johnw74:


you muslims appear to have some in common with those who call themselves jehovah's witnesses
atheists who hate the truth get on well with them too

that says something, ....clueless could be that something

But all what I said is it truth or false?

DoctorAlien:
Dolphinheart, you said Jesus Christ is not omnipresent. How then is this possible?

"For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them." Matt. 18:20

respond to the explanation I gave you, expecially the scriptures I added , and then we will look at this one, you are trying to make it look as if the scriptures is contraditing itself, if you can't explain scriptures quoted to you.
Look at the verse you quoted and tell if jesus will not be in the midst of three people whodo not gather in his name? answer that and then re- examine your use of that scripture to mean jesus is everywhere!

johnw74:


you believer everything witchpower and your elders tell you
you ignore the verse I'm speaking of and the things I say, and do the twist because you have no answers

I did not ignore the verse you are talking about!
Jesus said, it is written, are you implying that Jesus quoted wrongly what is written?
If Jesus quoted from what is written, can you provide us with the real text of what is written and where it is written?

I provided you with where it is written, yet you will not accept it.
Secondly why did you not answer :
1. Ps 110:1Jehovah declared to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand Until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet.”
is the above translation correct or wrong?

so you don't believe Father is "supreme in authority-God"

I do believe , do you?, how did you come to know the father is supreme in authority God?
is the father's authority over that of jesus in heaven? Yes or no?

Matthew 22:44 did not say "theos" or did it?

Mat 22:44 The LORD (kurios) said unto my Lord (kurios), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

the word "kurios" that you put twice in bracket above cannot be found twice in the Greek text of that verse, plus show us the full Greek text of that verse where you found yours as twice written?

as you can see, well not you, but as Christians can see, both Father and Jesus are called "kurios", "supreme in authority-God"

as you can see, your explanation is based on assumptions ,not fact, cus I showed you the fact, but because it will affect your doctrine, you refuse to accept it.
1. you have now shifted the definition of kurios from Lord or master to "god" and now to " supreme in authority God". I've shown you the meaning of "kurios" by scholars, you are still sticking to your self made, no evidence given, false definition of the word "kurios".
2. you could not tell us how you came to know that the "kurios in that verse is referring to the father and the son, are there not people called Lord in the scriptures?

john also says Father and Jesus is "God"
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Many more verses showing that the Word-Jesus Christ is God, would you like me to post them again?

funny, you are using the verse that says "theos" to find meaning to the word that says " kurios". pls show us how you got the meaning of "kurios" to be "god". scholars says it means "lord" or "master" and the verse you quoted describe it as such!, no where in the scriptures is "theos" ever described as "kurios".

duh duh duh, unbelievable, then you are blind

would you like me to post all the verses where "kurios" is referring to Jesus?
He is also referred to as "theos" which also means God
here is a verse where Jesus is called both "kurios" and "theos":
Joh 20:28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord (kurios) and my God (theos).

i did not ask me to find the verse where "kurios"and "theos" are mentioned, i said : Prove me wrong, the two words translated to "lord" in the that verse is not "kurios", found only one "kurios" in that greek text!
question: how did you know that the father and son are called kurios?
another question is , how do you know who who when you fully capitalised one kurios when translation it and refuse to do so to the second one?

I do understand how you cannot tell the diffrence between Father and Son in the Bible

when translating the word "kurios", you capitalized one fully, but do not capitalize the same word fully when it appeared again!
how did you know one kurios is for the father, hence full capitalization when transLating.
kjv:- Mr 12:36For David himself said by the Holy Ghost, The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool.
please show where David made the above statement, it's in the scriptures!

johnw74:

when you have nothing, you repeat yourself, you do it often, ha
I still today like yesterday don't answer much of your confusion and of course like yesterday, today you still love to lie

fact : you are still refusing to answer the question

CANTICLES:


Lol it hurts you , but that's the plain truth ... To read all " things " , the " things "was supplied by the translators not John .

the truth hurts you that is why you cannot even try to prove me wrong no Jehovah witness on earth can, instead you either start jumping from one translation to another or you throw baseless accusations.see your confusion, which translation are you talking about? Your ignorance stinks. Do you think all translations were translated by the same people?
I quoted your translation which also has " All things" in it, yet you could not comment.

Look at yourself I guess the truth has hit you so hard that you cannot but try to throw baseless accusation.

dolphinheart:


respond to the explanation I gave you, expecially the scriptures I added , and then we will look at this one, you are trying to make it look as if the scriptures is contraditing itself, if you can't explain scriptures quoted to you.
Look at the verse you quoted and tell if jesus will not be in the midst of three people whodo not gather in his name? answer that and then re- examine your use of that scripture to mean jesus is everywhere!

I can't make any sense of that.

The question is: explain Matt. 18:20 since you said Jesus Christ is not omnipresent.

dolphinheart:

fact : you are still refusing to answer the question

fact : I never refused anything

fact : you love to lie

FAWZ:


But all what I said is it truth or false?

false because you don't understand the things you spoke off

DoctorAlien:


I can't make any sense of that.

The question is: explain Matt. 18:20 since you said Jesus Christ is not omnipresent.

Ha ha, sense cannot be made of much of what dolphinheart says

dolphinheart:

I did not ignore the verse you are talking about!
Jesus said, it is written, are you implying that Jesus quoted wrongly what is written?
If Jesus quoted from what is written, can you provide us with the real text of what is written and where it is written?

I provided you with where it is written, yet you will not accept it.


Secondly why did you not answer :
1. Ps 110:1Jehovah declared to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand Until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet.”
is the above translation correct or wrong?

all lies, you disbelieve Matthew 22:44 and say Psalm 110:1 is correct
that's what false jw do, disbelieve the Bible and change it
but in this case you just once again have no understanding of the verses

Psalm 110:1 and Matthew 22:44 say the same thing and are of course both correct

Matthew is translated from the Greek "kurios" (God) for Father and Son

Psalms is translated from the Hebrew "y'hovah" for Father and "adon" for Son, both mean God"


I accept both verses, all verses of the Bible are right
you lie lie, say they are not and change them

dolphinheart:

I do believe , do you?, how did you come to know the father is supreme in authority God?
is the father's authority over that of jesus in heaven? Yes or no?

I understand how you are unable to stop lying, it is your nature to lie
I said "kurios" means "supreme in authority", and refers to both Father and Son in said verse, which you questioned
stick to the subject, I know you want to weasel out of it through doing the twist

dolphinheart:

Matthew 22:44 did not say "theos" or did it?

no Matthew 22:44 said "kurios" as I keep saying, see your confusion that comes from lying

dolphinheart:

the word "kurios" that you put twice in bracket above cannot be found twice in the Greek text of that verse, plus show us the full Greek text of that verse where you found yours as twice written?

lies lies and more lies, no I didn't put them there, the ancient Greek writers did

you have been blinded, here is the verse from the KJV with Strongs Commentary numbers:

Mat 22:44 TheG3588 LORDG2962 saidG2036 unto myG3450 Lord,G2962 SitG2521 thou onG1537 myG3450 right hand,G1188 tillG2193 I makeG5087 thineG4675 enemiesG2190 thyG4675 footstool?G5286 G4228

You may notice the number for both instances of Lord is the same (G2962)
that number represents the Greek "kurios"


above and below is the Strong's Greek dictionary for the two instances of "kurios" in Matthew 22:44, which you lied saying "kurios" wasn't in the Strongs for that Matthew verse:

G2962

κύριος
kurios
koo'-ree-os
From κῦρος kuros (supremacy); supreme in authority, that is, (as noun) controller; by implication Mr. (as a respectful title): - God, Lord, master, Sir.
Total KJV occurrences: 748

Strongs used "kurios" for both instances of Lord in the Mathew verse, you such a lie lie

dolphinheart:

as you can see, your explanation is based on assumptions ,not fact, cus I showed you the fact, but because it will affect your doctrine, you refuse to accept it.
1. you have now shifted the definition of kurios from Lord or master to "god" and now to " supreme in authority God". I've shown you the meaning of "kurios" by scholars, you are still sticking to your self made, no evidence given, false definition of the word "kurios".
2. you could not tell us how you came to know that the "kurios in that verse is referring to the father and the son, are there not people called Lord in the scriptures?


funny, you are using the verse that says "theos" to find meaning to the word that says " kurios". pls show us how you got the meaning of "kurios" to be "god". scholars says it means "lord" or "master" and the verse you quoted describe it as such!, no where in the scriptures is "theos" ever described as "kurios".


i did not ask me to find the verse where "kurios"and "theos" are mentioned, i said : Prove me wrong, the two words translated to "lord" in the that verse is not "kurios", found only one "kurios" in that greek text!
question: how did you know that the father and son are called kurios?
another question is , how do you know who who when you fully capitalised one kurios when translation it and refuse to do so to the second one?

when translating the word "kurios", you capitalized one fully, but do not capitalize the same word fully when it appeared again!
how did you know one kurios is for the father, hence full capitalization when transLating.

oh confused one you are repeating the same things over and over

of course you cannot stop lying, I accept both verses, and you don't

such confusion and lies, I haven't shifted any definitions, when referring to Father and Son, "kurios" does mean Lord-God, If "kurios was referring to a mere person of position then it would mean Mr. or master or sir.
you really are stuck in kindergarten

confusion reigns with lie lie dolphinheart, kurios is not capitalised
It's the word Lord that is either fully capitalised or not
why did I capitalise one and not the other? confused person, I didn't write the KJV Bible

dolphinheart:

kjv:- Mr 12:36For David himself said by the Holy Ghost, The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool.
please show where David made the above statement, it's in the scriptures!

The Hebrew for David and the Greek for Matthew are both correct
but you don't believe so

dolphinheart you heap way big lie lie

Joh_8:44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.

I don't often reply to your confusion, but I do like to show up your lies.

lie lie dolphinheart

all your confusion and twisting things around and jumping all over the place-lying, is just to avoid the plain truth that Matthew 22:44 shows both Father and son to be God

but you are just doing what satans disciples do

Mat 22:44 The LORD (kurios) said unto my Lord (kurios), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

and look at the lenghts you go to to trash a Bible verse, making out it is not true

truly God (kurios Father) said to my God (kurios Jesus)

and Father Himself, called Jesus God:
Heb_1:8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.

but then that's only one of the many Bible verses you don't believe and change, isn't it

solite3:
the truth hurts you that is why you cannot even try to prove me wrong no Jehovah witness on earth can, instead you either start jumping from one translation to another or you throw baseless accusations.see your confusion, which translation are you talking about? Your ignorance stinks. Do you think all translations were translated by the same people?
I quoted your translation which also has " All things" in it, yet you could not comment.

Look at yourself I guess the truth has hit you so hard that you cannot but try to throw baseless accusation.

Greek wescott and Hort interlinear

" All through of-it it-had-became , and of-spaced of-it it-had-became not-moreover
one. To-which it-hath-had-come-to-become
1:3 πάντα "All " δι' "through " αὐτοῦ "of but " ἐγένετο , "it-had-became ," καὶ "and"
χωρὶς "of-spaced " αὐτοῦ "of-it " ἐγένετο "it-had-became " οὐδὲ "not-moreover " ἕν. "one." ὃ "To-which" γέγονεν "it-hath-had-come-to-become "

http://qbible.com/greek-new-testament/john/1.html.

All not " all things " , ( things ) was added by the translators .



3 πάντα All (things) δι’
through αὐτοῦ him ἐγένετο, came to be,
καὶ and χωρὶς apart from αὐτοῦ him
ἐγένετο came to be οὐδὲ not-but ἕν. one (thing).
ὃ Which γέγονεν has come to be


things was in BRacket to indicate it was supplied ! .



http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101985067


verse 10 makes it clear that what was been referenced is all in the world of mankind.

DoctorAlien:


I can't make any sense of that.

You can't make any sense of the scripture and explanation given? wow!
you don't want to answer the questions such explanation brought up.

The question is: explain Matt. 18:20 since you said Jesus Christ is not omnipresent.

the verse does not mean Jesus is everywhere, as Jesus will not be where 2 or 3 people are not gathered in his name or will he?

johnw74:

fact : I never refused anything
fact : you love to lie

you refused to answer the 4 questions!

CANTICLES:



Greek wescott and Hort interlinear

" All through of-it it-had-became , and of-spaced of-it it-had-became not-moreover
one. To-which it-hath-had-come-to-become
1:3 πάντα "All " δι' "through " αὐτοῦ "of but " ἐγένετο , "it-had-became ," καὶ "and"
χωρὶς "of-spaced " αὐτοῦ "of-it " ἐγένετο "it-had-became " οὐδὲ "not-moreover " ἕν. "one." ὃ "To-which" γέγονεν "it-hath-had-come-to-become "

http://qbible.com/greek-new-testament/john/1.html.

All not " all things " , ( things ) was added by the translators .



3 πάντα All (things) δι’
through αὐτοῦ him ἐγένετο, came to be,
καὶ and χωρὶς apart from αὐτοῦ him
ἐγένετο came to be οὐδὲ not-but ἕν. one (thing).
ὃ Which γέγονεν has come to be


things was in BRacket to indicate it was supplied ! .



http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1101985067


verse 10 makes it clear that what was been referenced is all in the world of mankind.

is your new world translation wrong?

johnw74:


all lies, you disbelieve Matthew 22:44 and say Psalm 110:1 is correct
that's what false jw do, disbelieve the Bible and change it
but in this case you just once again have no understanding of the verses

Psalm 110:1 and Matthew 22:44 say the same thing and are of course both correct

let's look at psalms 110:1 the KJV says:
King James Version
Ps 110:1The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

did you notice that in the KJV, Lord was used twice in that verse?
now is the Hebrew word for Lord used twice in that verse, the answer is no!
The Kjv has altered another hebrew word to mean " lord" in addition to the original hebrew word for "Lord" that occurs in the that verse.
to give this alteration traction, they decided to put the altered hebrew word in fully capitalised form so as to show the difference between the 1st and the second"lord", which has been traslated from an hebrew word that does not mean "Lord" when translated to English!

To emphasise the confusion of these translation, one of the Hebrew words translated to "Lord" in psalms 110: 1 is now translated to "Jehovah" in another verse(psalms 83:10)
While the King James Version most often translates the tetragrammaton (which occurs in the Hebrew scriptures 6,828 times) as "LORD", this verse has one of the several occurrences in which it is translated as "JEHOVAH".
The translation of the hebrew word as "LORD" in psalms 110: 1, and as "JEHOVAH" in psalms 83:10 and other places has created this confusion that johnw74 is battling to explain. If the Kjv had left the word the way it is instead of translatING it as "lord", this confusion might not have come up.
That the hebrew word translated and fully capitalised as "LORD" is not the same hebrew word translated as "lord" in the same verse should have given you a clearer picture!

This are the following facts:
1. The Hebrew texts of psalms 110: 1 contains only one Hebrew word that is translated as "to my lord" or "to my master"
2. The second Hebrew word " the tetragammaton" is translated as "Jehovah " or "yahweh".

Now to probe further into johnw74's confusion , the King James Version says :
1Ki 1:37As the LORD hath been with my lord the king, even so be he with Solomon, and make his throne greater than the throne of my lord king David.

the Kjv used the Lord twice here, was it referring to the father and son,? definitely no!
does calling the second person "lord" make him God ? definitely no!.

I asked you but you did not answer:
Jesus said, it is written, are you implying that Jesus quoted wrongly what is written?
If Jesus quoted from what is written, can you provide us with the real text of what is written and where it is written?
I provided you with where it is written, yet you will not accept it.

It has been proven to you that "Jehovah declared to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand Until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet.” is the correct translation of psalms 110:1

read: www.angelfire.com/space/thegospeltruth/TTD/verses/psalm110_1.html

Matthew is translated from the Greek "kurios" (God)for Father and Son
,

Psalms is translated from the Hebrew "y'hovah" for Father and "adon" for Son, both mean God"

the bolded above are lies that cannot be supported with facts.
The tetragammaton does not mean God and is never translated as God,

the word traslated as God :
elohim: God, god
Original Word: אֱלֹהִים
Part of Speech: Noun Masculine
Transliteration: elohim
Phonetic Spelling: (el-o-heem')
Short Definition: God
source : biblehub.com/hebrew/430.htm

Jehovah is the name of God that the isrealites worshipped , it is not the meaning of God.
"kurios" does not mean God, and neither is is translated as God
Strong's Concordance
kurios: lord, master
Original Word: κύριος, ου, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: kurios
Phonetic Spelling: (koo'-ree-os)
Short Definition: lord, Lord, master, sir
Definition: lord, master, sir; the Lord.

NAS Exhaustive Concordance
Word Origin
from kuros (authority)
Definition
lord, master
NASB Translation
lord (10), Lord (626), Lord of lords (2), Lord's (12), lords (1), master (38), master's (3), masters (, masters' (1), owner (6), owners (1), sir (11), sirs (1)

let's look at your false teaching and let's expose it :
King James Version
1Pe 3:6Even as Sarah obeyed Abraham, calling him lord: whose daughters ye are, as long as ye do well, and are not afraid with any amazement.
pls tell us, was Sarah calling Abraham God? cus Peter said she called him "lord". is Abraham God?

I accept both verses, all verses of the Bible are right
you lie lie, say they are not and change them

good to note you accept the translation that uses " Jehovah " instead of "lord".

I understand how you are unable to stop lying, it is your nature to lie
I said "kurios" means "supreme in authority", and refers to both Father and Son in said verse, which you questioned
stick to the subject, I know you want to weasel out of it through doing the twist

let's loot at what you said again :
Aug 19, page 10, 12: 34 am , you said :
The Greek for "Lord" in that verse is "kurios" and it means God

on Aug 20, 1:20am , page 10 of these thread, you said :
as you can see, well not you, but as Christians can see, both Father and Jesus are called "kurios", "supreme in authority-God"

note: these statement was made after I had shown to you the definition of "kurios".
Now you have removed the word "god" from what you said earlier so you can accuse me of lying!. prove you are not trying to define "kurios" and proof you did not use the word "God"

no Matthew 22:44 said "kurios" as I keep saying, see your confusion that comes from lying

did the verse use "kurios " twice, no it used it once!

lies lies and more lies, no I didn't put them there, the ancient Greek writers did

and you could not show the Greek text of that verse, or could you?

you have been blinded, here is the verse from the KJV with Strongs Commentary numbers:

Mat 22:44 TheG3588 LORDG2962 saidG2036 unto myG3450 Lord,G2962 SitG2521 thou onG1537 myG3450 right hand,G1188 tillG2193 I makeG5087 thineG4675 enemiesG2190 thyG4675 footstool?G5286 G4228

You may notice the number for both instances of Lord is the same (G2962)
that number represents the Greek "kurios"


above and below is the Strong's Greek dictionary for the two instances of "kurios" in Matthew 22:44, which you lied saying "kurios" wasn't in the Strongs for that Matthew verse:

G2962

κύριος
kurios
koo'-ree-os
From κῦρος kuros (supremacy); supreme in authority, that is, (as noun) controller; by implication Mr. (as a respectful title): - God, Lord, master, Sir.
Total KJV occurrences: 748

Strongs used "kurios" for both instances of Lord in the Mathew verse, you such a lie lie

1. haha, so you want to use those group numbering to show "kurios" appeared twice in that verse, what an irony!
your case would have simply been shown if you had simply posted the Greek text of that verse, but since you have read the verse and seen the truth, you decided to not to show us the Greek text and use its group numberings.

let me bust your bubble, I'm going to follow your dubious method , I'll show you 3 verses in the kjv which a word their have same numbering in the strong numberings. will also show you how the kjv translated that number differently.

strongs:
acts 12: 22 And G1161 the people G1218 gave a shout, G2019 saying, It is the voice G5456 of a god, [colorblue]G2316[/color] and G2532 not G3756 of a man. G444
kjv:
Ac 12:22And the people gave a shout, saying, It is the voice of a god, and not of a man.

strong: acts 28:6
Howbeit G1161 they looked G4328 when he G846 should G3195 have swollen, G4092 or G2228 fallen down G2667 dead G3498 suddenly: G869 but G1161 after they G846 had looked G4328 a great while, G1909 G4183 and G2532 saw G2334 no G3367 harm G824 come G1096 to G1519 him, G846 they changed their minds, G3328 and said G3004 that he G846 was G1511 a god. G2316
Kjv:
Ac 28:6Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god.

look at the two examples given above, same number (G2313) is translated as "a god" by the kjv
Now let's look at this same number in john 1: 1 and see how the kjv translated it!

In G1722 the beginning G746 was G2258 the Word, G3056 and G2532 the Word G3056 was G2258 with G4314 God, G2316 and G2532 the Word G3056 was G2258 God. G2316
Kjv:
Joh 1:1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

JOHNW74, YOU CAN SEE YOU NUMBERING EXPLANATION DOES NOT STAND SCRUTINY!,
there are only two conclusions, it is either the numberings represent a group of words(more than one word) or the same word has different meanings. whIchever you agree with, it will not help your false doctrine. no wonder you could not post the Greek texts.

2. I challenge to provide where you got G2962 or kurios to be defined as god like you posted above. pls direct us to where you got such info from.

3 . did I say the Greek word "kurios" was not in that verse ? no , Johnw74, you have now resorted to lying against me. I said the word " kurios" does not appear twice in that verse, that statement is different from you saying I said the word does not appear. p's stop lying.

4. using the same logic you tried to use , let's examine psalms 110: 1 again :
James Version ( KJV )
¶ Psa 110:1 [[A Psalm H4210 of David.]] H1732 The LORD H3068 said H5002 unto my Lord, H113 Sit H3427 thou at my right hand, H3225 until I make H7896 thine enemies H341 thy footstool. H1916 H7272
imagine! different numbers for same word!,johnw74 why?

oh confused one you are repeating the same things over and over

of course you cannot stop lying, I accept both verses, and you don't

pls post the words of the two verses you accepted, let's see if you are truthful.

such confusion and lies, I haven't shifted any definitions, when referring to Father and Son, "kurios" does mean Lord-God, If "kurios was referring to a mere person of position then it would mean Mr. or master or sir.
you really are stuck in kindergarten

according to johnw74 dictionary, note according to the definition of the word " kurios". Even the kjv translation of that verse did not say "god" when translating "kurios".
pls provide us with info on where you got such meaning from.

confusion reigns with lie lie dolphinheart, kurios is not capitalised
It's the word Lord that is either fully capitalised or not
why did I capitalise one and not the other? confused person, I didn't write the KJV Bible

good to note that you don't understand why the kjv fully capitalized one "lord" and not for the second "lord", when you claim that both where translated from the same word " kurios"

The Hebrew for David and the Greek for Matthew are both correct
but you don't believe so

dolphinheart you heap way big lie lie

Joh_8:44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.

I don't often reply to your confusion, but I do like to show up your lies.

who asked you if one is correct and one is wrong!
simple question : kjv:- Mr 12:36For David himself said by the Holy Ghost, The LORD said to my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool.
please show where David made the above statement, it's in the scriptures!

dolphinheart:

you refused to answer the 4 questions!

I don't often reply to confusion or false doctrines

but You love to lie

lie lie dolphinheart

Of course I'm not wasting time again adressing all of your confusion, lies, and false accusations
but some

dolphinheart:


The Kjv has altered

the KJV is good with most Christians, but not with false jw's, that's understandable

however the new world translation is definately corrupted, as most Christians would agree

dolphinheart:


The tetragammaton does not mean God and is never translated as God

To Christians, Yahovah is God, but to you the name doesn't mean God
and it is also true that your jehovah is not God, bat a false god, as your jesus is a false jesus
and your holy spirit is not god, not even a person of god, but just a force-a thing



I often call you lie lie because you often lie

but you being a copycat and accusing me of lying where I did not lie
is just more lies and false accusing from you lie lie dolphinheart


Joh_8:44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.




Psa 110:1 A Psalm of David. The LORD (Yahovah) said unto my Lord (adon), Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

"Yahovah" is the name of God, "adon" means soverign-divine, both words are referring to Father and Son, to God

H3068

יְהֹוָה
yehôvâh
yeh-ho-vaw'
From H1961; (the) self Existent or eternal; Jehovah, Jewish national name of God: - Jehovah, the Lord. Compare H3050, H3069.
Total KJV occurrences: 6521

If Yahovah means: the self existant, the eternal, then Yahovah means God

H113

אָדֹן אָדוֹן
'âdôn 'âdôn
aw-done', aw-done'
From an unused root (meaning to rule); sovereign, that is, controller (human or divine): - lord, master, owner. Compare also names beginning with “Adoni-”.
Total KJV occurrences: 335

Now false jw chooses the word "human" however with all the Bible verses showing diffrently, Christians choose the word "divine"


Mat 22:44 The LORD (kurios) said unto my Lord (kurios), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

"kurios" when referring to God, means supreme in authority, God. Both instances of the word referring to Father and Son mean God

G2962

κύριος
kurios
koo'-ree-os
From κῦρος kuros (supremacy); supreme in authority, that is, (as noun) controller; by implication Mr. (as a respectful title): - God, Lord, master, Sir.
Total KJV occurrences: 748


dolphinheart you very way big lie lie and false accuser, but a good little pharisee jw

dolphinheart:

You can't make any sense of the scripture and explanation given? wow!
you don't want to answer the questions such explanation brought up.


the verse does not mean Jesus is everywhere, as Jesus will not be where 2 or 3 people are not gathered in his name or will he?

are you saying the Spirit of Christ is in believers but is not omnipresent?

2Co 11:13 For such are false apostles, deceitful workers, transforming themselves into the apostles of Christ.
2Co 11:14 And no marvel; for Satan himself is transformed into an angel of light.
2Co 11:15 Therefore it is no great thing if his ministers also be transformed as the ministers of righteousness; whose end shall be according to their works.

Rev 22:18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
Rev 22:19 And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.

Deu 12:32 What thing soever I command you, observe to do it: thou shalt not add thereto, nor diminish from it.

Mat_7:15 Beware of false prophets, which come to you in sheep's clothing, but inwardly they are ravening wolves.



Who fits the descriptions of:


false apostles, deceitful workers, transforming themselves into the apostles of Christ

satans ministers transformed as the ministers of righteousness

adding to the Bible

taking away from the Bible

false prophets, which come to you in sheep's clothing

and really who comes to you, which false prophets come to you, knocking at your door, appearing as sheep


There are a lot of verses in the Bible speaking about false jw and other antichrists

lie lie dolphinheart

this is only a little of your lies and confusion in your one post
you must certinally put in a lot of time with your preaching to the whole world here

dolphinheart:

The translation of the hebrew word as "LORD" in psalms 110: 1, and as "JEHOVAH" in psalms 83:10 and other places has created this confusion that johnw74 is battling to explain

truly I haven't battled as you do, to explain anything
but you do love to lie

dolphinheart:

Now to probe further into johnw74's confusion

truly nothing I have replied to has confused me
but you do love to lie

dolphinheart:


let's loot at what you said again :
Aug 19, page 10, 12: 34 am , you said :
The Greek for "Lord" in that verse is "kurios" and it means God

on Aug 20, 1:20am , page 10 of these thread, you said :
as you can see, well not you, but as Christians can see, both Father and Jesus are called "kurios", "supreme in authority-God"

note: these statement was made after I had shown to you the definition of "kurios".
Now you have removed the word "god" from what you said earlier so you can accuse me of lying!. prove you are not trying to define "kurios" and proof you did not use the word "God"

truly I have known the definition of kurios for decades

truly I have not removed the word God from any post earlier or since

truly I have posted the strongs definition of "kurios"

truly I did use the word God

truly you are paranoid which is of the devil and which comes through rejecting God who is Love
and following another god

truly you are heap way big lie lie who cannot possibly know the true God.

dolphinheart:


JOHNW74, YOU CAN SEE YOU NUMBERING EXPLANATION DOES NOT STAND SCRUTINY!,

duh, the Strongs numbers point to words, it makes for an easier searching tool
but you have no idea

dolphinheart:


no wonder you could not post the Greek texts.

non stop lies from lie lie dolphinheart
copying and pasting Greek or hebrew verses doesn't work on my two e Bibles
just singular words work

dolphinheart:


I challenge to provide where you got G2962 or kurios to be defined as god like you posted above. pls direct us to where you got such info from.

I have more than once but your god has blinded you

2Co_4:4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.



κύριος
kurios
koo'-ree-os
From κῦρος kuros (supremacy); supreme in authority, that is, (as noun) controller; by implication Mr. (as a respectful title): - God, Lord, master, Sir.
Total KJV occurrences: 748

dolphinheart:


Johnw74, you have now resorted to lying against me. p's stop lying

truly my only lying is in your paranoid head

dolphinheart your lie lying is getting even worse if that is at all possible

Pls I want to be convinced by d Trinity doctrine. If Jehovah God and my Lord Jesus Christ r co-equal, co-powerful etc, can someone explain why Jesus called him '' My God...'' in John 20:17 and Rev 3:12. By d way, there is no scripture where Jehovah called another person His God.

adelee777:
Pls I want to be convinced by d Trinity doctrine. If Jehovah God and my Lord Jesus Christ r co-equal, co-powerful etc, can someone explain why Jesus called him '' My God...'' in John 20:17 and Rev 3:12. By d way, there is no scripture where Jehovah called another person His God.

Yes the trinity doctrine is true! Your question can be answered biblically

Consider these verses of the bible,

Philippians 2:6 Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
This verse clearly reveals that Christ has same nature as God or he was God by nature in contrast to other gods who are not God by nature ( false gods).


2:7 But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
He [Jesus] made himself of no honor ( meaning he striped himself of all divine glory)

and the took upon him the form or nature of a servant
Meaning he he was not a servant and by taking the nature of a servant he became less than God

Matthew 10:24 The disciple is not above his master, nor the servant above his lord.

So Jesus made himself a servant before he was sent into the world.

2:8 And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.

2:9 Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name:

John 1:14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Jesus addressed God as my God because has human nature. In having this nature Jesus became one with man and one with God by having the divine nature.

Ephesians 2:14 For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;

Jesus could call us his brethren because we have one nature.

Hebrews 2:11 For both he that sanctifieth and they who are sanctified are all of one: for which cause he is not ashamed to call them brethren,

2:12 Saying, I will declare thy name unto my brethren, in the midst of the church will I sing praise unto thee.

2:13 And again, I will put my trust in him. And again, Behold I and the children which God hath given me.

2:14 Forasmuch then as[b] the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same[/b]; that through death he might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;

2:15 And deliver them who through fear of death were all their lifetime subject to bondage.

2:16 For verily he took not on him the nature of angels; but he took on him the seed of Abraham.

2:17 Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, [/b]to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.

2:18 For in that he himself hath suffered being tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.


John 20:17 Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to [b]my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God.

From these verses, you see the reason Jesus is both man and God
As a man he referred to his father as my God.

^^^
a good witness

johnw74:


I don't often reply to confusion or false doctrines
but You love to lie

you replied the post, but you refuse to answer the questions

johnw74:
lie lie dolphinheart

Of course I'm not wasting time again adressing all of your confusion, lies, and false accusations
but some




the KJV is good with most Christians, but not with false jw's, that's understandable

however the new world translation is definately corrupted, as most Christians would agree

typical, politicians use this tactics , when you can't defend facts, you try to find fault with the other too, as if such allegations will absolve you of your faults.

This is what I posted,it was cut off to hide the facts their :
"[b]let's look at psalms 110:1 the KJV says:
King James Version
Ps 110:1The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
did you notice that in the KJV, Lord was used twice in that verse?
now is the Hebrew word for Lord used twice in that verse, the answer is no!
The Kjv has altered another hebrew word to mean " lord" in addition to the original hebrew word for "Lord" that occurs in the that verse.
to give this alteration traction, they decided to put the altered hebrew word in fully capitalised form so as to show the difference between the 1st and the second"lord", which has been traslated from an hebrew word that does not mean "Lord" when translated to English!
To emphasise the confusion of these translation, one of the Hebrew words translated to "Lord" in psalms 110: 1 is now translated to "Jehovah" in another verse(psalms 83:10)
While the King James Version most often translates the tetragrammaton (which occurs in the Hebrew scriptures 6,828 times) as "LORD", this verse has one of the several occurrences in which it is translated as "JEHOVAH".
The translation of the hebrew word as "LORD" in psalms 110: 1, and as "JEHOVAH" in psalms 83:10 and other places has created this confusion that johnw74 is battling to explain. If the Kjv had left the word the way it is instead of translatING it as "lord", this confusion might not have come up.
That the hebrew word translated and fully capitalised as "LORD" is not the same hebrew word translated as "lord" in the same verse should have given you a clearer picture!

This are the following facts:
1. The Hebrew texts of psalms 110: 1 contains only one Hebrew word that is translated as "to my lord" or "to my master"
2. The second Hebrew word " the tetragammaton" is translated as "Jehovah " or "yahweh".
Now to probe further into johnw74's confusion , the King James Version says :
1Ki 1:37As the LORD hath been with my lord the king, even so be he with Solomon, and make his throne greater than the throne of my lord king David.
the Kjv used the Lord twice here, was it referring to the father and son,? definitely no!
does calling the second person "lord" make him God ? definitely no!.

I asked you but you did not answer:
Jesus said, it is written, are you implying that Jesus quoted wrongly what is written?
If Jesus quoted from what is written, can you provide us with the real text of what is written and where it is written?
I provided you with where it is written, yet you will not accept it.
It has been proven to you that "Jehovah declared to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand Until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet.” is the correct translation of psalms 110:1
read: www.angelfire.com/space/thegospeltruth/TTD/verses/psalm110_1.html[/b]"

To Christians, Yahovah is God, but to you the name doesn't mean God
and it is also true that your jehovah is not God, bat a false god, as your jesus is a false jesus
and your holy spirit is not god, not even a person of god, but just a force-a thing

"the bolded above are lies that cannot be supported with facts.
The tetragammaton does not mean God and is never translated as God,
the word traslated as God :
elohim: God, god
Original Word: אֱלֹהִים
Part of Speech: Noun Masculine
Transliteration: elohim
Phonetic Spelling: (el-o-heem')
Short Definition: God
source : biblehub.com/hebrew/430.htm
Jehovah is the name of God that the isrealites worshipped , it is not the meaning of God."

Jehovah is the name of the almighty God, Jehovah does not mean God.
example: John is the name of a man, John does not mean man
Gabriel is the name of an angel, Gabriel does not mean angel
Samsung is the name of a phone, Samsung does not mean phone

I often call you lie lie because you often lie

but you being a copycat and accusing me of lying where I did not lie
is just more lies and false accusing from you lie lie dolphinheart


Joh_8:44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.

continue!

Psa 110:1 A Psalm of David. The LORD (Yahovah) said unto my Lord (adon), Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.

"Yahovah" is the name of God, "adon" means soverign-divine, both words are referring to Father and Son, to God

H3068

יְהֹוָה
yehôvâh
yeh-ho-vaw'
From H1961; (the) self Existent or eternal; Jehovah, Jewish national name of God: - Jehovah, the Lord. Compare H3050, H3069.
Total KJV occurrences: 6521

[s]If Yahovah means: the self existant, the eternal, then Yahovah means God[/s]

1. The Kjv know it's Yahovah right!, but they decided to alter it to "LORD", it's such alteration that's confusing you. You know it's "Yahovah", but you alter it to "lord"

2.you yourself have now confirmed that their are two different words found in psalms 110:1, is Yahovah and adon the same word ? no , then why have you translated it to the same word in English!

3. did any of the translators say Yahovah means God? no , they say it's the name of God.
you yourself corfirmed it : (a)"Yahovah" is the name of God,
(b) yeh-ho-vaw'
From H1961; (the) self Existent or eternal; Jehovah, Jewish national name of God: - Jehovah, the Lord.[/b]
had to scratch that part off cus once again, you are trying to alter what the scholars told you.

H113
אָדֹן אָדוֹן
'âdôn 'âdôn
aw-done', aw-done'
From an unused root (meaning to rule); sovereign, that is, controller (human or divine): - lord, master, owner. Compare also names beginning with “Adoni-”.
Total KJV occurrences: 335

Now false jw chooses the word "human" however with all the Bible verses showing diffrently, Christians choose the word "divine"

you mean all the places where "adon" occurs in the hebrew scriptures it means divine?
Secondly, the Hebrew word found in psalms 110:1 for "Lord" is not "adon"

biblehub.com/interlinear/psalms/110-1.htm

Mat 22:44 The LORD (kurios) said unto my Lord (kurios), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

"kurios" when referring to God, means supreme in authority, God. Both instances of the word referring to Father and Son mean God

the greek word "kurios does not occur twice in that verse.

G2962

κύριος
kurios
koo'-ree-os
From κῦρος kuros (supremacy); supreme in authority, that is, (as noun) controller; by implication Mr. (as a respectful title): - God, Lord, master, Sir.
Total KJV occurrences: 748

dolphinheart you very way big lie lie and false accuser, but a good little pharisee jw

plus tell us or direct us where you got this from?

johnw74:
lie lie dolphinheart

this is only a little of your lies and confusion in your one post
you must certinally put in a lot of time with your preaching to the whole world here



truly I haven't battled as you do, to explain anything
but you do love to lie

has the Kjv translated the same hebrew word as "lord" in one verse and as "Jehovah in another verse in the same book of psalms? Yes!, it is not a lie!, and that fact is what is confusing you!

truly nothing I have replied to has confused me
but you do love to lie

you say so.

truly I have known the definition of kurios for decades

truly I have not removed the word God from any post earlier or since

these words are true:
Aug 19, page 10, 12: 34 am , you said :
The Greek for "Lord" in that verse is "kurios" and it means God
on Aug 20, 1:20am , page 10 of these thread, you said :
as you can see, well not you, but as Christians can see, both Father and Jesus are called "kurios", "supreme in authority-God"

I replied you with this words : [b]"I do believe , do you?, how did you come to know the father is supreme in authority God?
is the father's authority over that of Jesus in heaven? Yes or no?"

you sid not answer the question, but your reply was : (2:43 am, Aug 21)
I understand how you are unable to stop lying, it is your nature to lie
I said "kurios" means "supreme in authority", and refers to both Father and Son in said verse, which you questioned
stick to the subject, I know you want to weasel out of it through doing the twist
if the word "god" was not removed, I wonder what was!

truly I have posted the strongs definition of "kurios"

but you refuse to direct or provide a link to where you got the strongs definition of "kurios"

truly I did use the word God

truly you are paranoid which is of the devil and which comes through rejecting God who is Love
and following another god

truly you are heap way big lie lie who cannot possibly know the true God.

Joh 17:3This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ.
Jesus has told me the father is the only true God, and I believe Jesus words, do you believe Jesus words or you prefer to add another person to who Jesus described as the only true God?

Ps 83:18May people know that you, whose name is Jehovah, You alone are the Most High over all the earth.
Lu 1:32This one will be great and will be called Son of the Most High, and Jehovah God will give him the throne of David his father,

duh, the Strongs numbers point to words, it makes for an easier searching tool
but you have no idea

good, it points to words, not that it points to word.

The part you cut off cus it exposes you and you could not counter or explain it:
1. haha, so you want to use those group numbering to show "kurios" appeared twice in that verse, what an irony!
your case would have simply been shown if you had simply posted the Greek text of that verse, but since you have read the verse and seen the truth, you decided to not to show us the Greek text and use its group numberings.

let me bust your bubble, I'm going to follow your dubious method , I'll show you 3 verses in the kjv which a word their have same numbering in the strong numberings. will also show you how the kjv translated that number differently.

strongs:
acts 12: 22 And G1161 the people G1218 gave a shout, G2019 saying, It is the voice G5456 of a god, [colorblue]G2316[/color] and G2532 not G3756 of a man. G444
kjv:
Ac 12:22And the people gave a shout, saying, It is the voice of a god, and not of a man.

strong: acts 28:6
Howbeit G1161 they looked G4328 when he G846 should G3195 have swollen, G4092 or G2228 fallen down G2667 dead G3498 suddenly: G869 but G1161 after they G846 had looked G4328 a great while, G1909 G4183 and G2532 saw G2334 no G3367 harm G824 come G1096 to G1519 him, G846 they changed their minds, G3328 and said G3004 that he G846 was G1511 a god. G2316
Kjv:
Ac 28:6Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god.

look at the two examples given above, same number (G2313) is translated as "a god" by the kjv
Now let's look at this same number in john 1: 1 and see how the kjv translated it!

In G1722 the beginning G746 was G2258 the Word, G3056 and G2532 the Word G3056 was G2258 with G4314 God, G2316 and G2532 the Word G3056 was G2258 God. G2316
Kjv:
Joh 1:1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

JOHNW74, YOU CAN SEE YOU NUMBERING EXPLANATION DOES NOT STAND SCRUTINY!,
there are only two conclusions, it is either the numberings represent a group of words(more than one word) or the same word has different meanings. whIchever you agree with, it will not help your false doctrine. no wonder you could not post the Greek texts.

2. I challenge to provide where you got G2962 or kurios to be defined as god like you posted above. pls direct us to where you got such info from.

3 . did I say the Greek word "kurios" was not in that verse ? no , Johnw74, you have now resorted to lying against me. I said the word " kurios" does not appear twice in that verse, that statement is different from you saying I said the word does not appear. p's stop lying.

4. using the same logic you tried to use , let's examine psalms 110: 1 again :
James Version ( KJV )
¶ Psa 110:1 [[A Psalm H4210 of David.]] H1732 The LORD H3068 said H5002 unto my Lord, H113 Sit H3427 thou at my right hand, H3225 until I make H7896 thine enemies H341 thy footstool. H1916 H7272
imagine! different numbers for same word!,johnw74 why?

non stop lies from lie lie dolphinheart
copying and pasting Greek or hebrew verses doesn't work on my two e Bibles
just singular words work

haha, okay , pls post a screen shot , and tell us the name of the two e bible

I have more than once but your god has blinded you

you copied and pasted the definition of "kurios", pls direct us to where you copied it from!

2Co_4:4 In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.



κύριος
kurios
koo'-ree-os
From κῦρος kuros (supremacy); supreme in authority, that is, (as noun) controller; by implication Mr. (as a respectful title): - God, Lord, master, Sir.
Total KJV occurrences: 748[/color]
pls tell us where you got this definition from so one can go their and see it!



[quote]truly my only lying is in your paranoid head

dolphinheart your lie lying is getting even worse if that is at all possible

3 . did I say the Greek word "kurios" was not in that verse ? no , Johnw74, you have now resorted to lying against me. I said the word " kurios" does not appear twice in that verse, that statement is different from you saying I said the word does not appear. p's stop lying.

Christians like confusing theirselves, they cannot prove the God they serve making him the author of confusion (God forbid). Plz take ur time to visit this link and plz read it carefully. Thanks. www.trinitytruth.org/

dolphinheart:

you refuse to answer the question

dolphinheart:

you still refuse to answer the question

dolphinheart:

fact : you are still refusing to answer the question

dolphinheart:

you refused to answer the 4 questions!

dolphinheart:

you replied the post, but you refuse to answer the questions

now now don't burst out crying

is this one well?

More

dolphinheart:

typical, politicians use this tactics , when you can't defend facts, you try to find fault with the other too, as if such allegations will absolve you of your faults.

This is what I posted,it was cut off to hide the facts their :
"[b]let's look at psalms 110:1 the KJV says:
King James Version
Ps 110:1The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
did you notice that in the KJV, Lord was used twice in that verse?
now is the Hebrew word for Lord used twice in that verse, the answer is no!
The Kjv has altered another hebrew word to mean " lord" in addition to the original hebrew word for "Lord" that occurs in the that verse.
to give this alteration traction, they decided to put the altered hebrew word in fully capitalised form so as to show the difference between the 1st and the second"lord", which has been traslated from an hebrew word that does not mean "Lord" when translated to English!
To emphasise the confusion of these translation, one of the Hebrew words translated to "Lord" in psalms 110: 1 is now translated to "Jehovah" in another verse(psalms 83:10)
While the King James Version most often translates the tetragrammaton (which occurs in the Hebrew scriptures 6,828 times) as "LORD", this verse has one of the several occurrences in which it is translated as "JEHOVAH".
The translation of the hebrew word as "LORD" in psalms 110: 1, and as "JEHOVAH" in psalms 83:10 and other places has created this confusion that johnw74 is battling to explain. If the Kjv had left the word the way it is instead of translatING it as "lord", this confusion might not have come up.
That the hebrew word translated and fully capitalised as "LORD" is not the same hebrew word translated as "lord" in the same verse should have given you a clearer picture!

This are the following facts:
1. The Hebrew texts of psalms 110: 1 contains only one Hebrew word that is translated as "to my lord" or "to my master"
2. The second Hebrew word " the tetragammaton" is translated as "Jehovah " or "yahweh".
Now to probe further into johnw74's confusion , the King James Version says :
1Ki 1:37As the LORD hath been with my lord the king, even so be he with Solomon, and make his throne greater than the throne of my lord king David.
the Kjv used the Lord twice here, was it referring to the father and son,? definitely no!
does calling the second person "lord" make him God ? definitely no!.

I asked you but you did not answer:
Jesus said, it is written, are you implying that Jesus quoted wrongly what is written?
If Jesus quoted from what is written, can you provide us with the real text of what is written and where it is written?
I provided you with where it is written, yet you will not accept it.
It has been proven to you that "Jehovah declared to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand Until I place your enemies as a stool for your feet.” is the correct translation of psalms 110:1
read: www.angelfire.com/space/thegospeltruth/TTD/verses/psalm110_1.html[/b]"


"the bolded above are lies that cannot be supported with facts.
The tetragammaton does not mean God and is never translated as God,
the word traslated as God :
elohim: God, god
Original Word: אֱלֹהִים
Part of Speech: Noun Masculine
Transliteration: elohim
Phonetic Spelling: (el-o-heem')
Short Definition: God
source : biblehub.com/hebrew/430.htm
Jehovah is the name of God that the isrealites worshipped , it is not the meaning of God."

Jehovah is the name of the almighty God, Jehovah does not mean God.
example: John is the name of a man, John does not mean man
Gabriel is the name of an angel, Gabriel does not mean angel
Samsung is the name of a phone, Samsung does not mean phone


continue!


1. The Kjv know it's Yahovah right!, but they decided to alter it to "LORD", it's such alteration that's confusing you. You know it's "Yahovah", but you alter it to "lord"

2.you yourself have now confirmed that their are two different words found in psalms 110:1, is Yahovah and adon the same word ? no , then why have you translated it to the same word in English!

3. did any of the translators say Yahovah means God? no , they say it's the name of God.
you yourself corfirmed it : (a)"Yahovah" is the name of God,
(b) yeh-ho-vaw'
From H1961; (the) self Existent or eternal; Jehovah, Jewish national name of God: - Jehovah, the Lord.[/b]
had to scratch that part off cus once again, you are trying to alter what the scholars told you.


you mean all the places where "adon" occurs in the hebrew scriptures it means divine?
Secondly, the Hebrew word found in psalms 110:1 for "Lord" is not "adon"

biblehub.com/interlinear/psalms/110-1.htm




the greek word "kurios does not occur twice in that verse.


plus tell us or direct us where you got this from?

see my post below

dolphinheart:

has the Kjv translated the same hebrew word as "lord" in one verse and as "Jehovah in another verse in the same book of psalms? Yes!, it is not a lie!, and that fact is what is confusing you!



you say so.


these words are true:
Aug 19, page 10, 12: 34 am , you said :
The Greek for "Lord" in that verse is "kurios" and it means God
on Aug 20, 1:20am , page 10 of these thread, you said :
as you can see, well not you, but as Christians can see, both Father and Jesus are called "kurios", "supreme in authority-God"

I replied you with this words : [b]"I do believe , do you?, how did you come to know the father is supreme in authority God?
is the father's authority over that of Jesus in heaven? Yes or no?"

you sid not answer the question, but your reply was : (2:43 am, Aug 21)
I understand how you are unable to stop lying, it is your nature to lie
I said "kurios" means "supreme in authority", and refers to both Father and Son in said verse, which you questioned
stick to the subject, I know you want to weasel out of it through doing the twist
if the word "god" was not removed, I wonder what was!


but you refuse to direct or provide a link to where you got the strongs definition of "kurios"



Joh 17:3This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ.
Jesus has told me the father is the only true God, and I believe Jesus words, do you believe Jesus words or you prefer to add another person to who Jesus described as the only true God?

Ps 83:18May people know that you, whose name is Jehovah, You alone are the Most High over all the earth.
Lu 1:32This one will be great and will be called Son of the Most High, and Jehovah God will give him the throne of David his father,


good, it points to words, not that it points to word.

The part you cut off cus it exposes you and you could not counter or explain it:
1. haha, so you want to use those group numbering to show "kurios" appeared twice in that verse, what an irony!
your case would have simply been shown if you had simply posted the Greek text of that verse, but since you have read the verse and seen the truth, you decided to not to show us the Greek text and use its group numberings.

let me bust your bubble, I'm going to follow your dubious method , I'll show you 3 verses in the kjv which a word their have same numbering in the strong numberings. will also show you how the kjv translated that number differently.

strongs:
acts 12: 22 And G1161 the people G1218 gave a shout, G2019 saying, It is the voice G5456 of a god, [colorblue]G2316[/color] and G2532 not G3756 of a man. G444
kjv:
Ac 12:22And the people gave a shout, saying, It is the voice of a god, and not of a man.

strong: acts 28:6
Howbeit G1161 they looked G4328 when he G846 should G3195 have swollen, G4092 or G2228 fallen down G2667 dead G3498 suddenly: G869 but G1161 after they G846 had looked G4328 a great while, G1909 G4183 and G2532 saw G2334 no G3367 harm G824 come G1096 to G1519 him, G846 they changed their minds, G3328 and said G3004 that he G846 was G1511 a god. G2316
Kjv:
Ac 28:6Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god.

look at the two examples given above, same number (G2313) is translated as "a god" by the kjv
Now let's look at this same number in john 1: 1 and see how the kjv translated it!

In G1722 the beginning G746 was G2258 the Word, G3056 and G2532 the Word G3056 was G2258 with G4314 God, G2316 and G2532 the Word G3056 was G2258 God. G2316
Kjv:
Joh 1:1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

JOHNW74, YOU CAN SEE YOU NUMBERING EXPLANATION DOES NOT STAND SCRUTINY!,
there are only two conclusions, it is either the numberings represent a group of words(more than one word) or the same word has different meanings. whIchever you agree with, it will not help your false doctrine. no wonder you could not post the Greek texts.

2. I challenge to provide where you got G2962 or kurios to be defined as god like you posted above. pls direct us to where you got such info from.

3 . did I say the Greek word "kurios" was not in that verse ? no , Johnw74, you have now resorted to lying against me. I said the word " kurios" does not appear twice in that verse, that statement is different from you saying I said the word does not appear. p's stop lying.

4. using the same logic you tried to use , let's examine psalms 110: 1 again :
James Version ( KJV )
¶ Psa 110:1 [[A Psalm H4210 of David.]] H1732 The LORD H3068 said H5002 unto my Lord, H113 Sit H3427 thou at my right hand, H3225 until I make H7896 thine enemies H341 thy footstool. H1916 H7272
imagine! different numbers for same word!,johnw74 why?


haha, okay , pls post a screen shot , and tell us the name of the two e bible


you copied and pasted the definition of "kurios", pls direct us to where you copied it from!

Your two posts are so confused and twisted, and lies and false accusations reign there
but I will give you just a few facts again




Strongs Dictionary says Yahovah means
the everlasting, the eternal

in another word, God


Dictionary. com says
Yahovah means
I AM that I AM
the self existant God

you see lie lie, again Yahovah means God

Yahovah means: the everlasting, the eternal, the self existant God

but to you lie lie Yahovah doesn't mean God
that's ok with me, I understand that

To me Yahovah means God, keep crying over it




And just as you used very many words, confusion, lies, and false accusing to try and show that yahovah doesn't mean God, you also used very many words, confusion, lies, and false accusing to try and show that Strongs "kurios" isn't used twice in Matthew 22:44

Mat 22:44 The LORD (kurios) said unto my Lord (kurios), Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool?

From the Strongs Dictionary, copied and pasted here:

G2962

κύριος
kurios
koo'-ree-os
From κῦρος kuros (supremacy); supreme in authority, that is, (as noun) controller; by implication Mr. (as a respectful title): - God, Lord, master, Sir.
Total KJV occurrences: 748

And of course, because kurios referred to the Son as well as the Father you lied saying that "kurios" doesn't mean "supreme in authority" or "God"

And because you are such an habitual liar, you think others lie as you do, and asked me to give a screen shot, obviously because you think I am lying as you do lie.
here it is below:
and as I said I cannot copy and paste a whole verse but only one word definition, but the number G2962 shows you that the Greek word for both instances of Lord is the same word "Kurios"

false jw dolphinheart you are a huge lie lie

johnw74:


Matthew is translated from the Greek "kurios" (God)for Father and Son
,

Psalms is translated from the Hebrew "y'hovah" for Father and "adon" for Son, both mean God"

dolphinheart:


the bolded above are lies that cannot be supported with facts.
The tetragammaton does not mean God and is never translated as God,

But the facts were given, "kurios" is used in said verse for the two instances of Lord,
and I showed where Yahovah means the everlasting, the eternal, the self existant God,
but you keep lying oh false accuser

johnw74:


To Christians, Yahovah is God, but to you the name doesn't mean God
and it is also true that your jehovah is not God, bat a false god, as your Jesus is a false Jesus
and your holy spirit is not god, not even a person of god, but just a force-a thing

dolphinheart:


"the bolded above are lies that cannot be supported with facts.

duh, nothing is bolded, and Yahovah is God to Christians
and by your own words you say Yahovah doesn't mean God
so just what is a lie?
that your jehovah is a false god, and your jesus is a false god
well that's true as you call the word Jesus Christ "a god" when there are many Bible verses showing that Jesus is indeed God, and those that don't have the Son don't have the Father either
and your holy spirit is not God but a force, a thing, while there are plenty of Bible verses showing that the Holy Spirit is a person, and is God.
So no there is no lie there, except for your false accusation.

dolphinheart:


did I say the Greek word "kurios" was not in that verse ? no , Johnw74, you have now resorted to lying against me. I said the word " kurios" does not appear twice in that verse, that statement is different from you saying I said the word does not appear. p's stop lying.

dolphinheart:


did I say the Greek word "kurios" was not in that verse ? no , Johnw74, you have now resorted to lying against me. I said the word " kurios" does not appear twice in that verse, that statement is different from you saying I said the word does not appear. p's stop lying.



did I say the Greek word "kurios" was not in that verse ? no , Johnw74, you have now resorted to lying against me. I said the word " kurios" does not appear twice in that verse, that statement is different from you saying I said the word does not appear. p's stop lying.

ha ha, lie lie, repeating your lie three times and twice in the one post won't make it come true
you have said "kurios" isn't in said verse for both instances of Lord
I said it is, Here is your quote and my reply:

dolphinheart:


the word "kurios" that you put twice in bracket above [size=14pt]cannot be found twice[/size] in the Greek text of that verse, plus show us the full Greek text of that verse where you found yours as twice written?

lies lies and more lies, no I didn't put them there, the ancient Greek writers did

you have been blinded, here is the verse from the KJV with Strongs Commentary numbers:

Mat 22:44 TheG3588 LORDG2962 saidG2036 unto myG3450 Lord,G2962 SitG2521 thou onG1537 myG3450 right hand,G1188 tillG2193 I makeG5087 thineG4675 enemiesG2190 thyG4675 footstool?G5286 G4228

You may notice the number for both instances of Lord is the same (G2962)
that number represents the Greek "kurios"


above and below is the Strong's Greek dictionary [size=14pt]for the two instances[/size] of "kurios" in Matthew 22:44, which you lied saying "kurios" wasn't in the Strongs for that Matthew verse:

G2962

κύριος
kurios
koo'-ree-os
From κῦρος kuros (supremacy); supreme in authority, that is, (as noun) controller; by implication Mr. (as a respectful title): - God, Lord, master, Sir.
Total KJV occurrences: 748

Strongs used "kurios" for both instances of Lord in the Mathew verse, you such a lie lie





That's your quote and my reply and as you can see,

you said "kurios" cannot be found twice in said verse

I showed that the two instances of "kurios" for lord are in the verse

you false jw dolphinheart lied, and then accused me of lying
a double whammy lie lie from you