₦airaland Forum

Maynman:
.

Bwaaaaaahhhh. Senseless comment from a slowpoke.
Everybody knows the peak of modern civilization was when the western nation was built on Judeo-Christianity value system they got it right.
Now that degenerates and dogs like u are in charge, we can see how well it's turning out for them.

Per second per second mention typist on nairaland. No life, no job, no purpose. All he does is look for who's next mention.

U are waste as well as a fa.g, I repeat u are waste. No father would ever be proud to have someone like u like a son. Go and tell your father you are gay and see how he will place eternal curse on you.

I know u don't have ego but whether your parents still have their ego intact is what we have to find out from u.

Anytime u quote me here on nairaland, my one direction reply is to send u to your parents that failed to train u properly.

Quote me on nairaland, I send u to your parents. It's as simple as that. Don't say I didn't warn u.

Maynman:
Maynman worthless "pests" he calls parents are the one that are obviously slaves, if not you won't be shamelessly tighten your Jewish slavery chains ⛓️
Says alot about your descendants that was taken as slaves in Egypt before Yahweh took them as his inheritance.

My parents proudly raised me a Christian. Christians built this present civilization u enjoying. So yes they raised me right.

That cannot be said of yours who raised a worthless fa.g. A f.ag is useless to everybody including himself. That's evident by the speed he replies me tion here on nairaland. You spend all your life chasing who to mention on nairaland. Except Seun is paying u for it, your life is pathetic and your parents have every right to be ashamed of your pathetic and wasteful life.

What a waste. Your father ought to place a curse on u for bringing his name to the mud.

Maynman:
Dog, Maynman

Your parents obviously raised a dog. That's why u grew up a shameless fa.g. Says a lot about them.

Maynman:
Dog, Maynman

I'm sure that's how your parents described u. For u to think they look like humans.
Your parents must have seen it in u.

LordReed:
Where is the evidence that it was the lingua franca.

U gotta be kidding me!!!
Sorry I won't do u the honour of response to above.
If u don't know above, well maybe u need to read more.

Anyway we've all tried. Let's call it a day.
The constant harassment from that pest is very annoying.

Apology for any insult or offence. U seem like a great guy, I hope my Christian friend was wrong about u.

U've been tested so I know what stuff I made of now.
Always remember maranatha, whether u like it or not.

LordReed:
You brought a definition of Hellene that says it referred to a native of Greece hence my question.

It covers those who embrace the Greek culture or immersed in it.

LordReed:
There are 2 screenshots, the 2nd shows how Sirach itself is canon. That it is not Jewish canon but is Christian canon only serves to underscore my point: what constitutes canon is a function of the bias of those selecting that canon.

Read and comprehend plsssssss

I SAID THE JEWISH BIBLE- TANAKH WHICH IS THE ORIGINAL OLD TESTAMENT DO NOT CONSIDER SIRACH AS CANON.

Aemmyjah:
When you engage with a mad man, you'll suffer
When it's 2 mad men, it's worse

It's better to engage with 10 mad men that with someone that is just foolish cos mad men also have sane moments
How much more two people that are just foolish?
They don't contribute anything meaningful on Nairaland apart from the one trying to make sense to himself on existence and nonexistence
Imagine them using the same book they criticize as myth, forged, fraud to validate or invalidate things that are said or written in the same book

Imagine saying that Pilate spoke Aramaic 😂 😂 😂. Plate that tomorrow, they will cook up articles that he never existed

Is LordReed also a nuisance. I thought he's one smart dude.
I may have to end this afterall.
Not that he's intellectually sound in anyway.
Just imagine, he still can't get it that the syrophoenician woman is not a native of Greece but a Greek speaker. That's the reason she was called Greek/hellene.

Aemmyjah:
Acts 6
Now in those days when the disciples were increasing, the Greek-speaking Jews began complaining against the Hebrew-speaking Jews, because their widows were being overlooked in the daily distribution.


Greek was already a common language beginning from the civilization caused by Alexander the Great.
Funniest comment is assuming that Pilate spoke Aramaic 😂

Pilate speaking Aramaic is a desperate attempt to extract most extreme unimaginable evidence.

I never believed LordReed will fall for that, not surprised about our friend though....

I wonder how many English men during the colonial period leant any Nigeria language in order to communicate with Nigerians.

Very absurd.

LordReed:
How was she both a Syrophoenician and a native of Greece?

You acknowledge that it was Jews who called foreigners Hellenes, was it not Jews who wrote the gospels?

I never said she was a native to Greece. Pls read to understand.

LordReed:
I don't know. What language were they using?

Greek.
The eastern Roman province was heavily Hellenised by the 1st century AD. It was the lingua Franca of that era in the Judea and Mediterranean.
That's why the Jews refer to non Jews (gentiles) as greeks/hellene.
It's extrapolation of the word Hellene/greek by the jews to cover greek speakers.

Even Jews that lived abroad and embraced the Greek culture in those days were called Hellenised Jews.

LordReed:
Yes I guess my statement was inaccurate so I have screenshot the exact wording and added how Sirach itself is considered canon.

They may have mentioned Daniel but do they reference a book of Daniel?

Do u actually understand what u underlined. It says the prologue of sirach listed canon of prophet books.
It never said book of sirach is a canon. The book was never considered a canon by any Jewish sect.

Here's the prologue they talking about
https://bible.oremus.org/?passage=Ecclesiasticus%2044%E2%80%9349&version=nrsvae

LordReed:
He answered the question, it was a translation. The actual word used was Hellene meant to indicate she was a foreigner. The English translation to Greek was obviously inaccurate since she was Syro-Phoenician.

When does Hellene meant foreigner. In what era.

So a Syrian living in Greece in 1st century AD will be called Hellene? Is that what u saying?
The Greeks will call a foreigner living amongst them Hellene?

Common u much smarter than this, don't just follow a blind man into a pit.
That I chose to ignore been him since yesterday doesn't mean he's right.

Do your own research so that u don't end up like him...a nuisance.


The Jews are the ones that call gentiles/foreigners by the word Hellene/Greek, and there's a reason for that.

That doesn't mean a Roman will call an Egyptian Hellene unless the Egyptian fits the criteria.

Anyway some answers gives insight.

LordReed:
Nobody is saying there weren't any Greek speakers there, the question is were Jesus and the disciples converse enough to speak and write it.

When Jews speaks to non Jews in 1st century AD, what language do they use to communicate?

LordReed:
Sirach's compilation of the Tanakh did not include it and that was compiled 200 to 175 BCE.

Sirach did not compile any tanakh neither was his work cannonised as a Jewish scripture.
The book of sirach is regarded as one of the inter testament books written when there was no further prophesy in the land, it's called deutorocannonical.

Some chapters of the book listed the prophets but it's not an exclusive list.
Sirach didn't mention Ezra, Zachariah or Malachi which are post exile prophets but mentioned zerubabel.
Whereas the book of ezekiel written in 400-500BC mentioned Daniel and 1st book of Maccabee written in the 2nd century mentioned Daniel.

LordReed:
Maynman already pointed out why she would have been called that. It is quite possible that she could also converse in Aramaic so again this is not categorically saying the conversation was in Greek.

Still on Greek language.

When Pontus Pilate ordered Jesus to be crucified. He had an inscription written above his head 'king of the Jews'
According to john, this was written in Latin, Aramaic and Greek.
Why the Greek language? Who are the target audience the Greek inscription meant for in a Palestinian province?
Latin is understandable since it's the language of Roman authority but why Greek?
Why would Pontus Pilate, a Roman governor order the inscription written in Greek amongst Jewish population?

Finally, when Pontus pilate spoke to Jesus; what was the language of communication?

LordReed:
Maynman already pointed out why she would have been called that. It is quite possible that she could also converse in Aramaic so again this is not categorically saying the conversation was in Greek.

He didn't answer the question. He answered the question he set for himself not mine.
The bible made it clear she wasn't a native of Greece so I don't understand his numerous screenshots which are irrelevant to the fact.

The issue here is not whether she spoke Greek or Aramaic.
Why was a gentile woman called Greek? That's my question.
It's a testament to the widespread Hellenised culture and influence in other non greek culture of those days.

LordReed:
That may be but the crux of the matter is the canons are all curated by men using criteria that fit their biases. The canon does not indicate any kind of infallibility.

Above is your opinion not based on any factual evidence.

The debate on the book of daniels and gospel of Peter proves that.

Thank u.

LordReed:
1. The Bible doesn't state that it was a ROMAN centurion, we can infer that but it doesn't state it categorically.

2. The passage in Luke states that Jesus didn't speak with the centurion directly but through "elders of the Jews", who we will presume spoke Aramaic, the language of the region.

Now still on Greek language.

Why was the syrophoenician woman called Greek in the gospel of Mark.
The woman is not a Greek by ethnicity but a Canaanite from the area of Tyre and Sidon.
That makes her a gentile anyway. But why was she referred to as being Greek if she wasn't a native of Greece.

LordReed:
1. The Bible doesn't state that it was a ROMAN centurion, we can infer that but it doesn't state it categorically.

2. The passage in Luke states that Jesus didn't speak with the centurion directly but through "elders of the Jews", who we will presume spoke Aramaic, the language of the region.

1.Maybe u need to check for the meaning of centurion. There's no Greek centurion or Jewish centurion. A centurion is always a Roman official.

2. Two disciples of Jesus who were with him in Capernaum and witness to the event confirmed and wrote that Jesus spoke to the centurion.
They are Mathew and John and they gave their account in the respective gospels they wrote.
They both wrote Jesus had a conversation with the centurion.

Aemmyjah:
When you drop details
They ask stupid questions

If you say 1 plus 1 is 2
They won't acknowledge
They will ask you what is 1 and what is 2?
Leave ignorance for ignorant people

Atheist are funny people. They live in this delusion that Christians can't think and won't be able to challenge their nonsense ideology. They think they know enough theology to conclude there's no God and scripture is wrong.

Unfortunately , they don't do enough research to test their claims. That's why when they meet knowledgeable Christians, they really struggle. All of them.

LordReed:
I don't know what century it was tagged pseudepigrapha or when scholars started saying it wasn't written by Daniel. I would suppose that the early church fathers attributed it to Daniel.

The authorship of Daniel wasnt challenged until 19th century by scholars.
Book of Daniel wasnt regarded as part of the inter testament books by the Jews or any scholars until the 19th century.

At least try and read what's written here. It's takes effort from our busy lives to write and update here.
How can u say the church fathers were the ones that named the book of Daniel when even Jesus quoted from the book. Septuagint that existed 200 yrs b4 any church fathers had the book of Daniel.

If I say we should end it now u will inhale your laffing gas and then bwaaaaahhh

LordReed:
Dude it is YOUR OPINION that this passage means that he knew how to speak and write Greek. That passage doesn't unequivocally say that he knew how to speak Greek.

Back on Daniel.
When was the book of Daniel tagged pseudepigrapha. What century did scholars started saying it wasn't written by Daniel.
Who was the authorship of book of Daniel attributed to during the early church fathers period?

LordReed:
Dude it is YOUR OPINION that this passage means that he knew how to speak and write Greek. That passage doesn't unequivocally say that he knew how to speak Greek.

What's circumstantial evidence.
If I find your finger print in a murder scene. What kind of evidence is that? Is it admissible in court as evidence.

Continue hiding behind one finger.

Still on this matter, let me ask you another question.

What language did Jesus use when communicating to the Roman centurion he healed his servant.

LordReed:
Your opinion is invalid, show the evidence that Jesus spoke Greek.

My opinion or the bible? U see why I dont want to continue this conversation with u.

When did the bible becomes my opinion.

35 The Jews said to one another, “Where does this man intend to go that we cannot find him? Will he go where our people live scattered among the Greeks, and teach the Greeks? 36 What did he mean when he said, ‘You will look for me, but you will not find me,’ and ‘Where I am, you cannot come’?”

Maynman:
Lies, it didn't originally contain book of Daniels. Also the Daniel in the Septuagint is different from the one in your modern bible versions(Masoteric text).
How and when was the "Septuagint" complied?

You are a big fool, very big one.
I gave u a simple assignment but yet to answer, instead jumping into wetin no concern u.

Why do Jews call gentiles Greeks.
All u brought here is that Jews indeed call gentiles Greek. That is correct.
The question is why?
I repeat why do Jews call gentiles Greek.

LordReed:
Oga when you asked me to state which work of Papias I was quoting I didn't waffle. I want you to state which work the quotes are taken from, not interested in screenshots.

Did Jesus travel to Greece or any other Roman province? Evidence please.

Guy I showed u the bible. That u an atheist is not an excuse not to recognise the bible.

The Jews were thinking Jesus would leave them and go to Hellenised region to preach to the Greeks.
In what language will he preach to the Greeks?

LordReed:
Oga when you asked me to state which work of Papias I was quoting I didn't waffle. I want you to state which work the quotes are taken from, not interested in screenshots.

Did Jesus travel to Greece or any other Roman province? Evidence please.

The works are on the screenshots against their respective names. Open your eyes, u will see them.

LordReed:
Sirach's compilation of the Tanakh did not include it and that was compiled 200 to 175 BCE.

The Septuagint that was compiled in the 3rd century bce 300-245 BCE had the book of daniels.

LordReed:
Which work of Iranaeus is this?

And how does the bible passage indicate it was Greek that was being spoken and not Aramaic the common tongue of that area at the time?

As u can see I'm bringing the evidence and the source here for u to read and learn. Not pushing claim or opinion.
I make a claim, u ask for evidence..I present it
That's how this debate proceed. Otherwise I will end it.
Going forward that's what I want from u.
I don't care about your opinion or claim. What I want is evidence backing your claim.

Now I want from u

1. Evidence that Jesus or his disciples couldn't speak or write Greek.

2. When the book of Daniel was considered pseudepigrapha.

No evidence, ignore mode activated.
U are free to inhale more dose of laffing gas to help your bwaaaaaahhhh sound louder.

Church fathers on the gospel authorship
Cc LordReed

LordReed:
Again, who cares who compiled the Tanakh, Christians included it in their canon. The question is why include one and exclude the other since they are both pseudepigraphal.

You are the one who cannot produce a concrete answer, so the question stands. When you are able to sufficiently answer the question then we can move on.

Even if we agree book of daniel is pseudepigrapha, when was it believed by scholars to be pseudepigrapha. What century?
Pls provide evidence, I'm not interested in your opinion.