Emusan's Posts
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Gabrielshow24:I know how to deal with him even if he changed moniker ![]() |
Truthseeker10:You're just confusing yourself My point using The God is when you try to equate my illustration of MAN to be both NATURE and NO PERSON. I just showed you that the first God in John 1:1 is a PERSON because of the definite article THE. which make it different from the second God which the word IS. Do you agree that the word can be WITH GOD when He's also God? You mean the original Greek says "The God" is "the Father" in John 1:1 according to you?No! I said the first God which the word was with shows it's a PERSON. What is the Greek word for "The father" and what is the Greek word for "The God"?You have Google, Don t you? Are you now saying that the greek word rendered "THE God" cannot be used for "The Son" And The Holy Spirit in John 1:1?The Greek word used in John 1:1 at the second part shows God which the word was with is different from the God which the was IS. That's my point about the "The God" That should be clear by now |
Truthseeker10:Yes! KJV didn't use and I'm not causing any grammatical error because I'm just elucidate more for clarification and I didn't add. The fact, is there's is The in front of the God. I never said it did. I was only asking a questionThen stay on the lane. I clearly said that if the Diagram says that God is the Father, the son and the Holy Spirit, How can John 1:1 say that the word is God and is with God.Yes! Which is the reason I used that illustration of the first male and female. You are claiming that with God is actually with THE GOD But was not used that way because of Grammatical accuracy.Yes! It's in the original Greek. And that to show you that the God is of two different backgrounds not the same thing. You also claimed that THE God refers to the Father IN John 1:1 after claiming that The Word "God" is generic and can refer to the three individual in the Diagram.Yes! because that makes the first God to be a PERSON the word can't be with NON Existing thing. So where did you get The God as Only The Father in John 1:1?The original Greek. Check it and stop going in round |
MaxInDHouse:You haven't answered my question. Do the legions of Angels have name or not? |
MaxInDHouse:I agreed with God's word that says there are legions of Angels which I know they all have names. Do you agree? |
MaxInDHouse:You haven't answered my question. Doe that mean the rest of the Angels don't have name? |
Truthseeker10:Ask KJV translator not me and not only KJV most translations too didn't have it Even if it was put, are you saying that "THE GOD" appears in the Diagram that i showed you and that it only refers to The Father?The God didn't appear in your diagram. Stop lying. If you agree that the Diagram has only one "GOD" as nature, where did you see "GOD" as person in the Diagram?You posted that pic and asked me do I agree with it? Which I said YES! Your next question was [b]How can The word(God) be with(God)? Which I used the case of the first Male & Female to explain WHY THE WORD GOD CAN BE WITH GOD. Are we discussing the diagram? because I never said the diagram has TWO GOD as a person. |
MaxInDHouse:Good! But there are other angels that Bible did not mentioned their names. Do you agree? |
MaxInDHouse:That's not the point, you're claiming you're following God's word and the same God's word shows there are legions of Angels. True or false? Scripture talks about Angel visitation where their names are not mentioned. |
Truthseeker10:Good to know you understand now. What is the grammatical accuracy that the king James version is not using it for?The Greek word used in the second part where "The word was with God" shows there's a definite article THE in front. According to the diagram that I showed you, How many "GOD"(nature) presented in the Diagram?Just ONE. Is The word "God"(nature) used as person in the Diagram?No! |
MaxInDHouse:So only Michael and Gabriel are the Angels Jehovah created? |
MaxInDHouse:Is it not the same God's word that says THERE ARE LEGIONS OF ANGELS? You want to dodge my question ![]() |
Truthseeker10:It will help you to understand your confusion below. So are you saying that The WOMAN(person) who is MAN(NATURE) is with MAN(NATURE)?No! I'm simply saying "The woman(person) who is MAN(NATURE) is with MAN(person). Remember, your first question was, how can the word(God) be with (God). This shows, you're confusing the usage of the word GOD in John 1:1 Please what translation uses "THE GOD" and "GOD" in John 1:1 because the Kjv does not use it?, and the Word was God New King James Version In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.KJV might not use it for grammatical accuracy but the word used by the writer in Greek shows the word was with THE GOD is different from God who the word is. |
MaxInDHouse:So the glory of God is also God. Why can't the same glory be recorded as SEEING GOD FACE TO FACE? Now, you equate this same GLORY to be AN ANGEL. IS GOD'S GLORY AND ANGEL the same? You see, John 1:18 is talking about different thing not about GOD REVEALING HIMSELF TO PEOPLE. Is that not what I said? |
MaxInDHouse:The scripture says there's are legions of Angels. because God's word never mentioned their names, do you mean they don't exist? |
MaxInDHouse:But the scripture says IT'S back side of God Moses saw not GLORY. Why are you lying? |
MaxInDHouse:So God was lying when the scripture says He was seen face to face. You must choose one. ![]() God cannot be seen {John 1:18 compare to Exodus 33:20} but the god who always represents him can be seen.Yes God can't be seen by man in their own wisdom and power. Scripture shows how God REVEALED HIMSELF to people. Read John 1 clearly |
Truthseeker10:Which you agreed with, or you didn't? ADAM= person.Adam is also equal PERSON because that was the first MALE called. So in a nutshell: Adam = Nature Adam = person(the first male) Woman=Eve.MAN = NATURE. To say A MAN, let's go with your insertion. The woman is a nature. Which is very wrong. So, the whole point is that, since the word MAN is generic THE WOMAN can be WITH MAN. Do you agree? Kindly bring out where John 1:1 says the word(person) was with The Father(person).John didn't use FATHER in John 1:1 but The God and God were used. One is the person and the second is the NATURE. |
MaxInDHouse: |
MaxInDHouse:You're saying the scripture is contradictory then. If the scripture says people speak with God face to face God is not a liar who will instruct people to pen down lies. When the scripture says people spoke with God face to face, it means God came down (that is bringing Himself to the level He can interact with man). When John recorded that NO MAN HAS SEEN GOD, John was talking about MAN USING HIS OWN WISDOM AND KNOWLEDGE TO AQUIRE THAT LEVEL. Read the scripture again. Context is the key. |
MaxInDHouse:You're the one who added REPRESENTING not the scripture. Both Yahweh and Angel visited Abraham later only Angel was mentioned. That doesn't means both did not visit. Also, we have many instances in the scripture where many people did something but only one or two were mentioned. Conclusively, reading NWT no one can accurately say there's ONLY ONE ANGEL representing God because many Angels were mentioned in the Bible that actually delivered God's message. |
Truthseeker10:Even though you're trying to differentiate them with capital but that's not the case here. Remember, the word ADAM means MAN. On the red color as you understood it. So which one is more accurate. The woman was man or the woman is a man? According to the diagram, God is the Father, The son and the Holy Spirit. John 1:1 mention The word(person) Who is God(nature). Can you bring out the other person mentioned in John 1:1?The Father! For you even to agree that The Word is God by NATURE means you don't know what you're arguing against. |
MaxInDHouse:Your first lie is you saying "ONLY one angel has been REPRESENTING Jehovah" In all verses you quoted no Angel was mentioned to have represented Jehovah. The closest one is where "MY ANGEL..." was used which could mean ANY ANGEL of God among the legions of Angels. So, reading NWT no can can accurately say there's ONLY ONE ANGEL representing God because many Angels were mentioned in the Bible that actually delivered God's message. |
Truthseeker10:The word MAN is a generic word which means both MALE & FEMALE can be called MAN. In the garden, the woman was with man, and the woman was also CALLED MAN. Do you agree? Here, do you think the word MAN used here is about NATURE or just one INDIVIDUAL PERSON? Does John 1:1 mention another person apart from The Word(person) Who is God(nature)?Yes! "The God" whom The Word was with is a PERSON. |
MaxInDHouse:Show me how this angel was addressed and can be identified in your NWT ![]() |
Truthseeker10:But which one is more accurate. The woman was MAN or the woman was a MAN? Does not The diagram clearly shows that Three persons share one nature in the middle which is called "God" And that one nature "God" is shared by three persons? So How can The Word(person) be God(nature) and be with God(nature)?The Word(person) can be with God because God here is a person too. Just like the woman(person) who shares the same NATURE with the male is also with MAN, man here is a person. |
MaxInDHouse:Which means, reading NWT ONLY no distinction among the angels can be established. I love that. |
You didn't answer my question! Do that first. Truthseeker10: |
MaxInDHouse:Why does the expression "The Angel of the Lord/Jehovah or an Angel of Jehovah/Lord" never used by Watchtower in their translation NWT? ![]() |
Truthseeker10:The word God is Generic which means the THREE ARE GOD BY NATURE. Do you understand why The Word was with God in the first place? |
Truthseeker10:I love this but don't run whenever I throw my own question to you or try to play hide and seek. The word "God" is a generic word just like the word "Man." Which can be used for both male and female. For instance, in the account of creation in Genesis, we read the followings: 1. Let Us make man in Our image... 2. let them... 3. So God created man in His own... 4. He created him; male and female He created them. If you read Genesis 2 you'll notice how the word MAN was used for the male Adam and interchangeably used for both male and female ADAM. REMEMBER, the female didn't get her name EVE not until after the fall Now let's use this analogy to explain John 1:1, 1 John 1:2. In the garden was the woman, the woman was with the man, and the woman was MAN. It will be a grammatical error to say In the garden was the woman, the woman was with the man, and the woman was a man In line of this, as Genesis uses man for both first male & female, every right thinking person knows the first expression is correct as "...the woman was MAN" is about NATURE not gender or something else. But the second expression "...the woman was a man" shows the woman is a male gender or something else not about NATURE. So where "...the word was with God" in John 1:1 or "The eternal life was with the Father" in 1 John 1:2 show the word IS GOD by nature not another person. |
Truthseeker10:Yes! |
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