₦airaland Forum

malvisguy212:
this lead to another question.

When you say corrupted, it mean ,it is the original document but men corrupted it , in other word ,it is the Original word of God which you claimed Paul corrupted, thank God you even mention the name of the corruptor, now answer this:
Why will an ominipotent Allah not know in the future, Paul will corrupt his word YET ask muhammed to make confirmation from the same book which will be corrupted in the FUTURE ? If Paul should play such an important role in corrupting Allah word, why won't Allah give warning about Paul ? Don't you think anytime you say the bible is corrupted, you are trying to say Allah fail to guide his word (after he had VOW to protect them ) ?

@lexiconkabir
You don't have to rush and answer this question, take All you time and answer it, don't allow satan to manipulate you to war against the word of God. Thank you.

lexiconkabir:
)yes they are differences, paul told many lies, contradicting jesus, hence being part of those that corrupted the bible.

this lead to another question.

When you say corrupted, it mean ,it is the original document but men corrupted it , in other word ,it is the Original word of God which you claimed Paul corrupted, thank God you even mention the name of the corruptor, now answer this:
Why will an ominipotent Allah not know in the future, Paul will corrupt his word YET ask muhammed to make confirmation from the same book which will be corrupted in the FUTURE ? If Paul should play such an important role in corrupting Allah word, why won't Allah give warning about Paul ? Don't you think anytime you say the bible is corrupted, you are trying to say Allah fail to guide his word (after he had VOW to protect them ) ?

lexiconkabir:
@scholar8200, (1)this laws(torah) are still practiced by the muslims, unlike what you told me on some certain thread that jesus came to abrograte the law or the law was already broken(so-to-speak), this implies christians practice lawlessness. actually the main objective of the torah and injeel is the preaching of the oneness of God(not three in one), this is what we muslims are ask to follow............(2)yes they are differences, paul told many lies, contradicting jesus, hence being part of those that corrupted the bible.

the quran say the injeel and torah are book

malvisguy212:
why do you muslims chose to lie like this? Do you know more than Allah or muhammed ? Allah say he gave Jesus a book and you are saying NO it is not a book.
Quran 16:44
[We sent them] with clear proofs and
WRITTEN......
What does the above quranic verse indicate? The scripture are in WRITTEN material before the coming of muhammed .
Quran 4:54
Or do they envy mankind for what Allah
hath given them of his bounty? but We
had already given the people of
Abraham the BOOK AND WISDOM , and
conferred upon them a great kingdom.
Quran 4:163
….and to David We gave the Psalms
Quran 5:46
And in their footsteps We sent Jesus the
son of Mary, confirming the Law that had come before him: We sent him the
Gospel: therein was guidance and light,
and confirmation of the Law that had
come before him: a guidance and an
admonition to those who fear Allah.
And this verse say the gospel that was given to Jesus is a. Book:
Quran 19:30
He [Jesus] said, "Lo, I am God's
servant; God has given me the BOOK,
and made me a Prophet."
Were is this book given to Abraham,Moses , David and Jesus ?

attempt this question and see were you will land yourself.

adewalker:
. I wasn't defending anything,becos u clearly didn't attack me with anything worth defending

okay

adewalker:
. Seems u didn't bother reading my post,that's y u styl asking this questions,I already told u moses came with a message called the torah,david came with a message called the psalms,jesus came with the message called injeel,I was jst trying to correct u,becos no prophet came with anytyn called the bible,the bible word was gotten for greek word called biblos.moses message was lost wen he broke the tablet,meaning all dt was left were the words he spoke to the jews,In my earlier post I told u,this jews after moses died,started changing it to please their new religion...judaism,moses never preached judaism,if u should wake moses up today and ask him,o moses wats was ur religion he wouldn't say judaism,rather he will say my religion is the one in which I submit my self to God's will...one word for that in arabic is islam...when jesus was alive also,wen he was preaching to the multitude,was he carryiing a book to read from?of course not,it was his sayings...those sayings is what is called the injeel,and if u were to check the bible the words of jesus in it...are so small it can't fill the a page of a newspaper,the bulk of the new testament are the words of a self appointed prophet,a man called paul,who never even met jesus,paul brot out christianity after jesus died,jst like the jews brot judaism afta moses,if jesus was to be alive today and we ask him,o jesus wats ur religion he won't say christianity cos he never even heard the word rather he will say my religion is the one in which I surrender myself to God's will,for example wen he ws being pursued he cried unto God,God let this pass by me,but let their will be done,in the prayer also he said our father who hath in heaven....let their will be done on earth as its in heaven...so u see from here jesus religion is the religion in which he surrender hiimself to God will...one literal word for that in arabic is islam...and the person that surrenders himself or herself is called a muslim.... Mohammad didn't say jesus was nt the son of God,but I am the son of God,mohammad didn't say don't worship jesus,worship me,he only came to deliver the message God sent him,by reminding man that he should serve God directly,by not associating partners with,becos this is blasphemy,and we both agree God never forgives that

why do you muslims chose to lie like this? Do you know more than Allah or muhammed ? Allah say he gave Jesus a book and you are saying NO it is not a book.
Quran 16:44
[We sent them] with clear proofs and
WRITTEN......

What does the above quranic verse indicate? The scripture are in WRITTEN material before the coming of muhammed .
Quran 4:54
Or do they envy mankind for what Allah
hath given them of his bounty? but We
had already given the people of
Abraham the BOOK AND WISDOM , and
conferred upon them a great kingdom.

Quran 4:163
….and to David We gave the Psalms

Quran 5:46
And in their footsteps We sent Jesus the
son of Mary, confirming the Law that had come before him: We sent him the
Gospel: therein was guidance and light,
and confirmation of the Law that had
come before him: a guidance and an
admonition to those who fear Allah.

And this verse say the gospel that was given to Jesus is a. Book:

Quran 19:30
He [Jesus] said, "Lo, I am God's
servant; God has given me the BOOK,
and made me a Prophet."

Were is this book given to Abraham,Moses , David and Jesus ?

truthman2012:
The quran is a bundle of LIES woven together.

Allah said the Jews and Christians corrupted their Scriptures yet he told Muhammad to tell them to be making use of them. CONTRADICTIONS.

ALLAH SAID TORAH WAS TO BE USED AT MUHAMMAD'S TIME: How come they come unto the (i.e Muhammad) for judgment when they have the Torah, wherein Allah hath delivered judgment (for them)? Yet even after that they turn away. Such (folk) are not believers (Quran 5:43).

ALLAH SAID GOSPEL WAS TO BE USED AT MUHAMMAD'S TIME: Let the People of the Gospel judge by that which Allah hath revealed therein. Whoso judgeth not by that
which Allah hath revealed: such are evil-doers (Quran 5:47).

At what time were they corrupted?

thank you sir, I almost mistook you for the fake truthman, welcome.

adewalker:
. The quran never at any time mentioned the bible,no prophet was given anything called bible,u christian brought the word bible from greek word biblos meaning book,then u add holy,so the word bible is a man concorted term,have explained to u dt God gave moses a revelation called torah,meaning law in hebrew,prophet david was given the psalms,prophet jesus was given the injeel,the christians add this all up in a book,and call it the bible,but u find in the bible that moses didn't write the chapters of numbers,levitucs,exodus,but u find in the bible that this chapters weren't written by God or moses,cos u will always find"and God said unto moses,and moses said unto God"this is simply telling us dt neither moses or God wrote the book,if it were from God or moses,it will have been "I said unto moses,or I said unto God"but u don't find this there,meaning this were words of another person,probably an historian or eyewitness account,its not the word of God,the message of moses we believe were the preaching of moses...which was worship"hear o isreal ur God our lord is one"deut 6vs 4-9,u can see the emphasis on one there,one in hebrew language is echad,in arabic ahad,that message is islam...belive in the one God...thousands of years later some pharises comes to jesus while preaching the gospel,pharises means the learned men of religion,so the ask jesus what is the first commandment of all,if u were to ask christians today their first commandment they will tell u...God in three forms,the father,the son,the holy spirit...but the answer jesus gave was amazing he said"hear o isreal ur God our lord is one"mark 12;29 its amazing jesus repeating the exact words of moses thousands of years ago...this is jesus confirming the message of moses,telling all the prophets have one message the believe in one God...islam....so 600 years latter in medina a group of christian missionaries came to question the prophet mohammad,so the ask him what is his view about God,so the prophet started praying to God for what to say,so God commands to say"qul huwa allahu ahad,allahu sama,lam yalid wa lam yalad, wa lam yaalid lahu kufuwan ahad"meaning"say is he the one and only,allah the eternal,absolute,he neither beget nor was he begotten and there is none like unto him"quran 112,its amazing moses said echad meaning God is one,jesus said echad God is one,mohammad said ahad,God is one...they all saying the same thing God is one...but the christians says no,God is three in one...so this prophets never said that,its ur preacher that are saying that...but to sell it they needed to put in the bible,so the put it in the book of john so they use to brainwash people,but moses never said so,jesus never said so,abraham never said,God never said so...so the put in there and sell it for u innocent victims,so my brother the quran came to confirm the message of the scripture telling us God is one...

English dictionary's defined scripture as bible, your defence is weak. Okay, where is the book Allah referred muhammed to ? Allah continuous making reference to this book indicate how holy this book is, allah will not referee muhammed to a none existence book. Where is the book?

adewalker:
. And where in egypt saudi arabia,pakistan e.t.c do they kill and rape women,have u ever heard christians say they are being killed in those country,pls let's talk with knowledge,this is a forum,and u are meant to come here with facts not lies or to get quick minutes fame,pls try come up with something worth presenting in public,that u can stand on.

trash. Weak defence.

Scholar8200:
And according to the Bible what was God's instruction to Moses after the Two tablets were broken and the golden calf dealt with?

very good question. Welcome bro.

menesheh:
nope, cos they all are under the same umbrella and are intertwined mythical ideology.

so why are you stressing your self if its a myth? Don't you have anything to do ?

menesheh:
Am happy you're attacking the delusion of Muslim but don't forget that the battle between two evils can never turn to good. In the process of attacking muslim faith, remember the silly notion that your god was born of a common woman

I see, my post in the other thread may have disturb you hence you chose to attack the two religion.

Have you not learn to established some boundary?

mustymatic:
Brother may Allah bless you...Malvisguy212 will still not get it no matter what.

read the topic again, and read his post (including yours) both of you guys are talking about prophetic race why the op is about the claimed of the corrupted scripture.

lexiconkabir:
@malvisguy212, you just nailed yourself, that site you copied and pasted from said "it was present in the manuscript but was removed from many greek manuscript because of the problem it seemed to cause" why should they remove the word of God from the bible? do they know more than God? thanks bro for exposing yourself

read through the link, your question is in there.

Annunaki:
Islam : The scourge of the earth. May God punish allah for cursing the earth with his vile religion.

thank you very much. The devil is a liar.

lexiconkabir:
malvisguy212, lol, so because he thinks it was not inserted due to his being that it does not contradict other verses of the bible means he refuted it? what is the meaning of refuting in the first place, disproving a claim with valid a proof, moreover why are you trying to hide under his broken umbrella? i wasnt even telling you about 1john5:7 and i'm convinced that you know this. i gave that link to show you the refutal of your claims. i will keep saying it, put the last bible verse i quoted into consideration, a serious one at that.

I just reply you. Now reply my thread.

lexiconkabir:
[b]The only verses in the whole Bible that explicitly ties God, Jesus, and the Holy Spirit in one "Triune" being is the verse of 1 John 5:7 "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." This is the type of clear, decisive, and to the-point verse I have been asking for. However, as I would later find out, this verse is now universally recognized as being a later "insertion" of the Church and all recent versions of the Bible, such as the Revised Standard Version the New Revised Standard Version, the New American Standard Bible, the New English Bible, the Phillips Modern English Bible ...etc. have all unceremoniously expunged this verse from their pages. Why is this? The scripture translator Benjamin Wilson gives the following explanation for this action in his "Emphatic Diaglott." Mr. Wilson says: "This text concerning the heavenly witness is not contained in any Greek manuscript which was written earlier than the fifteen century[/b]. TBC

Question: Is it true that 1 John 5:7 is not
in any Greek manuscript before the
1600s? If it is true, why is it in the King
James Bible?
Answer: 1 John 5:7 belongs in the King
James Bible and was preserved by
faithful Christians. But the passage was
removed from many Greek manuscripts,
because of the problems it seemed to
cause.
It is true that there is a small number of
Scriptures that are not the same between
the King James Bible and the so-called
"Majority" Greek text. There are a
number of reasons for this:
1. The so-called "Majority" text was not
really based on the majority of texts,
but rather a relatively small number
of manuscripts. The last person to
try to find the differences between
the majority of Greek manuscripts,
Dr. Von Soden, did not collate more
than 400 of the more than 5,000
Greek texts. In other words, what is
commonly called the "Majority"
Greek text is not a collation of the
majority of manuscripts at all.
2. The "Majority" Greek text is also the
main Greek text used by the Eastern
Orthodox religion. They had a vested
interest in changing (or deleting)
some texts. More on this in a
moment.
3. 1 John itself is not in a large number
of extant Greek manuscripts.
So why then is 1 John 5:7 in the King
James Bible, but not in many of the
existing Greek manuscripts? To
understand the answer, we must look at
the history of what happened shortly
after the Bible was written.
Read more here :
https://www.chick.com/ask/articles/1john57.asp

lexiconkabir:
which claim did he refute 1john5:7? he himself knew that his answers were not convincing, well i wasnt talking about that, and i'm sure you know this but you are looking for an escape route, i was talking about your claims about the injeel and torah. once again i strongly recommend you put the last verse i quoted from the bible into serious reasoning peace be upon you.

this is what he say:

As long as the 1 John 5:7 does not
contradict the revelation in other parts of
Scripture as regards to God, I believe it
was not inserted but was a part of the
chapter! Besides what was there did not
contradict Christ's words in John 17:21,
Revelations etc
As regards Matthew, that style of writing
was also used by Samuel (writer of large
portion of 1 Samuel), Moses (especially in
the Pentateuch) etc
Since muslims say they believe all the
other prophets then were Isaiah, Daniel,
David, Zechariah, Jeremiah etc lying
when they prophesied of the death of
Jesus Christ? Or was Jesus saying
something contradicting these prophets
when He said:
Luke 18:31-33
Then He took the twelve aside and said
to them, “Behold, we are going up to
Jerusalem, and all things that are written
by the prophets concerning the Son of
Man will be accomplished.
32 For He will be delivered to the
Gentiles and will be mocked and insulted
and spit upon.
33 They will scourge Him and kill Him.
And the third day He will rise again.”

In the United States,and the west, freedom of religion is a constitutionally guaranteed right provided in religion clauses of the First Amendment.
Freedom of religion is also closely associated with separation of church and state, a concept advocated by Thomas Jefferson.

The amendment prohibits the making of
any law respecting an establishment of religion, impeding the free exercise of religion.

LET US SEE WHAT FREEDOM OF RELIGION MEANS TO ISLAM:
To Muslims, freedom of religion means
practicing Islam only. This means, Muslims are obligated by the Quran (2:193, 8:39 etc.) to destroy all other religions – Christianity,Judaism, Mormonism, Hinduism and others – by
whatever means necessary for establishing Islam as the only religion in the whole world.

Freedom of religion in the Western democratic world is aimed at protecting the rights and dignity of different religious communities, so that they can practice their respective religious rites and rituals without fear and interference.

However, religious freedom to Muslims that is, allowing them to practice what they are obligated to by the holy book – means allowing them the right to establishment Islam as the state religion, murdering and subjugating
infidels (9:5, 9:29), murdering apostates,
dhimmitude for Christians and Jews, enslaving and raping of kafir women and children, subjugation and repression of Muslim women, extermination of unbelievers, killing the critics/ blasphemers of Islam, and most of all, for America and all other democratic countries , destroying her constitution with its imbedded freedom and democracy, and replacing it with
Sharia Law. These are all demanded of Muslims by their sacred texts, namely the Quran and Ahadith (Sunnah). We can see all or most of these happening in Islamic heavens like Pakistan, Afghanistan, Eqyot, Somalia, Saudi
Arabia, Iran and even Turkey and all other Islamic countries.

As per the Quran and Sunnah, following are Muslims’ religious obligations, therefore, their religious right, and America must allow them act accordingly as per their constitutional right to freedom of religion as Romney has promised:

God has granted Muslim men the divine right to unleash jihad – the Islamic holy war to conquer all kafir nations and force them to submit to Islam. There are 164 Quranic teachings of
Jihad. (Quran 29.6, 29.53, 22.52)

God has granted Muslim men the divine right marry and have sex with to pre-Pubescent children, which is deemed abhorrent rape of minors or pedophilia (65:4)
God has granted Muslim men the divine right to polygamy (4.3)
God has granted Muslim men the divine right to gang rape infidel women (24:13)
God has granted Muslim men the divine right to sex slavery (4:24)
God has granted Muslim men the divine right to torturing non-Muslims (22.19-22)
God has granted Muslim men the divine right to whipping fornicators (24.2)
God has granted Muslim men right to
amputation and crucifixion (5:33)

Under Sharia Law, there is no freedom of religion, speech, thought, press and artistic expression; no equality of peoples – a non-Muslim, a Kafir, is never equal to a Muslim;no equal rights for women;women can be beaten by the husbands; non-Muslims are dhimmis,
third-class citizens; there is no equal protection under Sharia for different classes of people with one set of laws for Muslim males and different laws for women and non-Muslims. Death is the
punishment for apostasy, homosexuality, mocking anything in the Qur'an or the Sunnah of the prophet Muhammad, criticizing Islam, shari'ah law or the Sunnah of the prophet
Muhammad. Muslims, who states a preference for democracy to shari'ah law or questions anything in the Qur'an or Sunnah, is a kafir (disbeliever) and apostate, liable to punishment to death. Punishment for theft is amputation of
the right hand up to the elbow. The penalty for premarital sexual intercourse is 100 lashes with a whip and one year of exile. The penalty for
adultery is death by stoning.

lexiconkabir:
get your refutal malvisguy212 at the link below and think about the last bible verse i quoted there carefully www.nairaland.com/2533659/lie-1john-5-7-corruption/2#37106550

scholar has already refute your claimed.

lexiconkabir:
@malvisguy212, injeel is the gospel of jesus, when i say gospel, i mean the statements jesus himself made through the inspiration from God, not what they(paul, luke, peter, john, etc) said about him, and the main mission was to preach the oneness of God, and thats what we(muslims) are asked to follow. the torah is the law of moses which they said about him(jesus) that he abrogated it, whereas he said if you want to be saved keep the law of moses, and what was the main objective of law of moses? the oneness of God, and thats what we follow. jesus never made mention of dying on the cross for your salvation but you should keep the law of moses. Jesus said "many will come to me on that day saying lord lord, did we not prophesied in your name, in your name we did mighty works, cast out demons, and i will say to them get away from me, i dont know you, you that practiced LAWLESSNESS", who calls jesus lord lord? The christians, you practice lawlessness, you delude yourselves with "the grace" and shy away from laws.

where is the injeel ? Bring it if you are truthful.
https://www.nairaland.com/2535883/allegedly-corrupted-scripture-questions-muslims#37109554

menesheh:

I will remain silent as you said but have injected reasoning impulses to whoever will read your junk post by being the first to comment, thus impeded your pernicious bigot.

yes, there is a link between atheists and muslims, hardly you see an atheist attack a muslims even when islam is a plagued to this world, you still see an atheist form unity with them.
Keep on working for the demon .

adewalker:
. U are throwing stones in all my direction, I don't even know which to attend to,I jst answered ur questions above,allah say a book confirming what is in their hands,that is confirming the message of the prophet of old,their message was simple,worship one God,so the quran was confirming,u see in the time of the mohammad there was a major sickness then,the jews and the christians in medina where @ each other throat,becos of jesus,so the quran confirms jesus,moses and other prophets,.the torah was the sharia of the jews,bt affter moses,they started adhering to some part,while ignoring other part,for example in the torah clearly states don't steal or lie,but the jews felt its nt a sin if do any of this against the gentiles...gentiles are non jewish,that is the rest of the world...so the quran is referring him them to follow the law with them to latter...the quran was written in the lifetime of the prophet,may allah blessing be upon him,under his strict supervision,so anytime he recites a new revelation to them,they write he down,then he tells them to recite wat the've written,that's hw the quran was compiled,u can styl see the sample today in the museum at instabul,no even a change in one word,so if am reading the quran in naija,and another person is reading the quran in denmark,we are styl reading the exact same revelation revealed to the prophet 1400 years ago...

you are trying to twist it here, the quran say .Let’s review the evidence of what the QURAN says about Jesus and the Bible:

The QURAN says the BIBLE IS GOD'S
PREVIOUS WORD TO MAN meaning contrary to your claimed,the bible is unchanged during the time of muhammed because God cannot ask you to search for guidance from a corrupted scripture:
Surah 2:136
Say, [O believers], "We have believed in
Allah and what has been revealed to us
and what has been revealed to
Abraham and Ishmael and Isaac and
Jacob and the Descendants and what
was given to Moses and Jesus and
what was given to the prophets from
their Lord . We make no distinction
between any of them, and we are
Muslims [in submission] to Him."
Surah4:163
"Indeed, We have revealed to you, [O
Muhammad], as We revealed to Noah
and the prophets after him. And we
revealed to Abraham, Ishmael, Isaac,
Jacob, the Descendants, Jesus, Job,
Jonah, Aaron, and Solomon, and to
David We gave the book [of Psalms]

And the Quran also says that NO ONE
CAN CHANGE GOD'S WORD (Sura 6:115;

"And the word of your Lord has been
fulfilled in truth and in justice. NONE CAN ALTER HIS WORDS, and He is the Hearing,
the Knowing."

Every sane man will know what's this all about, an ominipotent Allah will not direct you to a corrupted book OR reffere you to a book that cannot be found. But if you guys insist the bible is corrupted, when did this happened ? Before muhammed had die or After ?

menesheh:
If you want to know the absurdities in muslem religion, you ask a Christian; if you want to do same to Christianity, you ask jew; same to Judaism consult a muslem. dabbling ducks.


Confused bunches of irrationalities and divine holy crap.

thank you for your contribution. Remain silent.

[quote author=adewalker post=37105119][/quote]I admire your effort in defending your religion, but I would say this, you have say nothing here, this is off topic. do you want to talk about the sonship of Jesus or the death of Jesus ? What is your points here ?

adewalker:
. Will answer 3 of ur questions,becos in the rest all I see is repeating same questns with different words...1the muslims is made to believe in all the prophets and their messages...now the torah was given to prophet musa,the torah literally means law in hebrew,but u see according to ur bible,when moses came down he angrily broke into shreds,so meaning the original words from God in writing was lost,meaning all that was left are the preachings of moses,and the easiest infomation to twist is the oral,so afta moses died,the jews started compiling the words of moses to form the torah,to suit their religion which moses never even heard of...judaism,the most racist religion on earth...for the injeel,islam is the only religion on surface earth dt makes it an article of faith for its followers to believe in jesus,u are nt a muslim if u don't,u see wen jesus was alive he didn't go preaching with a book,wat he had was his words,the message he came with was called injeel,gospel,and if am to take jesus words in ur bible its not up to 2 pages of a newspaper,so we are made to believe in the message of jesus,the bulk of ur new testament are just stament from paul,and historian...we believe in the gospel of jesus not paul,not mark,not mattew

you muslims are one of the most bias and deluded seth of people ( sorry) where you there when the Jews throw out the original scripture ? Where is your prove ?
Quran 7:157
Those who follow the Messenger
(Mohammed), the Prophet who can
neither read nor write, whom they
will find described in the Torah and
the Gospel (which are) with them
Quran2:89
And when there cometh unto them
(Jews) a Scripture (the Qur'an) from
Allah, confirming that in their
possession

If what you wrote is true, why will Allah ask muhammed to make confirmation from a corrupted book which the Jews twist ? Did Allah not known that the Jews had corrupted the torah before asking muhammed to STILL make confirmation
In it ? Infacte
This verse exposed your lies:
Quran 5:43
How come they (come) unto thee
(Muhammad) for judgment when
they have the TORAH, wherein Allah
hath delivered JUDGMENT (FOR THEM)?

The interval between Jesus and
Muhammad was about 650 years. If the torah is corrupted as you claimed, why will Allah encourage the Jews to judge by the torah given to them ?

All what you wrote can be say of the quran, when was the quran compiled ? Is it not after the death of muhammed ? How can you sure the scribe did not make mistake in the quran ?

Quran 16:44
[We sent them] with clear proofs and WRITTEN ordinances. And We revealed to you the message that you may make clear to the people what was sent down to them and that they might give thought.

I'm sure the muslims know the quran was not revealed in writing. Therefore the 'writings' above refers to the earlier
Scriptures. The written proved their MUST be copies going on circulation. okay!!!


I challenge ALL muslims to answer the
following questions, if properly
answered, you will discovered soo many
lies has been told against God word:
1. At what point did the people corrupted
the Torah and Injeel, was it BEFORE
islam, during Muhammad's time of
AFTER him?
2. If it was before islam, why would Allah
refer Muhammad to something that is
non-existent to make confirmation?
3. If it was after Muhamad had died, how
was he able to receive the revelation that
the Scripture (Torah and Injeel) has been
corrupted?
4. The quran confirms that the Scripture
was a clear proof in writings. This means
there were copies in circulation. How
possible all copies vanished without
anyone having a copy anywhere? You
should by now discover a lie is told.
5. Why would God be so weak as to allow
man throw away His words before He
would vow to protect the subsequent
revelations? Did He learn from
experience?
6. Why will God ask muhammed to make
confirmation of the corrupted scripture
(injeel and torah) ?

lexiconkabir:
you keep saying the same thing when it is crystal clear that the bible is corrupted by men, guidance of the holyspirit(that is what they use in deluding themselves)? when paul himself at some point said he is not sure if has the spirit in him, yet he claims that the scripture is God's breathed.

I challenge ALL muslims to answer the following questions, if properly answered, you will discovered soo many lies has been told against God word:

1. At what point did the people corrupted the Torah and Injeel, was it BEFORE islam, during Muhammad's time of AFTER him?
2. If it was before islam, why would Allah refer Muhammad to something that is non-existent to make confirmation?
3. If it was after Muhamad had died, how was he able to receive the revelation that the Scripture (Torah and Injeel) has been corrupted?
4. The quran confirms that the Scripture
was a clear proof in writings. This means
there were copies in circulation. How
possible all copies vanished without
anyone having a copy anywhere? You
should by now discover a lie is told.
5. Why would God be so weak as to allow man throw away His words before He would vow to protect the subsequent
revelations? Did He learn from
experience?
6. Why will God ask muhammed to make confirmation of the corrupted scripture(injeel and torah) ?

The night journey is not a believeable story, is a pure lie.
"Exalted is He who took His Servant by night from al-Masjid al-Haram to al- Masjid al-Aqsa, whose surroundings We have blessed, to show him of Our signs. Indeed, He is the Hearing, the Seeing." - Quran 17:1
The Muslim army conquered Jerusalem in 637 AD and the al-Aqsa mosque was completed in 705 AD. The problem with the above passage in the Quran is that Muhammad died in 632 AD, which was 5years before the Muslim army reached Jerusalem and 73 years before the al- Aqsa mosque was built.

truthman2013:
But you initially claimed that all prophets are descendant of Isaac, how come Balaam was a gentile?



And I ask, why would God spirit descend on a soothsayer despite Yahweh warning again soothsayer Leviticus 19:31



…Citation needed please.



Yahweh lied then in Isaiah 48:11 ....and I will not
share my glory with anyone.




Read up on the miracle of Al-Isra & Al- Miraj.

..truthman

okay, listen.

Balaam was a soothsayer, a soothsayer is also known as a prophet, God never called him his prophet but the reason the bible called him prophet is because a soothsayer is also known as a prophet, do you think a dumb donkey can see an angel but God prophet cannot see it ?

Yes, he here from God and God gave him true prophecy,the reason is because God love him:

Deutoronumy23:5 Nevertheless the LORD thy God would not hearken unto Balaam; but the LORD thy God turned the curse into a blessing unto thee, because the LORD thy God LOVED thee.

The reason why balaam here from God is because balaam was about to curse the children of isreal but because God loved him instead of killing him , he change his mind. Here what balaam say in number:
Number 22:38 And Balaam said unto Balak, Lo, I am come unto thee: have I now any power at all to say any thing? the word that God putteth in my mouth, that shall I speak.

God put his word on his mouth so He would not curse isreal.

Read matthew 17 here:
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew%2017

Jesus is God which dwell in human form, the context of isaiah 48 was referring to man, offcorse God is not a man that he should lie, and God cannot shere His glory with human, but Jesus is a supreme being who existed before the world began.

Muhammed night journey was even considered a miracle? I guess if satan revealed himself to you, you will call it a miracle.

Listen! Al-Isra & Al- Miraj is a vision, compear to the transfiguration where the 3 disciples Here God speak, it is not a vision, the 3 disciples bear witness of this event, but the night journey was a vision which NO one bear witness of this event, further more, my question does not say vision, I say direct communication with Allah, did muhammed had this ?

Annunaki:
How can any right thinking person describe such a pathetic and terribly written piece of literature which contains so many glaring errors and contradictions that also inspires hatred and evil a miracle You really need to get your head examined

see bro, how can a sane human call a book 'miracle'? The Jews whom God chose as a blessing to the world never called there book a miracle. It is important to distinguish between miracles of the almighty living God and accomplishments of natural human
talents. The achievements of human
talents and special abilities are not
miracles. Some persons may be gifted
physically, they have strong large bodies. Others may have strong
photographic memories. Some are gifted in the area of languages. They have the natural ability to learn many languages, including unwritten dialects, quickly and retain them. Some are gifted in speech.

They talk very well and make captivating speeches. Others may be
gifted writers and poets. They author
excellent prose and poetry. It is important to stress the fact that language fluency, authoring and
speech abilities are human talents.
They are not miracles of the living
God. These gifted persons are not
prophets of God.

Therefore, it is inappropriate to call any
book a miracle because of its eloquent
language. Great works of gifted authors
and poets could not be called miracles.
For instance, we cannot call the Eliad and the Odyssey, the great works of the
illiterate blind Greek poet Homer of the
eighth century B.C., miracles. Neither can we call the plays of William Shakespeare, the great English writer of the sixteenth century A.D., miracles. By the same token, we could not consider the Qur’an a miracle, even if it were a
great literary work, which it is not. The
following analysis shows why the Qur’an
is not a great literary work.

truthman2013:
Okay.
truthman..

counterfeit truthman.

truthman2013:
Good that you are no longer denying his prophethood. Now, the question is: Was he a Jewish Prophet? or perhaps a descendant of Isaac?



Yes, you did.



You just contradicted yourself. You asked up there that miracle is not by human effort, only for you to come here and ask me whether he performed any miracle. He didnt performe any miracle, rather God performed miracle through him.



The Quran itself is the greatest of all miracle.

truthman..

yes, he was a gentile. I was only trying to explained to you what the Jews reffere soothsayer as a prophet.

The transfeguration the baptism of Jesus and the encounter between Moses elijah and enoch record Jesus encounter with the father, infacte the bible say Jesus exist before the world began and He shere the glory together with God.

Muhammed did not here directly from allah, if he does you should provide evidence, infacte who are the witnesses of his alleged calling ?