Welcome, Guest: Register On Nairaland / LOGIN! / Trending / Recent / NewStats: 3,195,107 members, 7,957,141 topics. Date: Tuesday, 24 September 2024 at 07:53 AM |
Nairaland Forum / Nairaland / General / Religion / What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? (21829 Views)
What Did Jesus Mean By "The Poor Will Always Be Among You"? / Daddy Freeze: "Pastor Said I Will Die In 24 Months Over Tithe, Free The Sheeple" / What Does The Name Jesus Mean To You? (2) (3) (4)
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (Reply) (Go Down)
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by tohact(m): 12:01pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
A special prayer for solution f you believe that Jesus is your God... say as I am saying..... oh God let there be end to me and my opponent, for thou to hasten the judgement between the both of us. |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by walexsho(m): 12:03pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
Emusan: Moses is the word of God because he spoke directly with God and hearing God's voice while Jesus was said to be spirit because the mother had his pregnancy based on the Commanded word 'BE' without contact with opposite sex which is exhibited in some creatures as well. They are Just Alias which was given to them. 1 Like |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by Nobody: 12:04pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
The reason is simple..now say "I Am" say this 50,000 years to come it will still mean the same. Now in summary "I Am"(God) is the same yesterday, today and forever. |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by Splinz(m): 12:11pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
chacoonder:The same bible you can't even understand glaring verses like JOHN 1:1 & 14? Hmm. I know one thing about ignoramuses- pride! 2 Likes 1 Share |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by pressplay411(m): 12:14pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
Rilwayne001: My observation Did the disciples have a designated writer documenting and quoting every word Jesus said during his travails? Or some writers later decided what they wanted us to believe? |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by rhektor(m): 12:16pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
jossytech: You just shot yourself in the foot with that quote, why have you decided to expose your ignorance this way? Let me help you a little You should have read the verse you quoted above in the context of the chapter After resurrection? oh my! Read Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God: verse 6. I think with this you get me right if not please quote me again let's do more expatiation |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by Atilah: 12:22pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
Brigham: It's not it only takes a man of the spirit to understand the things of the spirit |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by Omooba77: 12:24pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
OLAADEGBU: Yea he is God himself in human form |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by walexsho(m): 12:34pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
Bible says that God is not man
‘God is not a man’ (Numbers 23:19)
‘For I am God, and not man’ (Hosea 11:9)
Jesus is called a man many times in the Bible
‘a man who has told you the truth’ (John 8:40)
‘Jesus the Nazarene, a man attested to you by God with miracles and
wonders and signs which God performed through Him in your midst, just
as you yourselves know.’ (Acts 2:22)
‘He will judge the world in righteousness through a man whom He has
appointed’ (Acts 17:31)
‘the man Christ Jesus’ (Tim. 2:5)
The Bible says that God is not a son of man
‘God is not a man nor a son of man’ (Numbers 23:19)
The Bible often calls Jesus ‘a son of man’ or ‘the son of man.’
‘so will the son of man be’ (Matthew 12:40)
‘For the son of man is going to come’ (Matthew 16:27)
‘until they see the son of man coming in His kingdom.’ (Matthew 28)
‘But so that you may know that the Son of Man has authority’ (Mark 2:10)
‘because he is the son of man’ (John 5:27)
In the Hebrew scriptures, the ‘son of man’ is also used many times
speaking of people (Job 25:6; Psalm 80:17; 144:3; Ezekiel 2:1; 2:3; 2:6-8;
3:1-3).
Since God would not contradict Himself by first saying He is not the son
of a man, then becoming a human being who was called ‘the son of man’,
he would not have done so. Remember God is not the author of
confusion. Also, human beings, including Jesus, are called ‘son of man’
specifically to distinguish them from God, who is not a ‘son of man’
according to the Bible.
The Bible says that Jesus denied he is God
Jesus spoke to a man who had called him ‘good,’ asking him, ‘Why do
you call me good? No one is good except God alone.’ (Luke 18:19) The Bible says that God is greater than Jesus ‘My Father is greater than I’ (John 14:28) ‘My father is greater than all.’ (John 10:29) Jesus can not be God if God is greater than him. The Christian belief that the Father and son are equal is in direct contrast to the clear words from Jesus. Jesus never instructed his disciples to worship him ‘When you pray, say Our Father which art in heaven.’ (Luke 11:2) ‘In that day, you shall ask me nothing. Whatsoever you ask of the Father in my name.’ (John 16:23) ‘The hour cometh and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth; for the Father seeketh such to worship him.’ (John 4:23) If Jesus was God, he would have sought worship for himself Since he didn’t, instead he sought worship for God in the heavens, therefore, he was not God. |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by lookingfly: 12:35pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
Brigham:y don't you ask God to give you understanding if you really believe in a God. |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by lookingfly: 12:47pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
tintingz:is it by force to believe Jesus is God. Pls believe in whatever you call God whether wood or stone and allow us believe Jesus is God. Abi wetin concern you, pls don't drink panadol for our headache ko |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by tintingz(m): 12:57pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
CharlieMaria:If Jesus is equal with God then why was he calling God on the cross to save him? 3 Likes |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by tintingz(m): 1:00pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
iyke484real:God said "I AM that I AM" in that same verse context. But Jesus only said "I AM", I will advise you to read the whole John 8:12-59 with reasoning. You will see Jesus separating himself being God. 1 Like |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by orunto27: 1:01pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
I'm The Issue(Issve) on Earth and I'm Christ(Great God) in Heaven. Worship God(English); Islam(Arabic). |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by tintingz(m): 1:05pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
greatjoey:Stop being a bigot, we are talking about Jesus here and not Muhammad. 2 Likes |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by tintingz(m): 1:10pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
Omooba77:is God the spirit? 1 Like |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by tintingz(m): 1:12pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
lookingfly:It is NOT by force. But read your Bible and think. For you is your religion, and for me is my religion.(Quran 109:1-6) 2 Likes |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by murmee: 1:15pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
Hdz4luv:Muslims should open the Bible to John 19 verses 6,7 9, 10 and 11. Verse 7 specifically says "If you really knew me, you would know my father (God) as well. From now on, you do know him (God) and have seen him (God) Verse 10 says "Don't you believe that 'I Am' in the Father (God) and the Father (God) is in me? The words that I say to you are not just my own, rather, it is the Father (God) 'LIVING IN ME' who is doing his work". Muslims what more proof do you want? |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by CharlieMaria(m): 1:17pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
tintingz:Perhaps you didn't read where i mentioned Philipians 2vs6 that clearly stated that Jesus is equal to God, but humbled himself to take on human nature. When he called God to save him He was both giving us example and at the same showing his human side. JESUS HAS TWO NATURES DIVINE NATURE AND HUMAN NATURE. NON OF THOSE NATURES WERE LACKING WHEN HE WAS ON EARTH. |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by murmee: 1:22pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
bapullow:The dying on the cross is the very reason for his coming to the human world. That was His MISSION! |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by murmee: 1:26pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
ezenwajosh:Because Jesus knew that after completing his MISSION on earth, he will go back to that same HEAVEN to claim His rightful position and we will be praying to Him. Got it? |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by Omooba77: 1:27pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
tintingz:John 4:22-24 |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by whiteprince(m): 1:29pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
tintingz: Like seriously? Which planet were you dogged out from? You the bad muslims are making the qouran look bad when its not When Jesus was in the wilderness,it was the holy spirit that was with Him,the holy spirit prepared Him for the temptation in the wilderness Even when John was in the wilderness,it was the Holy spirit that was with him Please go get a brain and stop this nonsense |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by atoleybaba(m): 1:37pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
iyke484real:interesting write up I must say...I'd like us to take it one at a time. The Bible never records Jesus saying the precise words, “I am God.” That does not mean, however, that He did not proclaim that He is God. Take for example Jesus’ words in John 10:30, “I and the Father are one.” We need only to look at the Jews’ reaction to His statement to know He was claiming to be God. They tried to stone Him for this very reason: “You, a mere man, claim to be God” (John 10:33). The Jews understood exactly what Jesus was claiming—deity. When Jesus declared, “I and the Father are one,” He was saying that He and the Father are of one nature and essence. John 8:58 is another example. Jesus declared, “I tell you the truth … before Abraham was born, I am!” Jews who heard this statement responded by taking up stones to kill Him for blasphemy, as the Mosaic Law commanded (Leviticus 24:16). My answer:The Jews, we both know they are hypocrites.like av said dy know Jesus meant he and his father are of same essence in other word, they are united and had d same purpose. It means he was in accordance with God purpose. Tho d Jews leaders knew that was what he meant, they changed it that Jesus meant he was God.Jesus even gave an example in one of his sermon when he talked bawt a man who own a vineyard and was not around. He sent his servant each time to the vineyard and each time dy killed his servants. Then d man sent his son(take note of this) the man sent his son. Buh d stone was also killed. Then d man finally came himself....I think u should know the rest of the story. The point am trying to bring out was that Jesus sermon was talking bawt God(the man) and d prophets (servants that were killed) he has sent and Jesus(the man son) so tho they had same purpose they are not d same entity neither are dy equal. Jesus was created God was not. John reiterates the concept of Jesus’ deity: “The Word [Jesus] was God” and “the Word became flesh” (John 1:1, 14). These verses clearly indicate that Jesus is God in the flesh. Acts 20:28 tells us, “Be shepherds of the church of God, which he bought with his own blood.” Who bought the church with His own blood? Jesus Christ. And this same verse declares that God purchased His church with His own blood. Therefore, Jesus is God!..... My answer:first all lemme at this other bible rendition says "the blood of his own[son](NW,RO,TEV) what is causing d confusion in this verse? That word "own" judging with other Bible rendition apart from kj, I can easily say what DT kjv was trying to say is that God used his son. Like u are calling ur son ur blood cos u are related.....now if u said God pour his blood wouldnt it be contradicting john 3:16? And 1john 1:7? And also rev 1:4-6. ...If a passage can grammatically be translated in more than one way, what is the correct rendering? One that is in agreement with the rest of the Bible. If a person ignores other portions of the Bible and builds his belief around a favorite rendering of a particular verse, then what he believes really reflects, not the Word of God, but his own ideas and perhaps those of another imperfect human. John 1:1 RS reads: “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. He was in the beginning with God.” (KJ, Dy, JB, NAB use similar wording.) However, NW reads: “In the beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god. This one was in the beginning with God.” Which translation of agrees with the context? says: “No one has ever seen God.” clearly says that “the Word became flesh and dwelt among us . . . we have beheld his glory.” Also, say that in the beginning he was “with God.” Can one be with someone and at the same time be that person? At , Jesus addresses the Father as “the only true God”; so, Jesus as “a god” merely reflects his Father’s divine qualities.— . Is the rendering “a god” consistent with the rules of Greek grammar? Some reference books argue strongly that the Greek text must be translated, “The Word was God.” But not all agree. In his article “Qualitative Anarthrous Predicate Nouns. Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the one in , “with an anarthrous predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature of theos.” He suggests: “Perhaps the clause could be translated, ‘the Word had the same nature as God.’” ( Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87) Thus, in this text, the fact that the word the·osʹ in its second occurrence is without the definite article (ho ) and is placed before the verb in the sentence in Greek is significant. Interestingly, translators that insist on rendering , “The Word was God,” do not hesitate to use the indefinite article (a, an) in their rendering of other passages where a singular anarthrous predicate noun occurs before the verb. Thus at , JB and KJ both refer to Judas Iscariot as “a devil,” and at they describe Jesus as “a prophet.” John J. McKenzie, S.J., in his Dictionary of the Bible, says: “ should rigorously be translated ‘the word was with the God [= the Father], and the word was a divine being.’”—(Brackets are his. Published with nihil obstat and imprimatur.) (New York, 1965), p. 317. In harmony with the above, AT reads: “the Word was divine”; Mo, “the Logos was divine”; NTIV, “the word was a god.” In his German translation Ludwig Thimme expresses it in this way: “God of a sort the Word was.” Referring to the Word (who became Jesus Christ) as “a god” is consistent with the use of that term in the rest of the Scriptures. For example, at psalm 82:1-6 human judges in Israel were referred to as “gods” (Hebrew, ’elo·himʹ; Greek, the·oiʹ, at john 10:34 ) because they were representatives of Jehovah and were to speak his law. Revelation, an angel instructed the apostle John to only worship God (Revelation 19:10). Several times in Scripture Jesus receives worship (Matthew 2:11; 14:33; 28:9, 17; Luke 24:52; John 9:38). He never rebukes people for worshiping Him. If Jesus were not God, He would have told people to not worship Him, just as the angel in Revelation did. There are many other passages of Scripture that argue for Jesus’ deity. My answer:all the portions u quoted here self get comma....matt 14:33 d last part there said the people testified he is d son of God...that was y dy bowed for him. Cos they bowed to him doesn't make him God....Jesus himself use mouth talk am say there is someone greater than him. And most definitely me and u knows no one is greater than God or is there any? The most important reason that Jesus has to be God is that, if He is not God, His death would not have been sufficient to pay the penalty for the sins of the world (1 John 2:2). A created being, which Jesus would be if He were not God, could not pay the infinite penalty required for sin against an infinite God. Only God could pay such an infinite penalty. Only God could take on the sins of the world (2 Corinthians 5:21), die, and be resurrected, proving His victory over sin and death. My answer: aav u ever read the book of romans 5: q6-21 and. 1cor 15:21 that said thru one man sin came into d world.(we know the man. He was a perfect being) and so thru another perfect man jesus dre is ressurection ....all in all God canur die for our sin it is illogical.....why will God died or our sin and yet still look up and say it is finish a beg who he dy talk to? How will God die for us and still pray a night before his death telling God that if it is his will let d cup pass over him? Does it make sense? When he is God y ccant he just let d cup pass over him without asking "God" again thru prayer? If he is God why did he say we should pray thru him when praying to "God"?doesn't it sound confusing? All in all d verses of the Bible are connected try linking them and not quote one verse that best suit ur argument and ignore the one that is against it....u took my time u can best understand all what I typed thru one on one convo. Read this epistle with sound mind and unbiased mind an it will help u |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by atoleybaba(m): 1:41pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
whiteprince:all these u are saying does it make logical sense to u? Nothing like 3person in one God....God is one and his name is Jehovah his son is his first creation and his name is Jesus and the holy spirit is God active force users in accomplishing his work and strengthening his people and prophets.nwow this is a logical reasoning and the bible confirms this with vivid biblical examples |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by whiteprince(m): 1:42pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
tintingz: On the pentecost day,Jesus sent the Holy spirit to the disciples "they were filled with the Holy spirit" Whch ever angle u want to come from,its in the bible Before islam,christanity was Before quoran,Holy bible was Please stop promoting false image here,islam is good,my family lived amongst muslims and we re like one big family,we fight for each other,I and my siblings can even say ur prayers. Please stop this |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by atoleybaba(m): 1:43pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
murmee:and the explanation of the night before his death when he prayed that if it was God's will d cup should pass over him? 1 Like 1 Share |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by murmee: 1:45pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
CharlieMaria:You really don't expect Muslims to understand that do you? Because the only nature their Muhammad had was Satanic which is killing people and fornication. |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by atoleybaba(m): 1:50pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
CharlieMaria:that portion u quoted simply showed that Jesus didn't consider himself has God even tho he existed in God's form while in heaven....and what is God's form?a spirit creature....understood? Bible twister |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by atoleybaba(m): 1:51pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
murmee:cos they are in agreement....he meant he rep. His father....stop reading bible like illiterates |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by greatjoey: 1:56pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
tintingz: But according to you, Mohammed is also a prophet like you classify Jesus. Let's talk of Mohammed also. Is s there anything fishy about discussed ssing him? |
Re: What Did Jesus Mean When He Said 'I AM'? by whiteprince(m): 1:57pm On Oct 23, 2016 |
atoleybaba: I don't think u have a brain abt these... Why do we pray and say "in the name of the father and of the son and of the holy spirit Amen"? Anglican and catholic will teach you more |
(1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (Reply)
What Bible Says About The Rich And Powerful Building Doomsday Bunkers (Pics) / Four Powerful Reasons You Must Run From Premarital Sex On Valentine's Day / Recession Hits Churches As Incomes Dwindle - Trudigest.com
(Go Up)
Sections: politics (1) business autos (1) jobs (1) career education (1) romance computers phones travel sports fashion health religion celebs tv-movies music-radio literature webmasters programming techmarket Links: (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) (6) (7) (8) (9) (10) Nairaland - Copyright © 2005 - 2024 Oluwaseun Osewa. All rights reserved. See How To Advertise. 87 |