.

dolphinheart:
if you read the scriptures I posted, you will know, I believe you know, but believe in your false doctrines wunt allow you to accept

This is the excuse given by someone who want to twist the truth, who is afraid that his own version of that verse is false. The writer of that verse did not write the two different statements of that verse found in the KJV and NIV, he only wrote one statement. The statement must either contain the Greek word for "God" or the Greek word for "he". It has been proven that the correct word written by the author is "he", but because it affects your false doctrines, you had to reject the truth brought forward with facts and defend the falsely added word. We all know that both translations cannot be true, one is true and other is false, but you had to accept both cus it helps you.


the writer did not write both sentences, the writer did not write "thoes". So get the true translation and then try to understand it's meaning.

[qoute]Jesus {"He or God"} was manifested in the flesh, Justified in the Spirit, seen by angels, preached among the Gentiles, believed on in the world, Received up in glory...
the Greek word for he and God are two different words, it cannot be interchanged for each other.

NIV-He appeared in the flesh. KJV-God was manifested in the flesh..
These scriptures are so simple to understand-Dolphinheart refusing to see God in the KJV-is not my concern, what concerns me, is the KJV recognises the truth, who Jesus is.
The KJV added word to that verse deliberately, the scriptures is supposed to be a translation, it is not supposed to change words and give it a different meaning, it's not supposed to add or change words based on his own view of the truth.
The Greek word in that part of the verse cannot in any way be translated as God.

This is why this bible is so popular, this same bible takes charge over every other bible that's written.
It is only people like you, who will always disagree, only because like the rest of these so called bible scholars, everyone of you, are afraid of the truth that stands in the KJ bible.
brocab, a lot of bad things are popular.

The KJV is used as a tool, only for the believers, without fear, we live by faith, and receive the glory of God Himself.
I have found no other bible that I can say is true to it's word, these other bibles written by inspired so called bible scholars had either twisted the scriptures or they had removed them completely, in fear..
So people like yourself who listens to people like these so called bible scholars-will someday end up all together in your own condemnation in Hell.

your opinion. but we know you can't support it with facts.

dolphinheart:
(1) the translation is accurate, but it contains a misprint? I don't think you know what you are saying.

(2) if it contains a misprint, why has it not been corrected for hundreds of years?

(3) why does the KJV still defend the use of Jehovah if it's a misprint?
kjvtoday dot com
[b]“Jehovah” or “Yahweh” in Exodus 6:3 et al.?

"And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them." (Exodus 6:3, KJV)


"JEHOVAH" is the translation of יהוה with the Masoretic vowel points.  These vowel points were put in place by the Masoretes many centuries after the composition of the Hebrew Bible.  It is commonly believed that the Jews in the Second Temple period took the vowel points of "Adona" (Lord) and placed them in .

Many scholars today believe that the original pronunciation of  was closer to "Yahweh".  This is a theory based on how some writers in the cognate languages and Greek pronounced the name (e.g. Clement of Alexandria, The Stromata, Book V, 6).  These other languages had vowels written before the Masoretes gave vowel points to the Hebrew, and it appears that some early writers in these languages wrote the name as something resembling "Yahweh".

However, there is more to the story.  Our Lord's Hebrew name "Yehoshua" (יהושׁע) means "Jehovah saves" and is derived from יהוה.  This Hebrew name became "Yeshua" in Aramaic and "Ἰησοῦς" (Iesous) in Greek.  As clearly seen, by the time of our Lord Jesus the part of"Yehoshua" (יהושׁע) which corresponds with  was pronounced like the first two syllables of "Jehovah".  Whether or not the original pronunciation of  was "Yahweh", Jews pronounced the name as "Jehovah" by the first century.  And neither our Lord Jesus nor the New Testament writers indicated any dissatisfaction with this pronunciation.

Other Hebrew names were also derived from compounding יהוה (or a portion of it) with another Hebrew word: e.g. Jehoshaphat, Jehoiada, Jehoram, Jehoiakim, etc. The way these names have been pronounced throughout history suggests to us that יהוה was pronounced like "Jehovah". In any case, the fact that the psalmist was comfortable using the short-form “Jah” (Psalm 68:4) indicates that the Jews were not particularly legalistic about the pronunciation of the Divine Name.  Pious Jews did not even utter the sacred name.

The theory of the pronunciation as "Yahweh" is a theory at best.  In any case, the KJV is a translation of the Hebrew Masoretic text, which gives the vowels of "Jehovah".  As such, the KJV is a faithful translation of the preserved Hebrew text.

Lasty, some critics despise the hard “J” sound in “Jehovah,” but many Hebrew names (e.g. Jesus, Joseph, John, James, Jude, Judas, Jeremiah, Jonah) are pronounced in English with the hard “J” despite them not having the hard “J” in Hebrew or Greek. It would be hypocritical to insist that one must pronounce יהוה as “Yahweh” while permitting the Anglicized pronunciations of other Hebrew names (including “Jesus,” which contains the name “Jehovah.”).[/b]

can you see the KJV defending itself, their statement had just debunked your "mispelt" theory. It has exposed your falsehood, no wonder you could not bring up any evidence to surport your theory.

(4) this are simple questions I've asked before and ill ask again
A. What bible translation are you using
B. Is your bible printed by the jaw
C. what does exodus 6:3 and psalm 83: 18 say in the bible you are using.

I know you will not answer the questions when you reply this post, but I added it to show sincere Christians the spirit you claim to have.



For your statement to be true, the name of Jehovah must have a mark, Pls what is the mark of that na me that the kjv did not reach?
refusal to answer the question will show your statement to be false.

you just said the name "jehovah" was mentioned In the old testament, this shows that truly the name did exist in the bible, it was not mispelled.


Good that you know that "LORD" is a generic term.

dolphinheart:
I also believe that John 1:1 said the word was a god, but unlike you, I have evidence to support my believe, my believe did not come out of strong head devotion, it came out of study, knowing fully well that what I'm being taught is the truth, truth as revealed by the scriptures.
If you claim a spirit teaches you, but the spirit teaches you something contrary to what the scriptures says, then that spirit is a bad spirit . If the spirit makes you vehemently refuse to answer scripturally based questions, then that spirit is false. If the spirit encourages you to lie on this thread , then that spirit is not the hope spirit.

dolphinheart:
STOP LYING , I QUOTED THE SCRIPTURES WHERE IT IS SAID THAT JESUS GAVE UP HIS SPIRIT!.
I HAVE ALSO QUOTED WHAT THE SCRIPTURE SAYS HAPPEN TO A PERSON WHEN HIS SPIRIT GOES OUT.
I ALSO SHOWED WHERE THE SCRIPTURE SAID JESUS GAVE HIS LIFE!

YOU SAY JESUS DID NOT DIE, YET JESUS SAID HE WAS DEAD!

dolphinheart:
unfortunately, you keep missing the point, I don't know if it's deliberate or not.
The issue is about the content of the verse we are supposed to understand and not the understanding between two different sentences.
first one has to know which sentence is true and which is false before one has to understand the true sentence.

let me explain to you with another example. A thousand years ago , a man made a statement, a thousand years later, some people said the statement made a thousand years ago was "the boy is good", others said it is not so , that the statement was " the mamost is good". We all know the man did not make both statements, he only made one statement, therefore one of the two statement is false.

fortunately the man wrote his statement down, so brocab , pls tell me, what better way is their than using the record of that written statement to know which of the two statements is true, cus we know both cannot be true.

It is after such verification that you can now try to understand the statement.

such verification had been done on 1 timothy 3:16, the word "he" has been discovered to be the true word in that verse. mind you , before you claim it's the spirit that thought you, both sides can lay claim to the spirit teaching teaching them too.


The issue is, what is the true statement , did the statement say "boy" or "man". Yes, you can understand the statement in different ways, depending on your truthfulness and aim, but the fact is, there was only one statement, not two, so which one is it.



But the scripture also encouraged us to study, if you ask God for the truth, he wunt give you contrary details to what is contained in the scriptures .

Those you accuse of changing the scriptures also accuse you of adding to the scriptures in certain verses while saying it's the spirit of God that is guiding them. Even the text in which those accused got most of their words from had been found to be full of errors, even the author of those texts had to bring out numerous editions to correct some of those false words discovered.


riptures daily to see whether these things were so.

[b]Acts 17:11 King James Bible
These were more noble than those in Thessalonica, in that they received the word with all readiness of mind, and searched the scriptures daily, whether those things were so.

Barristter07:
Matter of fact


Now, provide where KJV use the translation " Yahweh " ? For God

Barristter07:
Dont act like a dull person ,who asked you how many times it appeared ?

if you are intelligent, you would know the basis of my question isnt how many times it appears BUT THAT IT APPEARED in the KJV which you cant deny

Thanks for your time

dolphinheart:
I'm not going to follow your unprovable claims, some like you, use such statements and will say the NIV is right and the KJV is wrong when you look at 1 ti 3: 16.

some pastors here, anytime they want to lie, they will tell you it's the spirit of God that is talking to them. They use such method like you are trying to do cud they know it cannot be easily verified.

The truth about 1st timothy 3:16 can be verified all one has to do is look at the manuscripts available that contain that verse. You will see their is no Greek word for " God " in that verse.

dolphinheart:
haha, so you don't accept every word in the KJV, yet you say it is accurate. you twist all the time brocab, you are not rooted to a stand.

dolphinheart:
brocab, the issue in not about understanding, the issue is about the words written, before you talk about understandING, you must first know the words written.

The words "the man is good" can be undertood by different people in different ways, but if someone comes and now says the real word is " the boy is good", how do you know which of the two different sentences is the right one, because it is after knowing which sentence is right and which one is false, that you can now start trying to understand it's meaning.

so now brocab, now if someone says he too asks God for answers and God told him that that the words of that verse where not inspired by him, what will you do, how do we know which one of you is right?

dolphinheart:
all you needed to do is to show that my answer is wrong about John 1:1.
pls try and do so.
You brought two options, I chosed one of them, pls proof that my option is wrong.

dolphinheart:
you asked me that question before, I answered you, even quoted the verse to you, the answer is B.

akintom:
Are you by any insinuation, saying JW is a satanic organization?

dolphinheart:
now if someone says he too asks God for answers and God told him that that the words of that verse where not inspired by him, what will you do, how do we know which one of you is right?

achorladey:
I don't see this as response to the issue under consideration.

achorladey:
Brocab: If Jesus didn't give up His Spirit-then why did God raise Him up from the dead {Acts 2:24, 1 Corinthians 6:14, Romans 8:11} {Mark 16:19} After the Lord had spoken unto them {Disciples} He was received up into heaven.
Dolphinheart: No one said Jesus did not give up his spirit, therefore your question is off point.
God raised Jesus from the dead because Jesus was dead!
shame on you brocab, in other to hide a very important point from Mark 16:19, you refused to fully quote it, you are full of dubious behaviours.
King James Bible
So then after the Lord had spoken unto them, he was received up into heaven, and sat on the right hand of God.
Achorladey: A very good reason why I always say make good use of scriptures cited. Don't abuse it. I hope you see your contradictions flying here and there.

dolphinheart:
{I have wrote your name Dolphinheart in red, look above in white, at 4:33 pm} If everyone acts that same way, only talking about things he wants to talk about, editing other people's explanation and scriptures, then we will not learn anything.
IF SCRIPTURES ARE SHOWN TO YOU, AND YOU FEEL THE EXPLANATIONS GIVEN ARE WRONG, A SINCERE PERSON WILL QUOTE THOSE SCRIPTURES AND GIVE HIS OWN EXPLANATIONS, A SINCERE PERSON WILL NOT REMOVE IT FROM THE POST, ACTING AS IF THOSE VERSES WHERE NOT QUOTE AS PART OF THE POST.

dolphinheart:
are we talking about which bible to stick to?, no we are talking about 1 timothy 3:16.
Two different translations give two different text of the same verse. I've shown you how some translations translated 1 timothy 3:16, I've given you reasons why they are correct, if you want , I can even show you the Greek text.

so far you have not:
1. give any reason why you think the KJV translation of 1 timothy 3: 16 is right and the others are wrong.
2. shown any evidence to support the use of the word "God" in that verse when it is proven that the word does not exist in that verse.

I did not bring myself low, I quoted several translations to you, non of them used "God", they used "he", they are different words with different spelling and different meaning. Now the issue is, which one is correct, which one is wrong. evidence from the manuscripts and scholars show that the use of "God" in that verse is totally wrong.



don't make statements without providing evidence, pls quote the verse where the statement was a made from both the NIV and the KJV, we will then examine it together on this thread.



First one needs to examine which translation is true and which is false.

* note , my acceptance of what a scholar says about a particular subject is based on my personal study , I don't accept all of what a particular scholar says but look at it subject by subject.
In regard to the above verse, Bruce Metzger writes:

[“He who”] is supported by the earliest and best uncials…no uncial (in the first hand) earlier than the eighth or ninth century supports theos; all ancient versions presuppose hos or ho [“he who” or “he”]; and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the fourth century testifies to the reading theos. The reading theos arose either(a) accidentally, or (b) deliberately, either to supply a substantive for the following six verbs [the six verbs that follow in the verse], or, with less probability, to provide greater dogmatic precision [i.e., to produce a verse that more clearly supports the Trinitarian position].” [1]

brocab, the use of theos in 1 timothy arose either accidentally or deliberate alteration of what the verse says.
now that we know the the true Greek word is "ho" which means "he" in English, it is left for us to study and know who that he is!

By looking at the verse and examining what was said about that "he" , we are ably to know it was jesus, the son of God, who was exalted and sat at the right hand of God.

dolphinheart:
are we talking about which bible to stick to?, no we are talking about 1 timothy 3:16.
Two different translations give two different text of the same verse. I've shown you how some translations translated 1 timothy 3:16, I've given you reasons why they are correct, if you want , I can even show you the Greek text.

so far you have not:
1. give any reason why you think the KJV translation of 1 timothy 3: 16 is right and the others are wrong.
2. shown any evidence to support the use of the word "God" in that verse when it is proven that the word does not exist in that verse.

I did not bring myself low, I quoted several translations to you, non of them used "God", they used "he", they are different words with different spelling and different meaning. Now the issue is, which one is correct, which one is wrong. evidence from the manuscripts and scholars show that the use of "God" in that verse is totally wrong.



don't make statements without providing evidence, pls quote the verse where the statement was a made from both the NIV and the KJV, we will then examine it together on this thread.



First one needs to examine which translation is true and which is false.

* note , my acceptance of what a scholar says about a particular subject is based on my personal study , I don't accept all of what a particular scholar says but look at it subject by subject.
In regard to the above verse, Bruce Metzger writes:

[“He who”] is supported by the earliest and best uncials…no uncial (in the first hand) earlier than the eighth or ninth century supports theos; all ancient versions presuppose hos or ho [“he who” or “he”]; and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the fourth century testifies to the reading theos. The reading theos arose either(a) accidentally, or (b) deliberately, either to supply a substantive for the following six verbs [the six verbs that follow in the verse], or, with less probability, to provide greater dogmatic precision [i.e., to produce a verse that more clearly supports the Trinitarian position].” [1]

brocab, the use of theos in 1 timothy arose either accidentally or deliberate alteration of what the verse says.
now that we know the the true Greek word is "ho" which means "he" in English, it is left for us to study and know who that he is!

By looking at the verse and examining what was said about that "he" , we are ably to know it was jesus, the son of God, who was exalted and sat at the right hand of God.

dolphinheart:
Your dubious character is more evident day by day, you first said he did not do any editing, he has confirmed that he edited my post, you now quickly change your stance. Like the wind blows smoke left and right, you stance keep changing depending on what's on ground.

If I asked you to show one instance in which I edited your post now, you will run away again!



If you want to correct mistakes, you first show the mistake, then put the correction forward.
removing quoted scriptures does not show you are correcting mistakes, it shows you are afraid of the scriptures quoted, the only way to hide from explaining it is to try and erase it!

When I was in school, if we make mistakes or answer questions incorrectly, the teacher does not erase what we have written, he or she will point to where we made the mistake and give corrections below what we have written.

I know you like your own method, cus it prevents others from seing the so called mistakes you are trying to correct, to prevent discerning minds from checking if truly their is a mistake and if your corrections are valid.

dolphinheart:
Your dubious character is more evident day by day, you first said he did not do any editing, he has confirmed that he edited my post, you now quickly change your stance. Like the wind blows smoke left and right, you stance keep changing depending on what's on ground.

If I asked you to show one instance in which I edited your post now, you will run away again!



If you want to correct mistakes, you first show the mistake, then put the correction forward.
removing quoted scriptures does not show you are correcting mistakes, it shows you are afraid of the scriptures quoted, the only way to hide from explaining it is to try and erase it!

When I was in school, if we make mistakes or answer questions incorrectly, the teacher does not erase what we have written, he or she will point to where we made the mistake and give corrections below what we have written.

I know you like your own method, cus it prevents others from seing the so called mistakes you are trying to correct, to prevent discerning minds from checking if truly their is a mistake and if your corrections are valid.

dolphinheart:
prove my accusation wrong brocab, HAVE YOU EVER QUOTED PSALMS 83:18 FROM THE KJV WHEN I REQUESTED YOU DO SO?, PLS FOR ONCE ,SHOW YOU ARE NOT A LIAR BY
1. SHOWING US WHERE YOU QUOTED THE VERSE FROM THE KJV OR
2. QUOTING THE VERSE FROM THE KJV AND TELLING US IF YOU ACCEPT THAT TRANSLATION.

achorladey:
Brocab: Jesus gave up His Spirit to God, it doesn't mean His Spirit is dead-finished.
Achorladey: He(Jesus) gave his spirit to who? One word please no mistake this time. Concerning your latest post wait for my response soon.

dolphinheart:
ill show you evidence
look at my post on 4:28pm On Dec 13 then look how it was heavily edited with deliberate removal of scriptures when he quoted that post on 1:33am On Dec 14

the quote below is my post, the parts in red are the parts that was removed so that he could respond


BROCAB, CAN YOU SEE THE LOW LEVEL YOU AND YOUR BROTHER HAD RESORT TO, YOU HAD TO ALTER MY POST, EDITING OUT A LARGE PART OF IT,(ALL THOSE WRITTEN IN RED)EXPECIALLY THE PARTS THAT CONTAIN SCRIPTURES THAT EXPOSES YOU SO THAT YOU REPLY.

achorladey:
Do you read this at all
Dolphinheart-2. HE GAVE UP HIS SPIRIT
You posted John 19: 30, but in you bid to formulate falsehood out of it, you failed to listen to what that verse is telling you.
Joh 19:30When he had received the sour wine, Jesus said: “It has been accomplished!” and bowing his head, he gave up his spirit.
King James Version
Joh 19:30When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, It is finished: and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost.
Did you see the underlined above?, it did not say Jesus left his body using only his spirit, it did not say Jesus continued living as a spirit, it said Jesus GAVE UP his spirit, if you give something up, IT'S NO LONGER Yours.

achorladey:
Failure written all over this as well

achorladey:
Laughs

achorladey:
Jesus standing at the right hand of who? Answer with just one word, not two not three just one word.

achorladey:
Failure written all over that reply.

achorladey:
Back it up Bro

achorladey:
Standing in the right hand of who? Answer with just one word, not two not three just one word.