₦airaland Forum

achorladey:
Your scorecard is still with me. Continue

jworg:
My friend the truth is that the bible teaches that Jesus is a God even in the book of isaiah 9:6 calls him mighty God and Jehovah's witnesses do not dispute that at any time. But the area of interest is, Is Jesus equal in status to the almighty God? That is were we Jehovah's witnesses say No.. First of all in the book of Isaiah 9:6 i quoted earlier called Jesus a mighty God if Jesus is refered to as Mighty God then who is Almighty (remember comparative and superlative in english language). Secondly Jesus on so many occasion refered to himself as having a father matt 6:9, 10 (he said our father in the heaven which includes himself otherwise he would have said Your father in heaven) on the night he was killed he prayed to a higher God begging that he be spared the agony that was coming to prove the fact that he was talking to a superior he said, "Let not my will but yours take place" . Also in John 14:28 Jesus said that he is going to meet a father and that Father is greater than he is. So please don't get it twisted Jehovah's witnesses do demote Jesus or promote Jesus we preach Jesus exactly for what he is, that is he is our Redeemer, the king of kings enthroned in heaven as king of God's kingdom, the only begotten son of God (John 3:16) and so much more. But one thing we do not accept is that Jesus is same and equal to the almighty God. For more info visit jw. Org got to bible teachings for more answers

dolphinheart:
1. I did not say the chapter has false views , look at what I said again :
solite3, if you read those scriptures without trying to understand the context and what the the bible says in its entirety, you will come to the false understandING you are trying to potray .

2. It should be noted that you tried to omit yourself from answering the question asked, this question is vital to understandING Hebrews chapter 1:
[b] First of all, who is talking in that verse? and who does that person say he is in relation to Jesus? The answers to those questions which I will expect that you will not provide when you reply(let's see if you will prove me wrong ) will help you to understand what that verse is saying.

you proved me right again by refusing to answer that question.

3. You refuse to respond to this statement and verses:
[b]you have read the relationship the person talking in that verse and Jesus when it comes to creation, earliar that same chapter had cleared Any false views of what it will say later , look at heb 1: 1-2.
Heb 1:1 Long ago God spoke to our forefathers by means of the prophets on many occasions and in many ways
Heb 1:2 Now at the end of these days he has spoken to us by means of a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, and through whom he made the systems of things.

4. I am attending to the issue raised I'm telling how the quote of psalms 102: 25-27 can be applied to Jesus in Hebrews 1: 10-12 when the psalm says that it is addressed to God. The answer is that it is because the Son is the one through whom God performed the creative works there described by the psalmist. (See Colossians 1:15, 16; Proverbs 8:22, 27-30.)
It should be observed in Hebrews 1:5b that a quotation is made from 2 Samuel 7:14 and applied to the Son of God. Although that text had its first application to Solomon, the later application of it to Jesus Christ does not mean that Solomon and Jesus are the same. Jesus is “greater than Solomon” and carries out a work foreshadowed by Solomon.—Luke 11:31.

5. It is evident that in Hebrew chapter one, the God that the writer is refering to as saying all this is not Jesus.

6. pls you need to support your statement with facts, pls show where I made the statement you claimed you remembered I made.

7. It is good that you accepted that Jesus is the one being referred to in proverbs 8: 30, your brother brocab refuses to accept, hope you will teach him that truth.
I also hope you accept the other things said about Jesus in that chapter.
The verse said, I was beside him as a master worker, hope you understand that statement?

8. yes I can tell my friends that the foundation where the works of my own hands , the bricklayer can say the same thing, it is left for the listener to understand the statement , it does not mean the bricklayer and the owner are same person.
A similar expression was used by Solomon , let's read it
Ec 2:4 I undertook great works. I built houses for myself; I planted vineyards for myself.
Ec 2:5I made gardens and parks for myself, and I planted in them all sorts of fruit trees.
Ec 2:6I made pools of water for myself, to irrigate a grove of flourishing trees.
* you can continue reading to verse 11

In reverence to verse 4, 1Ki 7:1 says : And it took Solʹo·mon 13 years to build his own house, until his whole house was completed.
The scriptures above says Solomon built his own house, Solomon said he undertook great works and built his house. We all know that despite this statement by Solomon, we could not say he physically built the house by himself , we all know he employed people to build his house for him. despite this well known facts that Solomon employed workers to build his house for him, look at what he said in verse 12
Ec 2:11 But when I reflected on all the works that MY OWN HANDS had done and on all the hard work that I had toiled to accomplish, I saw that everything was futile, a chasing after the wind; there was nothing of real value under the sun.

now let me ask you solite3, did Solomon say he accomplished those works he mentioned earlier with his own hands? does it mean he physically did the construction? pls answer , you are the one who brought up the issue of own hand as if it negates the lay man's example I gave you.

9. you did not respond to this question :
You are very confused , so Jesus was God that was talking in those verses of Hebrew chapter 1?

10. IF you believe you said something biblical and you want me to know or respond, pls mention me when you say it.

dolphinheart:
yes I read it, did you read my reply, do you understand my reply?

The answer is A
the issue is not about the Greek word "theos", Isaiah told us the meaning of the name "Immanuel" not "theos".

I asked him a question, I like to ask you too, hope you will answer
one of heman's son is called eliathah. can you tell us what that names means and can you tell us if it means that the person bearing that name is god?

achorladey:
st=52287110][color=#000099]
Brocab:
This argument would sound better if you would just study other bibles, and find out why most bibles don't have the name Jehovah written inside them,
Achorladey:
18:16 But if he will not hear thee, then take with thee one or two more, that in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established.
After your(Brocab) study of NWT and the KJV. What do you have to say about ''Jehovah'' under the principles highlighted in Matthew 18:16? Will you insist the JWs had no right to use the name? Is Jehovah not recorded in these two Bible translations? That it's stated categorically more than twice in each of these bibles is that not enough proof to establish every word? Matthew 18:16. Give the JWs a break. If you can't comprehend the scriptures call for help stubbornness leads to nowhere.

dolphinheart:
which one of those names did God directly tell you "this is my name"?


have I not thought you what psalms 83: 18 says, where we were told God's name?
pls check and study the definition of the Greek word "theos" , I've posted it earlier!


the bible does not lie, and I've explained those verses to you.

on Luke 1:31 , this is what I said :
" like I said, I was beginning to suspect you know little about the name jehovah, you just comfirmed it. I will not teach you further , but I will leave a clue, go and read the 1611 edition of the KJV, post what luke 1: 31 says here, tell us how that translation spelt the name of the son of God in that verse and why you , a defender of that 1611 translation do not spell the name in that manner!

your refusal to quote that verse from the 1611 version and explain why you don't spell the name in like manner will show how deep into falsehood you really are!"

YOU HAVE REFUSED TO DO SO, YOU AGAIN SHOW DEEP IN FALSEHOOD YOU ARE ANYTIME YOU REFUSE TO ANSWER CUS YOU KNOW IT EXPOSES YOU.


broad is this (below) the verse you are referring to? if it is ,then you confirm more and more that you know little about jehovah!

gen 13:4
King James Bible
Unto the place of the altar, which he had made there at the first: and there Abram called on the name of the LORD.

The questions one needs to ask you is
. where did the scripture say Abraham built an image.?
even if God's name is not jehovah, would that make it right for Abraham to build and image for worship?
did Abraham build an image for worship?

achorladey:
st=52287110][color=#000099]
Brocab :
This argument would sound better if you would just study other bibles, and find out why most bibles don't have the name Jehovah written inside them,

dolphinheart:
which one of those names did God directly tell you "this is my name"?


have I not thought you what psalms 83: 18 says, where we were told God's name?
pls check and study the definition of the Greek word "theos" , I've posted it earlier!


the bible does not lie, and I've explained those verses to you.

on Luke 1:31 , this is what I said :
" like I said, I was beginning to suspect you know little about the name jehovah, you just comfirmed it. I will not teach you further , but I will leave a clue, go and read the 1611 edition of the KJV, post what luke 1: 31 says here, tell us how that translation spelt the name of the son of God in that verse and why you , a defender of that 1611 translation do not spell the name in that manner!

your refusal to quote that verse from the 1611 version and explain why you don't spell the name in like manner will show how deep into falsehood you really are!"

YOU HAVE REFUSED TO DO SO, YOU AGAIN SHOW DEEP IN FALSEHOOD YOU ARE ANYTIME YOU REFUSE TO ANSWER CUS YOU KNOW IT EXPOSES YOU.


broad is this (below) the verse you are referring to? if it is ,then you confirm more and more that you know little about jehovah!

gen 13:4
King James Bible
Unto the place of the altar, which he had made there at the first: and there Abram called on the name of the LORD.

The questions one needs to ask you is
. where did the scripture say Abraham built an image.?
even if God's name is not jehovah, would that make it right for Abraham to build and image for worship?
did Abraham build an image for worship?

dolphinheart:
you know who Immanuel really is? , now pls tell us, was the first Immanuel in Isaiahs prophecy God? Go and read the prophecy and see how it was first fulfilled!




go and read the scriptures shown to you brocab, you will understand better, that Jesus bears the name Immanuel does not mean that Jesus is God,
we all know that God was with jesus, telling him what to do and say and giving him the power to do so!.

The words I told you are not false, but truth:


[b]Paul did not say "god was manifest in flesh, Paul did not use the Greek word " theos"

go and read the prophecy, go and read it's first fulfillment, come back and tell us if that first child called I'mmanuel is God. 

God's son became flesh and took on the likeness of men, that's what the scriptures teaches.
The scriptures teaches that God sent his son, not himself to become flesh, so God did not become flesh, his son became flesh and dwelt with mankind!

With this foremost representative of Jehovah among mankind, Matthew under inspiration could truly say, “With Us Is God.”
Jesus at various times during his life on earth told us how God was using him among mankind. 



Who Was Immanuel?
Some names of individuals in the Bible were prophetic and describe the work the person would do. For example, the prophet Isaiah was inspired to write: “Look! The maiden herself will actually become pregnant, and she is giving birth to a son, and she will certainly call his name Immanuel.” (Isaiah 7:14) This name means “With Us Is God.” Some Bible commentators have tried to link the first fulfillment of this prophecy with one of the Israelite kings or one of Isaiah’s sons. However, the Gospel writer Matthew showed that Isaiah’s prophecy was completely fulfilled in Jesus.—Matthew 1:22, 23.

Some have claimed that by applying the name Immanuel to Jesus, the Bible teaches that Jesus is God. However, by this logic the young man Elihu, who comforted and corrected Job, was also God. Why? His name means “My God Is He.”

Jesus never claimed to be God. (John 14:28; Philippians 2:5, 6) But he did reflect his Father’s personality perfectly, and he fulfilled all of God’s promises regarding the Messiah. (John 14:9; 2 Corinthians 1:20) The name Immanuel well describes Jesus’ role as the Messianic Seed, a descendant of David, the one who proves that God is with those who worship Him.

God sent Jesus to save his Faithfull ones. God spoke to us through a son( heb 1 : 1,2), Jesus tells us that the father told him what to say! and gave his sheep to him.[/b]

brocab, in Nigeria here, the southwest people have a name they give to their children, the name is " oluwapelumi", it means " God is with me"
We all know that though the child bears that name,it does not mean that the parents think that the child is God!
names have deeper meanings than to look it at face value, the isrealites understand this too when they add God to their names. There is a son of heman called eliathah, his name means "GOD HAS COME" , brocab, does it mean the son of heman is God cus his name means God has come?, If you could answer this question(though I know you will not), then you will understand better about names.

dolphinheart:
brocab, you are desperately trying to run away from the issue again, we are talking about 1 tI 3 :16. you can change the topic all you like but listen to what I told you about that verse :

[b]"When it comes to translation, one word is not as good as the other, if the wrong or different word is used, it will give a different meaning. The Greek word used by Paul means "he", it does not mean "God". There is a greek word for God and Paul did not use it in that verse.

If I asked that a letter I've written should be copied and the one who copied it make a mistake in one or two words or sentences in that letter, I do not condemn the whole letter, I'll just make corrections where the mistake are made. likewise the kjv, I do not condemn the kjv as a whole, but I try to make sure that the verse I'm quoting is as accurate as possible. If i feel a verse is wrongly or falsely translated, I state it and give reasons why!. Thank God we can all check the manuscripts and try to decipher which translation is correct when two bible translations give different sentences and meaning in the same verse.

haba!, you never stay in one place, always changing your beliefs, you just said how the Hebrew word for Lord was substituted for God's name by those who were afraid. you initially claimed the word " jehovah is a mispeling, now you accept it's a name used for God. 

Paul did not say "god was manifest in flesh, Paul did not use the Greek word " theos"!


good, you are learning the truth small small, did the verse say Mary will give birth to God, no it says she will give birth to a son WHOSE NAME WILL BE WHEN TRANSLATED " WITH US IS GOD".

go and read the prophecy, go and read it's first fulfillment, come back and tell us if that first child called I'mmanuel is God.



God's son became flesh and took on the likeness of men, that's what the scriptures teaches.
The scriptures teaches that God sent his son, not himself to become flesh, so God did not become flesh, his son became flesh and dwelt with mankind!

With this foremost representative of Jehovah among mankind, Matthew under inspiration could truly say, “With Us Is God.”
jesus at various times during his life on earth told us how God was using him among mankind.



Who Was Immanuel?

Some names of individuals in the Bible were prophetic and describe the work the person would do. For example, the prophet Isaiah was inspired to write: “Look! The maiden herself will actually become pregnant, and she is giving birth to a son, and she will certainly call his name Immanuel.” (Isaiah 7:14) This name means “With Us Is God.” Some Bible commentators have tried to link the first fulfillment of this prophecy with one of the Israelite kings or one of Isaiah’s sons. However, the Gospel writer Matthew showed that Isaiah’s prophecy was completely fulfilled in Jesus.—Matthew 1:22, 23.

Some have claimed that by applying the name Immanuel to Jesus, the Bible teaches that Jesus is God. However, by this logic the young man Elihu, who comforted and corrected Job, was also God. Why? His name means “My God Is He.”

Jesus never claimed to be God. (John 14:28; Philippians 2:5, 6) But he did reflect his Father’s personality perfectly, and he fulfilled all of God’s promises regarding the Messiah. (John 14:9; 2 Corinthians 1:20) The name Immanuel well describes Jesus’ role as the Messianic Seed, a descendant of David, the one who proves that God is with those who worship Him.

God sent jesus to save his Faithfull ones. God spoke to us through a son( heb 1 : 1,2), jesus tells us that the father told him what to say! and gave his sheep to him.

dolphinheart:
I've talked about the name Jehovah and why people who speak English (including the kjv) use it.


up till now you refuse to answer this questions cus it will prove your above statement as false and will show you are a liar, thus you avoid answering those simple questions.
1. what bible translation(s) are you using?
2. Is your bible translation printed by the jw?
3. can you quote psalms 83: 18 and exodus 6:3 from that verse?
4. do you accept how your translation translated those verses?

If you answer those questions your lies become evident, if you refuse to, your dubious nature becomes more evident!


who told you to care about how I feel.



Get this brocab, their is no "if it says" about that verse, their is no probability? Paul did not make two sentences, he only made one, he did not write "God", he wrote "he". If you feel that that he is God , no problem, but it's a grevious sin to now go and try to alter what Paul said because of your beliefs!
Paul did not use the Greek word "theos" in that verse!


cant understand what, the questions I've asked you that you refuse to answer or the scriptures I shown you that you try to ignore.


yes, the truth will set us free, go and read what I told you about Immanuel.

achorladey:
I can't believe your asking me that question. What name is recorded in Psalms 83:18, Exodus 6:3 e.t.c What name is sanctified in the lord's model prayer. If you brocab can score me zero in your report sheet. I wonder what your score will be in my scorecard. Smh for you.

achorladey:
''I am'' or ''I am that I am'' continue go and ask Brocab hw far about this. My conversation concerning ''I am'' is very much on this platform go back and read. Or better still ask Brocab.
Please tell me what Jehovah said to Moses in Exodus 6:3 is it ''I am that I am'' or ''Jehovah''. Who is the uncreated between the two A. Jehovah. B. Jesus. How well do you understand ''Whose name alone is Jehovah'' as recorded in Psalms 83:18.
How well do you understand ''but by my name'' as recorded in
Exodus 6:3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them.

achorladey:
Is 'I Am' a name? Substitute other names if it agrees withyour conclusion

johnw74:
yea, ha ha, when all antichrist has is lies, then all he can do is keep repeat repeat repeat repeating them

johnw74:
antichrist dolphinheart

you continue in your same old repeating lies and false accusings and confusions,
the diffrent translations you post don't show that it is Father speaking,
Jesus says He is Lord God, John calls Him the Almighty
I have not just shown but proved from the Bible that in the book of Revelation
it is Jesus speaking to John through His Angel
you are antichrist denying the Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ and are blinded

2Co_4:4  In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.


and your very very many words of denying Jesus

Ecc_5:3  For a dream cometh through the multitude of business; and a fool's voice is known by multitude of words.





Jesus is Lord God the Almighty who speaks through His angel in Revelation:

dolphinheart:
1. God's name is not pronounced "YHWH"
2. PLS show where I said the 1611 edition said jehovah.
3. do you know the difference between Iehovah and jehovah? I surely don't thing so.

like I said, I was beginning to suspect you know little about the name jehovah, you just comfirmed it. I will not teach you further , but I will leave a clue, go and read the 1611 edition of the KJV, post what luke 1: 31 says here, tell us how that translation spelt the name of the son of God in that verse and why you , a defender of that 1611 translation do not spell the name in that manner!

your refusal to quote that verse from the 1611 version and explain why you don't spell the name in like manner will show how deep into falsehood you really are!

johnw74:
^^^
yea, just about any time is a good time to celebrate Jesus birth-God becoming man to save the World

dolphinheart:
When it comes to translation, one word is not as good as the other, if the wrong or different word is used, it will give a different meaning. The Greek word used by Paul means "he", it does not mean "God". There is a greek word for God and Paul did not use it in that verse.

If I asked that a letter I've written should be copied and the one who copied it make a mistake in one or two words or sentences in that letter, I do not condemn the whole letter, I'll just make corrections where the mistake are made. likewise the kjv, I do not condemn the kjv as a whole, but I try to make sure that the verse I'm quoting is as accurate as possible. If i feel a verse is wrongly or falsely translated, I state it and give reasons why!. Thank God we can all check the manuscripts and try to decipher which translation is correct when two bible translations give different sentences and meaning in the same verse.



haba!, you never stay in one place, always changing your beliefs, you just said how the Hebrew word for Lord was substituted for God's name by those who were afraid. you initially claimed the word " jehovah is a mispeling, now you accept it's a name used for God.



you are trying to change the issue again, we are not discussing about if Paul called God jehovah, we are talking about the true words that Paul used in 1 timothy 3: 16, Paul did not say "god was manifest in flesh, Paul did not use the Greek word " theos"!

solite3:
Proof that shows that Jesus is Jehovah God


Psalms 102:16 When the LORD [color=#000099]{Jehovah} shall build up Zion, he shall appear in his glory.
[/color] this verse is quite clear that Jehovah will appear after he has finished his work with Israel. This is a clear reference pointing to the divinity of Christ as God.


102:19 For he hath looked down from the height of his sanctuary; from heaven did the LORD behold the earth;


102:20 To hear the groaning of the prisoner; to loose those that are appointed to death; also see isaiah 61:1

Psalms 102:21 To declare the name of the LORD in Zion, and his praise in Jerusalem; note that Jehovah himself will proclaim the name of the LORD. Compare;

John 17:26 And I have declared unto them thy name, and will declare it: that the love wherewith thou hast loved me may be in them, and I in them.



John 1:18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.

God really appeared on this earth, look at what Jesus said to his disciples,



John 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?
14:10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.
14:11 Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake.


1 Timothy 3:16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.

Jozzy4:
Correct, now shut your mouth.

Jozzy4:
J


Kikikkkikkk, this shallow guy

@ bold , Jesus is just a man when on earth ?

Jozzy4:
Oga, dont change the topic ... He was asking that since it was God that manifest in FLESH as u argue, then what do u call the woman that give birth to God in flesh ? Why not accept he is the mother of God ?

dolphinheart:
(1.)Whenever you realise how wrong you are, instead of apologizing and listening to the truth, all you do is try and change the issue under discussion, you have shifted from "mispeling" to "it does not matter" in the twinkling of an eye, the moment you realised that they defended the use of "jehovah" in their bible.
The most interesting part is that you could not fault their defence, you could not even tell if their defence is true or false.
If truly their defence is true, then the use of the word "jehovah" is true, but if there defence is false, then they lied.
Whichever answer you give, it will not argue well for you, so to save yourself from the shameful position such defence has put you, you refuse to talk about, saying it does not matter.

well it does matter, it matters to faithful witnesses of jehovah in that time and now, if it does not matter, God would not have given it, his followers would not have used it.
[b]Isa 42:8 I am Jehovah. That is my name; I give my glory to no one else, Nor my praise to graven images.

The psalmist, a faithful servant of jehovah wanted people to know his name, it was recorded in the inspired word of God, showing that it meets God's approval
[b]King James Version
Ps 83:18 That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, art the most high over all the earth

God himself said he wanted his name known, but you say it does not matter, false doctrines has eaten deep into you.
[b]Ex 9:16But for this very reason I have kept you in existence: to show you my power and to have my name declared in all the earth.


Go and study the Hebrew and Greek words used, the word transliterated to jehovah is totally different from the word translated to Lord!

You yourself know that the Tetragrammaton has been substituted with LORD in some English bibles, the Tetragrammaton does not mean LORD. The Hebrew word used for God's name is totally different from the Hebrew word used for LORD!.


that small dose that the kjv used , is it right or wrong? answer, cus the kjv said it is right!
Secondly what is the Hebrew word that the kjv translated to Jehovah?



That fear was a plan from the devil, God himself told them his name and said he wants his name declared throughout the earth, his faithful servants wrote down his name hundreds of times in the scriptures. But when people like you came to the scene in times past, they decided it was not good to say that name again as numerous faithful servant had done in the time past, so they decided to hide it, altering the name and substituting the name with Lord when they saw it in the scriptures.
don't worry , jehovah words will be carried out, his name will be declared throughout all the earth no matter how you try to hide it using fear as an excuse!


Give an example , liar!

And yet they don't believe God is manifest in the flesh

dolphinheart:
When it comes to translation, one word is not as good as the other, if the wrong or different word is used, it will give a different meaning. The Greek word used by Paul means "he", it does not mean "God". There is a greek word for God and Paul did not use it in that verse.

If I asked that a letter I've written should be copied and the one who copied it make a mistake in one or two words or sentences in that letter, I do not condemn the whole letter, I'll just make corrections where the mistake are made. likewise the kjv, I do not condemn the kjv as a whole, but I try to make sure that the verse I'm quoting is as accurate as possible. If i feel a verse is wrongly or falsely translated, I state it and give reasons why!. Thank God we can all check the manuscripts and try to decipher which translation is correct when two bible translations give different sentences and meaning in the same verse.



haba!, you never stay in one place, always changing your beliefs, you just said how the Hebrew word for Lord was substituted for God's name by those who were afraid. you initially claimed the word " jehovah is a mispeling, now you accept it's a name used for God.



you are trying to change the issue again, we are not discussing about if Paul called God jehovah, we are talking about the true words that Paul used in 1 timothy 3: 16, Paul did not say "god was manifest in flesh, Paul did not use the Greek word " theos"!

Barristter07:
dont mind those 419's , if truly brocab believe the statement God was manifest in flesh . what stops him from accepting Mary as the mother of God ? Or is it not God that was manifest in the flesh that Mary gave birth to ?

Barristter07:
dont mind those 419's , if truly brocab believe the statement God was manifest in flesh . what stops him from accepting Mary as the mother of God ? Or is it not God that was manifest in the flesh that Mary gave birth to ?

dolphinheart:
LIES!, Paul never said " God was manifest in flesh", it was those who were desperately trying to alter what Paul said so as to find support for their false doctrines that made those changes to later manuscripts, they had been discovered and found to be false!.


It seems Paul now knows how to speak English abi?, brocab, go and study, go and check if the Greek word for God can be found in the oldest most reliable manuscripts , go and study how it was discovered that the word for "he" had been altered.

dolphinheart:
so the kjv is defending a mispelled word from the 17th century till this moment! wow!.

I said you will refuse to answer the questions when you reply, you proved me right once more, the spirit you claim to be in you cannot help you out when bible based questions are asked or when answering a question will only lead to exposure of your false teachings.

But of course you wouldn't know this information ..

dolphinheart:
Jesus did not say what was recorded in 1 timothy 3:16

BROCAB, PAUL NEVER WROTE "GOD WAS MANIFEST IN THE FLESH IN 1 TIMOTHY 3: 16, THAT STATEMENT IS A DISTORTION OF WHAT PAUL WROTE. STOP ALTERING PAULS STATEMENT BECAUSE OF YOUR BELIEFS.


brocab, both sentence where not given or written by the writer of that verse the writer only wrote one statement down, not two different statement. Go study the Greek texts and see what Paul wrote down.


I believe the truth as written in the scriptures , go check the strongs dictionary for the Greek word "thoes" and see it possible translations.