₦airaland Forum

ATMC: no point made yet...[size=15pt]cos dt one has urge nd decides to relieve himself or herself by use of his or her hand doesn't mean anything[/size]...i use to think dt its sin until some yrs back. If truth be told, its no sin. A virgin girl has urge once every month...nature made it so...she may not know what is happening to her but she finds herself going...at a particular time of d month. She can relieve herself without feeling guilty.there is no law in d bible against it, y r pple trying to make a case where there is none.

From the above highlighted, I conclude your mind IS ALREADY MADE UP. YOU WON'T SEE SENSE IN WHATEVER I SAY HERE. Feel free to continue whatever you believe BUT AS MUCH AS I SHARE THE LOVE OF CHRIST WITH YOU, IF YOU DESIRE HEAVEN; KINDLY READ 1 Corinthians 7:9 from ALL available translations. You can read all translations from here: http://www.biblegateway.com/

God bless you.

@ ijawkid,

Please, kindly take your time to read my response slowly and digest/understand it. Okay.

Now I get what your question is pointing to. Let me answer it using couple of verses from the scriptures. First, I have told you that the word, Trinity does not appear in the bible just like many word that don't appear in the bible but theologians give such terms to explain the concept. Okay.

Now, you want to know why the men of God that saw visions never saw the picture of the Holy Spirit to prove the trinity. This is where you are wrong. How do you think these Prophets or Servants of God who THROUGH THE SAME SPIRIT WILL SEE THE HOLY SPIRIT. Calm down let me help answer your question. It is the same Spirit you are asking why the dont see that is Showing the revelation to them. Hence, the same Holy Spirit is "in or within" them to show whatever vision they might have seen. As/If you are born again, the Holy Spirit can take you into the heavenly realm to show you vision. If the same Spirit, "in or within or through" you is showing the vision, kindly ask yourself how you can see the same Spirit. The same way/thing in the event of the servants of God who saw visions. The Spirit in/within/through working and that Spirit CANNOT MAKE THE PROPHETS SEE ITSELF, SAME SPIRIT. Do you understand now? Look at these verses:

For what man knoweth the things of a man, save the spirit of man which is in him? even so the things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God. 1 Corinthians 2:11.

But as it is written, Eye hath not seen, nor ear heard, neither have entered into the heart of man, the things which God hath prepared for them that love him. But God hath revealed them unto us by his Spirit: for the Spirit searcheth all things, yea, the deep things of God. 1 Corinthians 2:9-10

Here, the above verses makes it clear that it is the Holy Spirit that reveals/shows the things of God to us. Hence, we MUST have that same Spirit "in us or come upon us or working within us" in order to do this revealing or revelation. Let us put this explanation to test to see if it works and if it can bear the truth. You mentioned many servants of God seeing vision, I will use one of them to show you what am talking about. I will use Apostle John. You remember He is one of the Apostles who had received the Holy Spirit as promised by Jesus:

"But the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in My name, He will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all things that I said to you. John 14:26 nkjv

So, John ALREADY HAVE THE HOLY SPIRIT WORKING WITHIN HIM OR IN HIM AND THROUGH HIM AS THIS TIME right from the day of Pentecost. Okay

The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show His servants--things which must shortly take place. And He sent and signified [it] by His angel to His servant John,

I was in the Spirit on the Lord's Day, and I heard behind me a loud voice, as of a trumpet, saying, "I am the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last," and, "What you see, write in a book and send [it] to the seven churches which are in Asia: [fn] to Ephesus, to Smyrna, to Pergamos, to Thyatira, to Sardis, to Philadelphia, and to Laodicea." Rev 1:1,10-11 nkjv

Here we see John "IN THE SPIRIT" getting revelation for the same Spirit as I explain above is with him/in/working withing him AT THIS PRESENT TIME to show him "WHAT YOU SEE". If the Spirit is in them and showing or reveling something to them. It is reasonable to say they Spirit CANNOT SHOW THESE MEN OF GOD Himself/Itself. I hope this answers you kweshun. If not, ask again.

Besides, If you are created in the image and likeness of God as a man. God even manifested the trinity in man. You as a man is a spirit or soul (i mean the REAL you is NOT your flesh/body), you have a mind and you live in a house called body/flesh. So you are a tripartite being in nature. If God can manifest this in man, how much more God Almighty. Just that the bible of says is ONE but manifest in three distinct persons.....I would have said God is MORE than manifesting in three persons. Think of it this way, If God, THROUGH the Holy Spirit can INDWELL MORE THAN ONE APOSTLES ON THE DAY OF PENTECOST AND IS STILL INDWELLING MANY BELIEVERS SINCE THEN, are we then limiting God to ONLY THREE PERSONS? .

This is just by the way....not part of the topic anyway,lolz.

Joagbaje: You tell us what you think he is doing to his body. [size=15pt]What is a man who is chewing Gum doing to his body?[/size]

You guys makes it looks as though someone is encouraging mastubation. That's the attitude Paul complain about in Rom 3:8 . No spiritual man will encourage any person to do mastubation . The. Question is . Has anyone who done it committed a sin against God? . My answer is No. But that doesnt take away the fact that it's a bad habit. [size=15pt]Pastor Christ was very clear on this, he said .the way to stop a bad habit is to replace it with a good one.[/size]

Whoever say mastubation is Cain against God is simply adding to scripture.

Why are you being like one of religious hypocrites. I am done talking this matter with you. If not that ATMC mentioned my i.d, I wont have said anything. NOW TELL US, WHAT IS THE CORRELATION BETWEEN CHEWING GUM AND MASTUBATION? What is wrong with you?

Secondly on the Bolded. Yes, Pastor said the guy should just stop it by replacing it with good habit. The problem of you and your heresy is that you take mastubation as mere habit. Smh. No body will question or attack what pastor chris said should he had stopped at that statement but he went on to say IT IS NOT A SIN AGAINST GOD AND GOD GOT NOTHING TO DO WITH IT, IT'S YOUR BODY. This is pure heresy! Very Simple because the body of a believer is no more his when such believer comes to Christ but it's the Lords and it is the temple of God.

Jesus said, if ANYMAN will be His disciple, he must deny SELF. Do you understand what the Lord meant by that statement? Joagbaje, am DONE TALKING TO YOU AS FAR AS THIS MATTER IS CONCERNED,OKAY.

Am talking to ATMC PLEASEEEEEEEEES. IT IS VERY CLEAR YOU CAN DIE WITH CHRIS. I DON'T HAVE ISSUES WITH THAT, DON'T JUST BRING YOUR HERESIES HERE. OKAY. YOU JUST GO ARROUND THAT IT IS NOT A SIN AND YOU CANT EVEN PROVE IT ALSO AND WHEN WE SHOW YOU FROM THE WORD OF GOD YOU START GOING IN CIRCLE. PLEASEEEEEEEESSSSSS.

^
So when a person does that, what is such person doing to his/her body....which is the temple of God (if born again)

If we are talking about someone not born again, NO PROBLEM o. It might be okay for the worldly people but am talking about a believer or true christian.

Kay 17: God is incomprehensible, how did you know that?

You can truly know God but you cannot fully understand/know God.

The secret things belong unto the LORD our God: but those things which are revealed belong unto us and to our children for ever, that we may do all the words of this law. Deut 29:29 kjv.

This verse shows that NOT ALL THINGS are revealed. So how do you FULLY comprehend/know when not all thing are revealed?

Okay bro. I promised I will help you. I remembered I said so sometimes ago and I will still do. Okay. Very simple now cos you raised many questions but going straight to the point for now but will continue if need arises.

The Holy Spirit like I told you before is the one working "in or within" every believers in this present age/time till Jesus returns.

You issue is, you want to fathom God. Well, you can truly know God BUT you cannot FULLY know God. God is more than your understand or the capacity of your understanding. However, I admire your quest for knowledge. Remember God is NOT man that is limited to time, place and ability. God is everywhere even as we speak. So also, God can reproduce in EVERYONE that is born again. This is a great mystery.

I will answer your questions more incase you are still not clear. Okay.

Glory to God....The King is Coming!

^
Yes o, @ Snowwy,

That is the revelation from KamiLara, "For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him". Col 1:16 nkjv.

The same kind of revelation Jesus expressed, when He told Peter after many struggles to "launch out into the deep"....because He was in the beginning and understands what He created inside the "deep" from the beginning. Tie these two verses together, something will leap inside of you.....trust me.

Now when he had left speaking, he said unto Simon, Launch out into the deep, and let down your nets for a draught. Luke 5:4 kjv/nkjv

AND

The earth was without form, and void; and darkness [was] on the face of the deep. And the Spirit of God was hovering over the face of the waters. Gen 1:2 nkjv


Hey brother, I LOVE THE WORD OF GOD. FULL OF MYSTERIES AND MYSTERIOUS THINGS OF LIFE. Sometimes, when I dive into the pool of the word, I get drown in the revelation of the word. Sometimes they are tooo powerful for me to express them with words. I enjoy it bro.

And Enoch walked with God: and he was not; for God took him. Gen 5:24

By faith Enoch was taken away so that he did not see death, "and was not found, because God had taken him"; [b]for before he was taken he had this testimony, that he pleased God. [/b]Heb 11:5 nkjv.

@ Image123,

QUESTION 5

(a) According to Hebrews 7:9-10, Did LEVI who RECEIVES tithes also PAID tithes "in and through" Abraham?

(b) According to Hebrews 7: 11-12, Was the LEVITICAL PRIESTHOOD and ITS LAW CHANGED OR NOT?

(c) If you claim that the Levi, its Levi-tical Priesthood and Laws still exist today in the body of Christ (remember this Levi is one who functions in the levitical preisthood, who receives and paid tithes in/through Abraham v9-10), WHY IS IT NOT CALLED ACCORDING TO THE ORDER OF AARON (Heb 7:11) BUT ACCORDING TO THE TRIBE OF JUDAH (Heb 7:13-14)?

(d) According to Hebrews 7 :13-14. Jesus arose from the tribe of Judah which makes it clear that even Jesus nor anyone from His tribe was not eligible to receive or collect tithes because He was not from the tribe of levi who were commanded to receive and pay tithe. DO YOU AGREE WITH THIS BIBLE TRUTH? if you don't agree with this bible truth, kindly state your reason(s).

(e) As a PRECONDITION to the Levites accepting/inheriting the tithes, God EXCLUDED them from OWNING LAND in Israel because tithe is given to them as their inheritance. WHY IS "NOT OWNING LAND" NOT PRACTICED TO FULFILL THE CONDITIONS FOR RECEIVING TITHE OR WHY DO TITHE TEACHERS/PREACHERS OWN LAND/BUILD HOUSES YET STILL RECEIVE TITHE - Is this part of God's ordinance being practised in today's tithe doctrine?

@ debosky,

You are too much! Sometimes, I wonder why people are never patient enough. I have to re-ask my question in order NOT for Image123 to evade them. Because he (image123) must answer my question. Thank you once again. God bless you.

ATMC: Stimulation of d sexual organ so as to produce organ...

In addition to your definition of mastubation, this is from Webster dictionary online:

Definition of MAST-URBATION

Erotic stimulation especially of one's own gen-ital organs commonly resulting in orgasm and achieved by manual or other bodily contact exclusive of sex-ual intercourse, by instrumental manipulation, occasionally by sex-ual fantasies, or by various combinations of these agencies

Do you agree with this definition of Webster?

ATMC: here is ok, d matter we r dealing wit is 'mastur.b@tion, a sin'. Nd pls lets not digress, nd lets leave any pastor out of this, talk to me...if u agree, go on with ur points, i'm all ears

Let start with the definition of mastubation. What is your definition of mastubation?

The Natural Man - The Body/Flesh.

And the LORD God formed man [of] the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living being(soul). Gen 2:7 nkjv (some translations have living "soul", that why I put it in bracket,okay)

First, we define man even though we might not fully define man because the definition of man goes beyond what I will teach here. I am just going to make it short so as to attend to other things for today in my schedule. Okay.

In the verse above, we see that the LORD God "formed" man out/from the dust of the ground. This formation is great. To form or make is different from to create. In the account of creation, we find the use of three words namely, "create, form and make/made". To create is to make something exist OUT OF NOTHING. This word, "create" is only attributed to God as ONLY God is the subject of creation. In other words, ONLY GOD CAN CREATE. To form or make/made is to bring something into existence OUT OF OR FROM SOMETHING THAT ALREADY EXIST. Now, we see the LORD God "forming" man OUT OF or FROM the dust of the ground. That is, this "dust of the ground" already existed.

This formation is the PHYSICAL BODY OF MAN. When I was doing some studies about man some times back. It stroked my mind that if God formed/made man from the dust of the ground, it will make sense that we should all be moving around in our physical body AS DUST INSTEAD OF FLESH. This is where God is great. I don't know how God converted "dust of the ground" into "flesh" and yet "flesh" is still "dust of the ground". Glory to God. This sounds mysterious but when a man dies, this flesh/body returns as/to dust of the ground. If we put it in a mystery, man's body is a moving or physical dust.

Now in the above verse, we see that this man (structure from "dust of the ground), that is the physical body does not become a "living being or living soul" until the "breath" was breathed into that structure. This is God reproducing into man. If we put it in another way, man is NO man without this breath which makes him a living soul. Hence what make man the real man is not the dust of the ground but the breath through which that structure from the dust of the ground became a living soul.

When God breathed into this "dust structure", many things happened from my understanding:

One, this dust transformed to our "flesh or physical body" as we have now. This is the being of man that serves as physical or visible to natural/visible world. This flesh/body is what houses or serves as vehicle to the real man or spirit/soul being/man which is the from the breath of God. This is what is referred to as natural man/being or as body/flesh

Two, the image and likeness of God was reproduced or formed/made in man became a living soul/spirit. Becoming a living soul and God creating man in His image/likeness translated to man having a spirit because God is a spirit. Hence, the real man (soul or spirit or breath) that is enveloped in a dust (now flesh/body and natural/visible/touchy) is the spirit of/in man. So if you like call it spirit or soul, it's the same thing. At this point, man's spirit should NOT be confused as God's Spirit/Breath. This is just to establish the fact that God created man in His image/likeness for God is a Spirit, that is God reproduced in man. Take a look at this:

"God [is] Spirit, and those who worship Him must worship in spirit and truth." John 4:24 nkjv.

The burden [fn] of the word of the LORD against Israel. Thus says the LORD, who stretches out the heavens, lays the foundation of the earth, and forms the spirit of man within him: Zech.12:1 nkjv

But [there is] a spirit in man, And the breath of the Almighty gives him understanding. Job 32:8 nkjv

Three, man also possess a mind. The being in/of man that "knows or for knowledge/understands"

"For God knows that in the day you eat of it your eyes will be opened, and you will be like God, knowing good and evil." Gen 3:5 nkjv

Then the eyes of both of them were opened, and they knew that they [were] naked; and they sewed fig leaves together and made themselves coverings. Gen 3:7 nkjv

the eyes of your understanding being enlightened; that you may know what is the hope of His calling, what are the riches of the glory of His inheritance in the saints, Eph 1:18 nkjv

So far, I have been able to establish that real or actual man is spirit/soul who also possess a mind and lives/houses it in a body. In other words, the Real man (Spiritual man) has/possess a Mind (Carnal man) and lives or is housed in a body/flesh (Natural man). The Natural man, our body or flesh is "dust" given to man to contact his natural world. It has different parts so as to function properly during his contact with the natural world. This Natural man (our body) is NOT born again when the real man (spirit man) encounters new birth. It remains the same. As our body contacts the visible or natural world, it is tend towards corruption and hence, we are admonished to present our bodies a living sacrifice to God. Romans 12:1. We are also reminded due to the tendencies of our body (Natural man) being corrupted from the physical world that our body is the temple of the Holy Spirit and that we are to glorify God in our body. 1 Corinthians 6:19-20.

It is our responsibilities to use or body (natural man) to the glory of God. I will keep expanding on the body as I talk about the mind and the spirit of a man. God bless you.

@ Image123,

Please stop playing games. This is serious as you said. The question says, "levites or levitical priesthood". It's the same thing. Levites functioned under the "levitical" priesthood. It's NOT tribe of Judah that functioned under or as levitical priesthood,it's the Levi and ALL the different version I quote proved that. Your answer was that the bible does not say it was abolished and I helped you quote different versions to show it was abolished.

So please answer Q4 now AFTER I showed you where the bible said it was abolished. Thank you.

@ Jem1,

No worry. Just leave Image123 to answer my questions. All things (Abraham tithe or levitical tithe) will be taken care of in my questions. Just siddon dey look. We still dey Q4. Am waiting for Image123 to now answer the question Q4.

Goshen360: Q4: Was the Levites or Levitical priesthood (who were instructed/commanded to receive tithe and in turn pay tithe to the priest) ABOLISHED or NOT?

And this is Image123's reply:

Image123: The Bible does not say anywhere that the Levites were abolished.

Here are DIFFERENT TRANSLATIONS TO SHOW THAT THE LEVITES AND AARON PRIESTHOOD HAD BEEN ABOLISHED

Hebrews 7:11-12

If therefore perfection were through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need was there that another priest should rise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be called according to the order of Aaron? For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.

Now if perfection (a perfect fellowship between God and the worshiper) had been attainable by the Levitical priesthood--for under it the people were given the Law--why was it further necessary that there should arise another and different kind of Priest, one after the order of Melchizedek, rather than one appointed after the order and rank of Aaron? For when there is a change in the priesthood, there is of necessity an alteration of the law [concerning the priesthood] as well.

So if perfection came through the levitical office of priest (for the people received the Law under the priests), why was there still a need to speak about raising up another priest according to the order of Melchizedek rather than one according to the order of Aaron? When the order of the priest changes, there has to be a change in the Law as well.

If indeed then perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, for the people had their law given to them in connexion with *it*, what need [was there] still that a different priest should arise according to the order of Melchisedec, and not be named after the order of Aaron? For, the priesthood being changed, there takes place of necessity a change of law also.

The people were given the law under the system of priests from the tribe of Levi. [size=15pt]But[/size] [size=15pt]no one could be made spiritually perfect through that system of priests.[/size] So there was a need for another priest to come. I mean a priest like Melchizedek, not Aaron. [size=15pt]And when a different kind of priest comes, then the law must be changed too.[/size]

The people established the Levitical priesthood based on instructions they received. If the work of the Levitical priests had been perfect, we wouldn’t need to speak about another kind of priest. However, we speak about another kind of priest, a priest like Melchizedek, not a Levitical priest like Aaron. [size=15pt]When a different kind of priesthood is established, the regulations for those priests are different.[/size]

It was on the basis of the levitical priesthood that the Law was given to the people of Israel. Now, if the work of the levitical priests had been perfect, there would have been no need for a different kind of priest to appear, one who is in the priestly order of Melchizedek,[a] not of Aaron.12 For when the priesthood is changed, there also has to be a change in the law.

If the priesthood of Levi and Aaron, which provided the framework for the giving of the law, could really make people perfect, there wouldn't have been need for a new priesthood like that of Melchizedek. But since it didn't get the job done, there was a change of priesthood, which brought with it a radical new kind of law. There is no way of understanding this in terms of the old Levitical priesthood, which is why there is nothing in Jesus' family tree connecting him with that priestly line.

Now if perfection was through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the people received the Law), what further need was there for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be designated according to the order of Aaron? For when the priesthood is changed, of necessity there takes place a change of law also.

The people were given the law concerning the system of priests from the tribe of Levi, but they could not be made perfect through that system. So there was a need for another priest to come, a priest like Melchizedek, not Aaron. And when a different kind of priest comes, the law must be changed too.

Suppose the Levites who were priests could have made people perfect. The law was given to the people so they could become perfect through the priests. Then why was there still a need for another priest to come? And why did he need to be like Melchizedek? Why wasn't he from Aaron's family line? A change of priests requires a change of law.

The Law was given during the time when Levi and his sons were the religious leaders. If the work of those religious leaders had been perfect in taking away the sins of the people, there would have been no need for another religious leader. But one like Melchizedek was needed and not one from the family group of Aaron. 12 For when the family group of religious leaders changed, the Law had to be changed also.

It was while the sons of Levi were priests that the law was made for the people. If those priests were good enough, why would another priest need to come who was like Melchizedek? Why would he not be like Aaron? If the kind of priest is changed, then the law must be changed also.

Now, Prophetic-Apostle Image123,

You are before God's people and the whole world. We "assume" you don't know that the levitical priesthood was abolished when you said the Bible does not say ANYWHERE that it was abolished. Hebrews 7:11-12 IS VERY CLEAR. Will you please answer Q4 now? You said, "The Bible does not say anywhere that the Levites were abolished" and I have just given you places where the Bible says the Levites/Levitical priesthood (who were instructed/commanded to receive tithe and in turn pay tithe to the priest) HAD BEEN ABOLISHED OR CHANGED.

NOW BACK TO Q4: Was the Levites or Levitical priesthood (who were instructed/commanded to receive tithe and in turn pay tithe to the priest) ABOLISHED or NOT?

Image123: The Bible does not say anywhere that the Levites were abolished.

I dey laugh in tongues. Wait make I help you.

Snowwy: @Goshen,
I would rather we give room for the main topic well except the OP sees this a reference point to the main topic.

In my own view, I don't think the OP will see us derailing this thread in the sense that, many of our thread on this religious session is being polluted by Atheists and we thank God this heavy stuffs is hidden in this thread of 3 kinds of men. On the contrary, I will "assume" this OP will also learn some heavy stuffs in this as we have already dealt with the three kinds of men. Remember this our "hidden" topic is as a result of KamiLara's request that we expatiate more on the three kinds of men. I responded to KamiLara's request that i will add more nudget on how God never intended that man should be alone and that He will make him an helper so I added that nuggets. I added it because I believe the Holy Spirit is vital for the new man(the Spiritual man). I hope you see the connection now.

However, in other NOT to derail this thread, let us finish on these 3 kinds of men and we will come back on this Holy Spirit for Man. What kind of man among the three does the Holy Spirit belong to? The Spiritual man off course. Why not the Holy Spirit for the body or the soul? We will answer the question as we expand on each of the three kinds of man. Okay.

KEEP YOUR PLACE/FINGERS ON THIS HOLY SPIRIT STUFF. IT WILL BE USEFUL WHEN WE GET BACK TO THE SPIRITUAL MAN. Let's expand more on EACH OF THE THREE KINDS OF MAN.

Mabell's thought was that,

1. THE NATURAL MAN: a matural man is that is not born again

2. THE SPIRITUAL MAN: The spiritual man is a man born of God

3. THE CARNAL MAN: This kind of man is in-between the natural and spiritual man.

Goshen360's thought is that, I encapsuled what Mabell said and represent it in Each human being and I presented it thus:

Our Body (Natural man); Our Soul (Carnal man) and Our Spirit (Spiritual man)

Now let's tie up everything together. I will take 3 days to expand on each of the men, starting with the natural man. One day for each. Stay blessed. I will be right back tomorrow.

^^^
I have said it and will repeat the same thing. We don't have to go in circles. If you don't mind and you want to open another thread to discuss this subject, that is fine by me. Just invite my I.d in the title of the thread. My point remains, the fact that Christ becomes sin for us does not mean we should go ahead sin. The problem is you are NOT rightly dividing the word of truth. Balance your teachings and you will be fine.

Is Revelation 21:8 in your bible?

@ louisadiks,

I sent you another email. Make sure to check your "spam" mail also. Something i might hang there.

@ frosbel,

I hope you are not insinuating against books?

Q4: Was the Levites or Levitical priesthood (who were instructed/commanded to receive tithe and in turn pay tithe to the priest) ABOLISHED or NOT?

Image123: Where are you? Please, i already pleasssssse answered pleaseeeeee.

Okay. I take it as you already answered Q3. Thank you.

Image123: 3 ). i'm not NOW teaching that tithe is from ALL THINGS. Tithe has ALWAYS been from ALL since forever. Ask Abraham our Father, he gave tithes of ALL(Genesis 14v20). So it's not a new thing, it precedes, seniors and surpasses Levi. Abraham gave tithes OF ALL, He's the father of faith and of ALL faithful givers. He's the one who rejoiced to SEE our day. He saw it, and oh boy, how glad He was. He would not be limited by carnal ordinances.
Jesus wasn't giving instruction? My, oh my, you're one lucky person Goshen. Kunle should not dare this. "The world" is looking and watching your fumble.
God's instruction encompasses the whole of scriptures. Look into the whole scriptures. Start from the places that speak of tithes and find out. Luke 18.12 is very significant.
"I fast twice in the week, I give tithes of all that I possess. " (Luke 18:12).
A man, speaking of the common practice in Jesus' days, "I give tithes OF ALL that I possess". These are the facts. Truth hurts less with time.

Do I take this answer for Q3 that says: WHAT ARE GOD'S SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS WHEN HE INSTRUCTED TITHE?

I dont see you answer Q3 here but you are giving rebuttal. Answer Q3 as it is NOW narrowed down to SPECIFIC INSTRUCTION ON TITHE ONLY since you said God was specific in some instructions and He wasn't in some. Now we are limiting it God's specific instructions on tithing alone.

On the issue of Abraham tithe you are citing as example. I have told you many times you should hold on that we will get there soon in our questions. Again, Let it be VERY CLEAR that GOD NEVER INSTRUCTED/COMMANDED ABRAHAM TO TITHE. So let's focus on the "Specific instruction from God as regards tithing". Even if you NOW assume Abraham tithe should be taken as example, I have good news for you in what Jesus said, Before Abraham was, I Am". However, if you claim that Abraham tithe is the one to be followed, wait till i ask my question abeg,lolz

Image123: Hahaha, Gooooshen! "The whole worldddddd!" Glory be to God, i'm not part of that world. i hope nuclear would not regret putting his trust in you. So, you no really get questions, you're playing by ear?

That is NOT the point my brother. You answered in you own way. I didn't rebut it. I said I took your answers as you said it even though there are flaws in your answers but I still take it as you said it. All I want is for me to ask my questions to the 10th questions. That's all.

You said Tithe is clearly from 'ALL things' as read in 2Chronicles 31v5. And asked people reading this thread go simply God back to where God FIRST instructed tithe so as to see what these "ALL THINGS" contains. If in your mind or assertion or claim according to 2Chronicles 31v5, that ALL THINGS includes money then wait till you finish the 10th questions. This your assertion that ALL THINGS may include money (as am trying to help you conclude that your ALL THINGS include money). I perceive that is where you are going but am NOT looking at that. So if your assertion is that ALL THINGS include money, then we will get there through the remaining questions.

PLEASE ANSWER Q3 PLEASE.

Thanks bro Snowwy,

Yes you are right with the observation. It's a long article and I might have missed sometime in between the article or failed a correlation to blend it well. However, the whole point of the revelation is that, when you have a new birth, it is not good that this new man be alone, the Holy Spirit is the helper intend to/for believers. I kind of didn't finish the article yesterday though because I was in a rush going out. It all boils down to the need to receive the Holy Spirit.

On your Second thought about the OT Holy Spirit and that of the NT. Let us do some puzzle here on the following verses and let's see how we can chew/explain them,

"For he will be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink. He will also be filled with the Holy Spirit, even from his mother's womb. Luke 1:15 nkjv

And it happened, when Elizabeth heard the greeting of Mary, that the babe leaped in her womb; and Elizabeth was filled with the Holy Spirit. Luke 1:41 nkjv

Now his father Zacharias was filled with the Holy Spirit, and prophesied, saying: Luke 1:67 nkjv

Jesus HAD NOT BEING BORN IN THESE VERSE AND YET IT WAS RECORDED THESE PEOPLE HERE WERE "FILLED". I want us to shew some heavy stuffs here. Are you ready? So if these verse are considered NT but Jesus had not being born yet but it is recorded that they were "filled". I thought it should be that the Holy Spirit "CAME UPON" them. What is your take on these verses since it is the Outpouring of the Holy Spirit that "filled" a believer and also remember, these people above are NOT yet born again but yet "filled".

Secondly, Let's chew on this heavy Stuff below:

And when He (Jesus) had said this, He breathed on [them], and said to them, "Receive the Holy Spirit. John 20:22 nkjv.

What do you think happened here? If they received the Holy Spirit here, What is the need for Acts 2 Holy Spirit coming upon them since they already received the Holy Spirit in John 20:22.

TIE UP JOHN 20:22 WITH THESE BELOW VERSE:

Acts 2:4 nkjv: And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.

Acts 4:8, Then Peter, filled with the Holy Spirit, said to them, "Rulers of the people and elders of Israel:

Acts 4:31, And when they had prayed, the place where they were assembled together was shaken; and they were all filled with the Holy Spirit, and they spoke the word of God with boldness.

Acts 9:17, And Ananias went his way and entered the house; and laying his hands on him he said, "Brother Saul, the Lord Jesus, [fn] who appeared to you on the road as you came, has sent me that you may receive your sight and be filled with the Holy Spirit."

Thirdly, Look at these verses again:

Now when the apostles who were at Jerusalem heard that Samaria had received the word of God, they sent Peter and John to them, who, when they had come down, prayed for them that they might receive the Holy Spirit. For as yet He had fallen upon none of them. They had only been baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus. Then they laid hands on them, and they received the Holy Spirit. Acts 8:14-17 nkjv

he said to them, " did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?" So they said to him, "We have not so much as heard whether there is a Holy Spirit." Acts 19:2 nkjv

I raised 3 issues here. What is your understanding when you read these THREE dimensions/manifestation/operations of the Holy Spirit "CAME UPON", "FILLED" and "RECEIVE". You can explain one by one or explain the three together as you deemed it fit. Let's chew some stuffs bro.