Emusan:


Isaiah 42 is a prophetic verse which means foreseeing what will happen in the future.

Even the same thing happened in Malachi

Does that mean John the Baptist has started existing with God that time?

Olodo

MY servant is not prophetic , it's a description of the chosen one.

Olodo!
Didn't that prove to you that Christ as God didn't change His nature which is my point here!

So if you apply that it means those Christians didn't change their human nature yet are fully Of GODS NATURE ?

SHARE doesn't mean that is the FORM they exist.

But Share in the case of Jesus means FORM he exist ? this tight corner wey u enter , na die.

So was that verse LYING that they share GODS NATURE ?

Emusan:


Share divine nature doesn't mean they change from being human because that's not what the verse is all about

Hahahahahaha Guy

But when Jesus share humanity he was human. Mr , Was the verse LYING they share Gods nature ?

Emusan:


May statement is that you share a form doesn't mean you exist in that FORM....

We exist as HUMAN that's is our FORM.

Jesus was FULLY HUMAN on earth because HE SHARES in humanity not that HE WAS HUMAN FROM BEGINNING.

Do you read the bold ? He shares means existed as human .

Apply same to those humans sharing Gods nature.

Emusan:


Despite the fact I explained that statement when you ignorantly claimed it was Past Tense, you can still spew this thrash...Truly there's is a pride in ignorance.

Isaiah 42:1

" Look! My servant , whom I support! My chosen one, whom I have approved "

God would be lying to call him his servant if he wasn't at the point of writing that verse.

They are still human!

Their Nature didn't change unless you can proof further that, that's what the verse say.



They are still human their Nature didn't change!

Coming from someone who believe Jesus can co- exist with man nature and God nature

Who is lying you or the bible ? It says clearly that they share Gods nature. So did scripture lied or what are you trying to prove?

.

Emusan , laughs

Emusan:


The problem you're having is big, many translations reference Isa 42:1 with Phil 2:7

Why? Simply because it was that time when Christ became man that Isa 42 was fulfilled.

Just like I said if ordinary primary school English is difficult for you, how can you even understand scripture?

Isaiah 42:1 didn't say " my future servant "

He was servant even the present.

Grow up. The possesive MY says it all

They are PARTAKERS/SHARE, they don't exist in that FORM

But Christ exists in God's form which only God existed.

When it was shared with them, In what Nature do they exist ?

Let me quote your own translation of Phil 2 so that it can cure your ignorance!

[color=blue]"who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God. No, but he emptied himself and took a slave’s form and became human"[/Color]

Even your own translation says "WAS EXISTING in God's FORM" and went further to say "but emptied himself and took a SLAVE'S FORM"

Which shows the state He was and the state He is now.



SHARE isn't EXISTING in that FORM

I even forgot you lack understand of basic English.

Which Nature was shared with them ?

Once shared, in what form do those humans exist ?

Brain dead analogy Emusan .

freshboi88:


Only God has Gods nature u dunce!!!

The verse clearly shows a distinction between two nature's.

Gods nature and Human nature

The verse says Jesus dropped one and picked the other this making him a servant

It was human nature that was called Nature of servant. Now you are learning.

Angels don't have human nature ( nature of a servant , But are they servants ? Question 1.

Question 2. Some humans by virtue of God sharing it , Also Possess the divine/GODS NATURE. ARE THEY EQUAL TO GOD ?

Answer both and let's see how valid your postulations are.

freshboi88:


Thank u for giving that guy brain and curing his sickness

kid check my replies , dont be silly

freshboi88:


Only God has Gods nature u dunce!!!

Then those humans sharing THE GODS NATURE ARE EQUAL TO GOD , yes ?

Emusan:


Me a joke, coming from someone who can't distinguish between Simple Past Tense and Present Perfect Tense.

So when was He chosen?

U can't call someone who is not your servant . My servant . that statement long before he even came to earth point to a greater truth.

The verse says "...ye might be PARTAKERS of the divine nature " this is different from being in FORM of God.

Nope, partakers of what ? I ask paratakers of what ? DIVINE NATURE. GODS FORM, are they equal to God ?

Yeye dey smell

The problem you have is that, you don't even understand yourself.

Phil 2 was about the NATURE/FORM He existed before and the NATURE/FORM he now exists.

Which means He never EXISTED AS SERVANT but ONLY exists as a SERVANT when he became human.

Emphasis on NATURE and FORM ... Points to appearance , agreed ?

Its clear you no know nothing.

Like I said, you're still perambulating.

He existed in FORM/NATURE of God from beginning NOT AS A SERVANT, He only exists as FORM/NATURE of a servant when He became human.
[b]
But to your question!
ONLY GOD CAN HAVE THE NATURE OF GOD

Having God's nature means you're God just as having human nature means you're a human!

So clearly then those sharing the GODS NATURE are ALL EQUAL TO GOD , accepted ?

Am loving this

Maximus69:


Jozzy, this one has a very deadly disease o, his own is triple times all others.

He is suffering from chronic antijw virus !

The disease may obviously get him into trouble this early morning

Emusan:
Firstly, do you agree you misinterpreted Isaiah 42:1?

U must be a joke
MY servant, possessive pronoun. No am not wrong. He was a servant as at when chosen. I only wanted to tackle that UNFOUNDED claim that seek to say Having divine nature means someone can't be a servant of the Most High.

This is where you got it wrong!

NOTICE this your statement "...having Divine nature means someone can't be a servant"

It's obvious that you tune has changed!

The center point is, what He is before and after.

He was in FORM of God before taken upon the FORM OF A SERVANT.

So the two statements can't be true!

If the two statements can't be true. Are human who possess divine nature EQUAL TO GOD ?

Instead you should be worried about your ignorance.

Now let's substitute NATURE into Phil 2:7 and see how it exposes your ignorance.

"....and took upon him, the NATURE of a servant"

This simply means, he wasn't a servant before this time but at this time he possessed the NATURE of SERVANT



You're digressing from the main point!

The point isn't whether Jesus shares divine nature but ONLY BECAME SERVANT at certain time.

Thank God it says " NATURE of " Nature refer to a certain form or APPEARANCE. Get schooled. The verse explains it further saying " being in the likeness of men" this is the nature it was reffering.

Not even angels have this nature of a servant . BUT it doesnt mean they are not servants.


Does having NATURE OF GOD means someone is not a servant or someone is equal to GOD ?

The trillion dollar question.

Emusan:


My point is centered on the @color part!

If at this your age you can't be able to distinguish the SIMPLE PART OF SPEECH in a statement, then your education is useless and speaks volumes of your Bible interpretation.

What you called PAST TENSE for your selfish interest in that verse is simply called PRESENT PERFECT TENSE which means that the action started in the past and has continued until now with LENGTH OF TIME!

So if Isaiah says "My Servant whom I have CHOSEN" it means the ACTION which is 'CHOSEN' has been achieved many years ago.

Now, since Isaiah is a prophetic statement it means He has been chosen times ago as a servant that's why Apostle Paul said "He took on a form of servant" just as scripture also mentioned that Jesus was a lamb SLAIN FROM FOUNDATION OF THE WORLD, which doesn't means He was killed at that time but a task to be achieved but CHOSEN/DECIDED many years ago.

If Jesus has already been a servant then, Apostle Paul would have been wrong to say "He took upon him the FORM of a servant"


In fact, the whole Phil 2:6-7 proves you wrong that Jesus has always been a servant because it was written plainly the FORM He existed before (GOD) and the FORM He became later (HUMAN) as servant!


The reason I had to correct your ignorance is because you keep repeating that lie of PAST TENSE which means if you have problem with simple primary school English then your level of Bible interpretation needs to be questioned.

Your assumption is based on the fact that having Divine nature means someone can't be a servant.

Form means Nature in this context, we both agree , am focusing on the highlighted because it is what will expose your incompetency.

Humans are said to be sharers of this same NATURE OF GOD, Does that mean they are not his servant or are now equal to God ?

Hebrews 6:13 freshboi88

"When God made his promise to Abraham, he made a vow to do what he had promised. Since there was no one greater than himself , he used his own name when he made his vow. "

NO ONE is greater than God himself.

But Jesus have a God . a servant of someone and a begotten son.


Jesus is not OUR GOD ( revelation 7:9)

freshboi88:


U be real OLODO!!!!!!!!!

He made himself nothing by taking the nature of a servant.

Other translations would say he Emptied Himself

Kid, define nature ? The reference was to his human body.

Isaiah 42:1 says My Servant , whom I have CHOSEN . past tense.

For him to become nothing. It means he must have been something to make that choice

What was he before he emptied himself ....that's what should get u thinking if u had a functioning brain

He was in the nature of God. This nature even humans have. Kid. And it doesnt mean they are not created , neither does it mean they are equal to God.

A begotten son was produced. Has a beginning.


OUR GOD is not a servant of anyone , neither was he begotten by anyone

freshboi88:


How is mighty chief and Mighty God the same thing nah.....u be real mumu o

You have a long long long way to go.

Kid, Bible wasn't written in English, in its Hebrew original language. The same word appears for both mighty chief and mighty God.

El Gibboa.

New International Version
Isaiah 10:21 A remnant will return, a remnant of Jacob will return to the Mighty God.

Nah simple question I ask u here o

Who is the Mighty God in this verse? Naim u dey carry story come o

Ansa the question nah

Yahweh.

freshboi88:


Shame, im taking Ur whole congregation on and this is the best u can do.

My response to @ bolded.

U have not understood Ur bible very well.

New International Version
Philippians 2:7 rather, he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness.

First thing first, The one described as Mighty God cannot be a servant.

@ bolded Jesus coming to serve is because he decided to do so out of his love for u and i. The Bible tells us that he made himself a servant.

If u r good in English that should tell u, originally he isn't a servant.

New International Version
Isaiah 10:21 A remnant will return, a remnant of Jacob will return to the Mighty God.

Who is been referred to as Mighty God?

Philippians 2:7 again " he made himself nothing by taking the very nature of a servant, being made in human likeness "


says NATURE of a Servant., Nature means form , its the human body that was described as having human nature.

So because Angelic sons of God dont have the NATURE OF HUMANS, they are not servant ?

Isaiah 42:1 says My servant , whom I have chosen. chosen. PAST TENSE .

He chose his servant before he even came to.the earth . so Jesus was a servant before coming to earth .


OUR GOD is not a servant. Thank God for revelation 7:9

freshboi88:


Are u saying the bible is Lying?

Point out the verse that that calls human beings Mighty God.....no stories !!!.....nobody cares about what u think

Show me the verse

New International Version
Isaiah 10:21 A remnant will return, a remnant of Jacob will return to the Mighty God.

Since Mighty God are humans

Who is the Mighty God Isaiah referred to verse 21

Ezekiel 32:21

" The mighty chiefs [ in Isaiah translated as Mighty God ] shall speak of them, with their helpers, out of the midst of Sheol: ‘They have come down, they lie still, the uncircumcised, slain by the sword.’ " ESV .


Do you accept this translation as meaning of EL Gibboa?

SultanOfPuna:
Show me where in the Bible that says marrying or fucking your cousin is a sin.


Jews during the time of Jesus married their cousin like their Arab neighbors.
Many references of cousins marrying in the Bible.

why is it a taboo??
I have done my research back in history
The only reason it is a taboo is because of the genetic problem that happen with inbreeding.
But having casual sex with a fine or handsome cousin is not a sin..
Impregnating your cousin is where the issue is due to inbreeding..
One of my best sex was with my maternal cousin Amanda..
We bleeped each other with passion and love almost every chance we had.
No omen, no curse, none of that African bullcrap about badluck.
She is now married a British consular and is living her best life..
I'm doing very well too
We still gist once in a while
Do not let dumb traditions of the past hold you from exploring your sexual desires.
Just be careful not to impregnate
But you two can fvck well well

As humans spread over the earth.
The bible clearly banned Such relations.

" No man among you should approach ANY OF his close relations to have sexual relations " Numbers 18:6

freshboi88:


Biblical illiterate. I pity. JW has put Ur brain under Ur armpit

Who is a way been made for?......Jesus or Yahweh?

Frustration has set in Sorry bro

The text of Isaiah 40:3 says Yahweh NOT Jesus . stop lying

And Yahweh send Jesus his servant to accomplish that. Isaiah 42:1

How is that a rocket science for you ?

freshboi88:


Humans are not called Mighty God. Lair!!!!!!.....

Re read the quote, this time calmly

" Isaiah called Jesus " El Gibboa" Mighty God . even humans are called El Gibboa but translators changed it. U see you have no point ? "

Do u deny the same "El Gibboa" translated Mighty God at Isaiah 9:6 was applied as to human beings ?

To avoid confusion so people won't call humans Gods, the English translators change it but the Hebrew says humans are EL GIBBOA just as Isaiah 9:6

Can u deny that ?


You are still a kid in this things , u know very little.

Isaiah called Jesus Everlasting Father??....are humans called Everlasting Father too?...

an Everlasting Father that has A Father that beget/produce him , yes ?
This answer will put sense into ur empty head[/quote]

Maximus69:


That's the rendering of your translation, some translation renders it this way

"I make you God to Pharaoh"

So it's laziness that's worrying you, i've compared several versions of the Bible to make sure of what God's word said!

He is very lazy .

freshboi88:


U have woken from your slumber. I no wan Jump go Holy Spirit yet. If the mumu @CANTICLES ansa my yes or no question atleast we can conclude an argument. I know that's JW style of dragging arguments, moving from one to another. Not with me

New International Version
A voice of one calling: "In the wilderness prepare the way for the LORD; make straight in the desert a highway for our God.

Who is the our God referred to in this passage.

I know u ran away from that holy spirit question . continue ... Your lies are exposed already

freshboi88:

@Janosky @CANTICLES

New International Version
A voice of one calling: "In the wilderness prepare the way for the LORD ^Yahweh ; make straight in the desert a highway for our God.

Did Isaiah refer to Jesus as our God?

Fixed.
Isaiah didn't call Jesus OUR GOD. He called Yahweh our God.

freshboi88:


When i say u people don't have sense, u will argue with me.

I asked @CANTICLES a question, let him ansa me.


Did Isaiah call Jesus Mighty God?....Yes or No?.....

If any of u cannot answer a simple question the. Ya all are cowards

Isaiah called Jesus " El Gibboa" Mighty God . even humans are called El Gibboa but translators changed it. U see you have no point ?


That he was called a servant should have opened ur mumu eyes that Jesus is not our God. He himself even said it

CANTICLES:


Your voice is getting low , what went wrong , Did Jesus lied that ONLY THE FATHER KNOWS when there are TWO PERSONS that knows ?


Guy, you are making Jesus a lie with your tradition.

I wonder for freshboi88 . he still can't answer this till now.

freshboi88:


I agree from the verse u quoted that Isaiah called him Servant. Did he also call him God....Yes or No?

OUR GOD is not a servant .

Isaiah call him God, the same way bible called angels God. Do you know the angel that fought with Jacob was called God ?

God is not the subject here but the proclamation " OUR GOD " . Revelation 7:9 emphasizes that Jesus is not our God , he himself said it.

Well done bro @Canticles

CANTICLES:


The fact still remains Jesus is a property of The Father , just like everyone else. that's what the bible says , that I made a mistake in quote doesnt change it. I didn't know you are not so knowledgeable enough to know the bible said so.

1 Corinthians 3:23 " Christ belongs to God "

Jesus is part of what Came from the Father . his properties that belong to him.

When freshboi88 sees that the bible call Jesus a belonging of the Father

freshboi88:


I have answered u before nah, u even quoted the answer

All things came from the Father the same way [color=red] All things came from the Son. [color]

There is only one source , The Father from whom all things came. No Scripture says all things came from the son. It says " Through" the son. ( 1Cor 8:6)

But the problem is it also came through the Father tell us what came through the Father ?

If Jesus is not part of what came from The Father , why does he belong to him ?

U have ran from that 1Cor 3:23 canticles gave you. It exposed una

In Isaiah, the Son is also called Father.



New International Version
For to us a child is born, to us a son is given, and the government will be on his shoulders. And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace.

So my friend u dnt have a point. Open ur heart to accept the truth.

Can u tell us why a created being is called God and Everlasting Father?...

God with a capital G, not a small g....cos I know the lie u wanna tell now

Angel that fought Jacob claims to Be GOD . capital G . so nothing special

Jesus is not the Father , so you have no point


Did Jesus belong to himself ?

Why is he another persons property if he isn't created ?

Canticles also ask why Jesus is our brother ?

freshboi88:


To answer your question...All things came from the Father, The Source, Originator.

col 1:16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:

So also... Christ created all things. Let me leave you to differentiate between both. When u are done let me know

Are they both the same ? No.

So tell us what came through the Father.

Freshboi88 , come and show your talent here

freshboi88:


Actually, I have more sense than you. Isn't that evident?...


Should I still school u again....wht will u give me if I open ur eyes

you claimed Jesus saying I am in the Father means Jesus is same with the Father . then it means we too are same with Jesus and his Father.


U this liar


John 17:21
.that all of them may be one, as You, Father, are in Me, and I am in You. MAY THEY ALSO BE IN US so that the world may believe that You sent Me.

Does this mean we are The Father and Jesus ? That point expose your false reasoning.